Liability Flashcards

1
Q

What is agency?

A

the fiduciary relationship that arises when one person (principle) manifests assent to another (the agent) that they shall:
* act on the principle’s behalf & subject to the principal’s control; AND
* the agent manifest assent or otherwise consents to the act.

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2
Q

What is control for agency?

A

The ability to instruct the agent is control.

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3
Q

How are agency relationships terminated?

A

Either party can end the relationship at any time or for any reason by communicating to the other that the relationship is over.

effective on notice & possible even if K to the contrary.

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4
Q

What are the parincipal’s obligations

A
  • a duty to reimburse or indemnify the agent for any promised payment
  • Duty to reimburse for any payments made within the scope of actual authority
  • Principal must deal w/ agents fairly & ingood faith
  • Must co-operate w/ agent and not unreasonably interfere w/ agents duties.
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5
Q

Agent’s obligations (important for class)

A

Agents are fiduciaries with respect to matters within the scope of the agency relationship

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6
Q

What is actual authority?

A

Authority that the agent reasonably believes thay have, based on the principal’s manifestations expressed through words or conduct.

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7
Q

What is apparent authority?

A

When a 3rd party reasonably believes that the actor has authority to act on the Principal’s behalf, and that belief is based on the principal’s manifestations.

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8
Q

What is undisclosed principal authoerity

A

3rd party is interacting with an agent but believes they are interacting with a principal. Principal may be held liable for actions outside the scope of actual authority in certain cases.

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9
Q

What determins whether an agent can be held liable?

A

whether they entered into a contractual obligation with a 3rd party on behalf of a disclosed, unidentified, or undisclosed principal

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10
Q

When is a principal liable in a situation of undisclosed principal authority?

A

3rd party justifiably induced to make detrimental change by an agent acting on the principal’s behalf and without actual authority if the principal
* had notice of conduct and that it might induce a change in position
* did not take reasonable steps to notify them of the facts.

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11
Q

What is ratification

A

Affirming an party’s prior acts, making it as if they were done with actual authority. Done by:
1. Manifesting assent to the act; OR
2. by conduct that justifies a reasonable assumption that the person consents.

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12
Q

Disclosed principal

A

When princpal is diclosed only they and the 3rd party are a part of the K

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13
Q

Unidentifed principal

A

When an agent with actual or apparent authority makes a contract on behalf of an unidentified principal, all three are parties to the contract

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14
Q

When is a principa unidentifed?

A

When the 3rd party has notice that the agent is working on behalf of a principal but doesn’t know who they are.

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15
Q

Undisclosed parincipal

A

All three are a party to the K as long as the agent has actual or apparent authority.

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16
Q

When is a principal liable for an agent’s tort actions?

A

○ The agent acts with actual authority to commit a tort
○ When the principal ratifies the agent’s conduct
○ Direct or strict liability when activity is inherently dangerous

17
Q

When is someone an employee? (Vicarious liability)

A

when principal controls or has a right to control how the employee does their job

18
Q

What determins whether an agency relationship exists for franchisors

A

Has the franchisor exercised sufficient control over the franchisee

19
Q

When can an agency relationship be terminated?

A

Any time, by either party, for any reason.

20
Q

What is the duty of care?

A

The duty to act w/ care an ordinarily prudent person would reasonably be expected to exercise in a like position & under like circumstances

21
Q

What is the Business judgment rule?

A

The BJR creates a rebuttable presumption that the directors acted on an informed basis, in good faith, & in the honest belief that the action was in the best interests of the corporation.

22
Q

How may a director or officer eliminate or reduce their liability for breaching the duty of care?

A

An exculpation clause, which will dismiss these complaints for a failure to state a claim

23
Q

What are the DCGL exculpation carve-outs

A

1) a breach of the duty of loyalty

2)an act or omission not in good faith or against the law

3) any transaction in which a director or officer gained an improper personal benefit

24
Q

What is the duty of loyalty?

A

a duty of D&Os to act in a manner they reasonably believe to be in the best interests of the corporation

25
Q

What are the two types of duty of loyalty cases?

A

Interested transactions and corporate opportunity cases.

26
Q

When will an interested transaction not automatically be void/voidable?

A

§ there has been informed, disinterested board approval; or
§ Informed disinterested shareholder approval; or
§ the transaction is fair to the corporation

27
Q

How do courts analyze common law breaches of fiduciary duties?

A

Through a fairness review, a judicial inquiry looks into procedural and substantiation fairness.

28
Q

Procedural fairness inquiry

A

focuses on the internal corporate process followed in obtaining approval by directors or shareholders. Is the cooperation adequately informed? has there been a deep analysis of the transaction?

29
Q

Substantiative fairness inquiry

A

a comparison of the fair market value of the transaction to the price the corporation actually paid or was paid

30
Q

What is corporate opportunity?

A

Forbids a director, officer, or managerial employee from diverting any opportunity that belongs to the business over to themselves (singer case)

31
Q

Are loans taken out by the corporation included when calculating capitalization for piercing the veil?

A

Yes