Lewis: Chapter 60: Spinal Cord and Peripheral Nerve Problems

Question 1

What information would the nurse seek from a patient with newly diagnosed trigeminal neuralgia?

a. Visual problems caused by ptosis.
b. Poor appetite caused by loss of taste.
c. Triggers leading to facial discomfort.
d. Weakness on the affected side of the face.

Answer 1

ANS: C
The major clinical manifestation of trigeminal neuralgia is severe facial pain triggered by cutaneous stimulation of the nerve. Ptosis, loss of taste, and facial weakness are not characteristics of trigeminal neuralgia.

Question 2

Which patient assessment would help the nurse identify potential complications of trigeminal neuralgia?

a. Have the patient clench the jaws.
b. Inspect the oral mucosa and teeth.
c. Palpate the face to compare skin temperature bilaterally.
d. Identify trigger zones by lightly touching the affected side.

Answer 2

ANS: B
Oral hygiene is frequently neglected because of fear of triggering facial pain and may lead to gum disease, dental caries, or an abscess. Having the patient clench the facial muscles will not be useful because the sensory branches (rather than motor branches) of the nerve are affected by trigeminal neuralgia. Light touch and palpation may be triggers for pain and should be avoided.

Question 3

What action would help the nurse evaluate outcomes of a glycerol rhizotomy for a patient with trigeminal neuralgia?

a. Inquire if the patient is doing daily facial exercises.
b. Question if the patient is using an eye shield at night.
c. Ask the patient about social activities with family and friends.
d. Observe the patient chewing with the unaffected side of the mouth.

Answer 3

ANS: C
Because withdrawal from social activities is a common manifestation of trigeminal neuralgia, asking about social activities will help in evaluating if the patient’s symptoms have improved. Glycerol rhizotomy does not damage the corneal reflex or motor functions of the trigeminal nerve, so there is no need to use an eye shield, do facial exercises, or take precautions with chewing.

Question 4

Which action would the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who is experiencing pain from trigeminal neuralgia?

a. Assess fluid and dietary intake.
b. Apply ice packs for 20 minutes.
c. Teach facial relaxation techniques.
d. Spend time talking with the patient.

Answer 4

ANS: A
The patient with an acute episode of trigeminal neuralgia may be unwilling to eat or drink, so assessment of nutritional and hydration status is important. Because stimulation by touch is the precipitating factor for pain, relaxation of the facial muscles will not improve symptoms. Application of ice is likely to precipitate pain. The patient will not want to engage in conversation, which may precipitate attacks.

Question 5

The nurse identifies a patient with type 1 diabetes and a history of herpes simplex infection as being at risk for Bell’s palsy. Which information should the nurse include in teaching the patient?

a. “You may be able to prevent Bell’s palsy by doing facial exercises regularly.”
b. “Prophylactic treatment of herpes with antiviral agents prevents Bell’s palsy.”
c. “Medications to treat Bell’s palsy work only if started before paralysis onset.”
d. “Call the doctor if you experience pain or develop herpes lesions near the ear.”

Answer 5

ANS: D
Pain or herpes lesions near the ear may indicate the onset of Bell’s palsy, and rapid corticosteroid treatment may reduce the duration of Bell’s palsy symptoms. Antiviral therapy for herpes simplex does not reduce the risk for Bell’s palsy. Corticosteroid therapy will be most effective in reducing symptoms if started before paralysis is complete but will still be somewhat effective when started later. Facial exercises do not prevent Bell’s palsy.

Question 6

A patient with Bell’s palsy refuses to eat while others are present because of embarrassment about drooling. What is the nurse’s best response?

a. Respect the patient’s feelings and arrange for privacy at mealtimes.
b. Teach the patient to chew food on the unaffected side of the mouth.
c. Offer the patient liquid nutritional supplements at frequent intervals.
d. Discuss the patient’s concerns with visitors who arrive at mealtimes.

Answer 6

ANS: A
The patient’s desire for privacy should be respected to encourage adequate nutrition and reduce patient embarrassment. Liquid supplements may help maintain nutrition but will reduce the patient’s enjoyment of the taste of food. It would be inappropriate for the nurse to discuss the patient’s embarrassment with visitors unless the patient wishes to share this information. Chewing on the unaffected side of the mouth will enhance nutrition and enjoyment of food but will not decrease the drooling.

