Leys Flashcards

(121 cards)

1
Q

Several factors contribute to the state of nutrition including: appetite, ______, genotype, digestion, metabolism, availability of food, customs and _____.

A

energy expenditure,

presence of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Leptin, ____, and insulin are important regulators of food intake

A

Ghrelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What circulates in the body at levels proportional to body fat

A

Leptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____ signals the brain that the body has had enough to eat or satiety

A

Leptin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Adipose tissue produces _____ that regulate metabolic processes to meet the body’s needs

A

adipokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

AMP and AMP/ATP regulate ______ that senses cellular energy levels

A

AMP-activated kinase (AMPK)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What regulates rate-limiting enzymes in energy producing and using pathways?

A

AMPK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

High levels of AMPK activity inhibit ______ and stimulate energy generating pathways

A

energy-utilizing pathways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Increased ______ increases appetite

A

Ghrelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Ghrelin favors accumulation of ___ in the visceral fatty tissue

A

lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Estimated average requirements (EAR) for calories and daily protein requirements change with ____ and ____.

A

age and sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The idea amount of calorie intake in a day is equal to the __________.

A

calorie utilization for that day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

________ for a nutrient is a value that is adequate for the great majority of individuals

A

Recommended daily allowance (RDA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The estimated average requirement (EAR) reflects amount that is adequate for ___ of the population.

A

half

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What nutrient has the highest energy content per weight?

A

fat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Alcohol has a _____ energy content

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

T/F Different nutrients have the same energy content

A

false, different

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Increases in obesity are correlated with an increase in the use of ________

A

high fructose corn syrup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

High fructose corn syrup is made by breaking down ____ into glucose using ____ followed by conversion to fructose with glucose isomerase

A

cornstarch, amylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

__________ causes a number of health problems including: decreased protein synthesis and glucose transport, fatty liver, liver necrosis, and fibrosis, depression, hypothermia, compromised immune function and wound healing, decreased cardiac and renal function, loss of muscle

A

protein-calorie malnutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The health issues associated with consumption of_______ include: mercury exposure, hypertension, elevated cholesterol, long term liver damage, increased risk of diabetes, weight gain and obesity.

A

high fructose corn syrup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

________ is associated with an increased risk for several conditions including: _____ diabetes, hypertension, stroke, dyslipidemia, gall stones, respiratory disorders, musculoskeletal disorders and several cancers including breast, endometrial, ovarian, gall bladder and colon

A

obesity, type 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

______fatty acids are not essential and provide no benefit to human health

A

trans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Saturated fats increase levels of ______ cholesterol (bad cholesterol)

A

LDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
_____ increase levels of LDL and also lower levels of HDL (good cholesterol); thus increasing the risk of coronary heart disease
trans fats
26
cis and trans are both _______ fatty acids
unsaturated
27
Unsaturated fatty acids contain at least one _______ bond
double
28
Cis- unsaturated fatty acids contain a ______ bc of the double bond
kink
29
Trans fatty acids are similar to _______fatty acids
saturated
30
Cis means that molecules are on the _______
same side
31
The ________ compartments of an animal cell include the mitochondria, cytosol, rough ER, smooth ER, nucleus, peroxisomes, endosomes, lysosomes
intracellular
32
_____ that have crossed a membrane are no longer topologically inside the cell
proteins
33
______ must recross the membrane to get back inside the cell
proteins
34
______ move from compartment to compartment within a cell by budding off and membrane fusion
vesicles
35
Many proteins have signal sequences at their ____ terminus that directs the proteins to cross the membrane
amino
36
Fewer proteins have _____ signal sequences
internal
37
The _____ is surrounded by a double lipid membrane bilayer
nucleus
38
_______ allow molecules, including proteins to pass from the cytosol into the nucleus and back
nuclear pores
39
Larger proteins pass through nuclear pores by a/an _____ process
active
40
It requires multiple signals to transport proteins from the cytosol into the lumen of the ________
mitochondria
41
Nuclear import receptors bind to _______ found on some nuclear bound proteins and facilitate transport into the nucleus
nuclear transport signals
42
There are multiple protein _____ in the mitochondrial membrane. Each ______ interacts with a specific set of proteins
Translocator
43
What is required to transport proteins into the mitochondria?
energy
44
Proteins enter _____ using a mechanism similar to mitochondrial entry
peroxisomes
45
Proteins travel from the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) through the ______ to many sites
Golgi Apparatus
46
A __________ binds to the signal sequence during translation and directs the nascent peptide to the ER membrane
Signal recognition protein (SRP)
47
Proteins bound for the mitochondria are translated in the _________ and then transported through the mitochondrial membrane
cytosol
48
What is required for transportation of proteins through the mitochondrial membrane?
ATP
49
Proteins that are headed into or through the ER are transported through the ER membrane during _______. This process does not require any additional energy.
translation
50
_________ modification of proteins in the ER helps direct them to their ultimate location
carbohydrate
51
The "default pathway" if there are no other signals directing the protein to other locations, is to send the protein to the ________
cell surface
52
In regulated secretory pathways cells store proteins in _______until they are signaled to release them from the cell by fusion of the vesicles with the cellular membrane
secretory vesicles
53
There are close to _____ bases of the human genome but only 20,000-25,0000 _______ genes
3 billion, protein coding genes
54
Alternative splicing and alternative gene promoters result in 4-6 different ______ from a single gene
mRNAs
55
Number of protein-coding mRNAs (transcriptome) may be as large as ________
100,000
56
The original Human Genome Project used ________ and ______ approaches for sequencing
clone by clone, shotgun
57
There are ____ gaps remaining in the Human genome (compared to 150,000 in draft)
250
58
Since the completion of the human genome, how has sequencing capacity and costs been affected?
sequencing capacity increased, costs decreased
59
_________ (OMIM) database has >10,000 entries that associate human genes with inherited diseases
Online Mendelian Inheritance in Man
60
What are mapped base positions in the genome where the nucleptide varies among people
SNPs (single nucleotide polymorphisms)
61
Companies (eg 23 and me) are offering full genome scans to individuals for less than $100. This analysis is based on _______
SNP (single nucleotide polymorphism analysis)
62
This analysis uses labeled DNA hybridized to array of several million oligonucleotides on chips. This can be used for prenatal screening for early detection of chromosomal defects
Chromosomal Microarray Analysis (CMA)
63
_______ is the complement of mRNAs, containing protein coding sequences but there are also other RNAs produced that play structural or regulatory functions (miRNA, siRNA, etc.)
Transcriptome
64
The transcriptome can be studied using ______, a collection of complementary (cDNA) made from mRNA or synthetic oligonucleotides arranged on a solid phase slide in defined order
Microarrays
65
Generally, several _____ probes per gene are used with microarrays
oligonucleotide
66
Two samples can be compared by labeling each with a different ______ and hybridizing them to the same array (eg. two-color arrays can compare normal and cancer cells)
fluorescent dye
67
With advances in sequencing technology, ____ or sequencing the entire compliment of RNA in a sample is rapidly replacing microarray approaches
RNAseq
68
Data analysis is ____ intensive and requires stringent statistical analysis
bioinformatics
69
The study of the protein complement of a cell
proteomics
70
________ proteomics is the analysis of protein profiles from two or more samples (eg diseased vs healthy cells) to identify quantitative differences that could be responsible for observed phenotypes
comparative
71
Proteomics can identify _______ modifications that cannot be detected by transcriptome analysis
posttranslational
72
Proteins can be separated by two dimensional __________ or by Liquid Chromatography (FPLC, HPLC)
polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (PAGE)
73
______ are identified by Mass spectrometry
Proteins
74
What is the identification and quantification of steady-state levels of intracellular metabolites (sugars, aa, lipids, nucleotieds etc)?
Metabolomics
75
Because the technology to identify every metabolite in a biological sample is not available, ________ is often carried out, where a few specific metabolites are measured
targeted metabolomics
76
Drug metabolism can take place anywhere in the body (plasma, kidney, lung, gut wall) but where is the prime site?
liver
77
An increase in DNA repair activity can ____ effectiveness of drugs that target DNA
decrease
78
What are the three potential outcomes of drug metabolism?
1) Increase in drug hydrophilicity and ability to be secreted (hepatic) 2) Metabolic products are less pharmacologically active than the substrate drug 3) Inactive prodrugs converted to their active dorms (hepatic)
79
What are the five mechanisms of drug resistance
1) decreased permeability 2) alteration of the target site for the drug 3) enzymatic inactivation of the drug 4) active transport of the drug out of the cell 5) amplification of the gene coding for the target of the drug
80
Multidrug resistance results from an increase in the amount of ____ that can pump many different drugs out of the cell
transporter proteins
81
Examples of water soluble vitamins and where are they stored?
Vit B & C | Not stored, excess secreted
82
Examples of fat soluble vitamins and where are they stored?
Vit A, D, E, K | in tissues
83
What do measurements of vitamin levels in the blood relate to?
recent intake
84
____ vitamins act as coenzymes in many metabolic pathways
water-soluble
85
The body has no storage capacity for water-soluble vitamins- except vitamin ____
B12
86
Can excess of B vitamins be toxic?
yes, evidence emerging
87
What happens to most vitamins before they become active?
modification
88
Lack of _____ causes angular stomatitis
riboflavin
89
What can cause biotin (B7) deficiency?
eating raw egg whites
90
What is needed indirectly for DNA synthesis?
folic acid
91
There is an _____ demand for folic acid during pregnancy
increased
92
What is one of the most common vitamin deficiencies?
Folic acid deficiency
93
Where is vitamin B12 concentrated in the body?
liver
94
Vitamin C deficiency causes ____ resulting in defective ____ synthesis
scurvy, collagen
95
Lack of this vitamin impairs immune function
vitamin C
96
______ soluble vitamins are not as readily absorbed as ____ soluble vitamins, but can be stored in tissues
fat, water
97
What fat soluble vitamins can be toxic in excess?
vit A & D
98
The functions of ____ and folic acid are interrelated
B12
99
Inhibitors of folate reduction are used as _______ (trimethoprim) and _____ (methotrexate)
antibiotics, cancer therapy
100
Which B vitamin is a coenzyme for carboxylations?
B1 (thiamin)
101
Which B vitamin is a coenzyme for transaminases?
B6
102
Vitamin B2/B3 are conezymes for what reaction?
oxidoreductases
103
Which B vitamin is a coenzyme for carboxylases?
Biotin (B7)
104
Folic acid/B12 are conezymes for what reaction?
single carbon transfers
105
What vitamin is teratogenic and should be avoided during pregnancy?
Vitamin A
106
_______ acid is a signaling molecule that interacts with ligand-activated transcription factors
Retinoic
107
What does a deficiency in Vitamin A cause?
night blindness
108
What does vitamin D regulate?
calcium and phosphorous homeostasis
109
How is the majority of vitamin D produced?
UV exposure of skin
110
What climates have a difficult time getting sufficient vitamin D in the winter?
northern
111
What vitamin is necessary for blood coagulation?
vitamin K
112
What vitamin deficiency has a link to early childhood caries?
Vitamin D
113
What does a deficiency of vitamin D cause?
demineralizaition of bones with increased susceptibility to fractures
114
C3H6O3
Lactic Acid
115
What are the 4 essential processes needed to develop from a single cell into a multicellular organism?
1) Cell proliferation 2) Cell specialization 3) Cell interaction 4) Cell movement
116
What type of genes direct regions (segments) to differentiate into their final forms?
homeotic genes
117
Homeotic genes are arrayed on the chromosome in the _____ as they are expressed in developing embryos and in the same order in _______ and humans
same order, fruit flies
118
Genes can have complex expression patterns by having a series of control regions directing ____ in different regions of the oranism
transcription
119
Describes what a cell will become in the normal course of development
cell fate
120
A stable change that causes a restriction on a cells developmental potential.
cell determination
121
How do developmental genes compare between different organisms
similar