Question 7

To prevent autonomic dysreflexia, which nursing action should the home health nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has paraplegia at the T4 level?

a. Support selection of a high-protein diet.
b. Discuss options for sexuality and fertility.
c. Assist to plan a prescribed bowel program.
d. Use quad coughing to strengthen cough efforts.

Answer 7

ANS: C
Fecal impaction is a common stimulus for autonomic hyperreflexia. Dietary protein, coughing, and discussing sexuality and fertility should be included in the plan of care but will not reduce the risk for autonomic hyperreflexia.

Question 8

Which assessment data for a patient who has Guillain-Barré syndrome will require the nurse’s most immediate action?

a. The patient’s sacral area skin is reddened.
b. The patient reports severe pain in the feet.
c. The patient is continuously drooling saliva.
d. The patient’s blood pressure (BP) is 150/82 mm Hg.

Answer 8

ANS: C
Drooling indicates decreased ability to swallow, which places the patient at risk for aspiration and requires rapid nursing and collaborative actions such as suctioning and possible endotracheal intubation. The foot pain should be treated with appropriate analgesics, the BP requires ongoing monitoring, and the skin integrity requires intervention, but these actions are not as urgently needed as maintenance of respiratory function.

Question 9

A patient hospitalized with a new diagnosis of Guillain-Barré syndrome has numbness and weakness of both feet. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?

a. Infusion of immunoglobulin
b. Administration of corticosteroids
c. Intubation and mechanical ventilation
d. Insertion of a nasogastric (NG) feeding tube

Answer 9

ANS: A
Because Guillain-Barré syndrome is in the earliest stages (as evidenced by the symptoms), use of high-dose immunoglobulin is appropriate to reduce the extent and length of symptoms. Mechanical ventilation and enteral nutrition may be used later in the progression of the syndrome but are not needed now. Corticosteroids are not helpful in reducing the duration or symptoms of the syndrome.

Question 10

A construction worker arrives at an urgent care center with a deep puncture wound from a rusty nail. The patient reports having had a tetanus booster 6 years ago. What intervention should the nurse anticipate?

a. IV infusion of tetanus immune globulin (TIG)
b. Administration of the tetanus-diphtheria (Td) booster
c. Intradermal injection of an immune globulin test dose
d. Initiation of the tetanus-diphtheria immunization series

Answer 10

ANS: B
If the patient has not been immunized in the past 5 years, administration of the Td booster is indicated because the wound is deep. Immune globulin administration is given by the IM route if the patient has no previous immunization. Administration of a series of immunization is not indicated. TIG is not indicated for this patient, and a test dose is not needed for immune globulin.

Question 11

The nurse is admitting a patient who has a neck fracture at the C6 level to the intensive care unit. Which finding on the nursing assessment is congruent with neurogenic shock?

a. Involuntary and spastic movement
b. Hypotension and warm extremities
c. Hyperactive reflexes below the injury
d. Lack of sensation or movement below the injury

Answer 11

ANS: B
Neurogenic shock is characterized by hypotension, bradycardia, and vasodilation leading to warm skin temperature. Spasticity and hyperactive reflexes do not occur at this stage of spinal cord injury. Lack of movement and sensation indicate spinal cord injury but not neurogenic shock.

Question 12

A patient has an incomplete left spinal cord lesion at the level of T7, resulting in Brown-Séquard syndrome. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

a. Assessment of the patient for right arm weakness
b. Assessment of the patient for increased right leg pain
c. Positioning the patient’s left leg when turning the patient
d. Teaching the patient to verify the position of the right leg

Answer 12

ANS: C
The patient with Brown-Séquard syndrome has loss of motor function on the ipsilateral side and will require the nurse to move the left leg. Pain sensation will be lost in the patient’s right leg. Arm weakness will not be a problem for a patient with a T7 injury. The patient will retain position sense for the right leg.

Question 13

What should the nurse explain to the patient who has a T2 spinal cord transection injury?

a. Total loss of respiratory function may occur.
b. Function of both arms should be maintained.
c. Use of the patient’s shoulders will be limited.
d. Tachycardia is common with this type of injury.

Answer 13

ANS: B
The patient with a T2 injury can expect to retain full motor and sensory function of the arms. Use of only the shoulders is associated with cervical spine injury. Loss of respiratory function occurs with cervical spine injuries. Bradycardia is associated with injuries above the T6 level.

Question 14

A patient with paraplegia resulting from a T9 spinal cord injury has a neurogenic reflexic bladder. Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

a. Teach the patient to use the Credé method.
b. Instruct the patient how to self-catheterize.
c. Catheterize for residual urine after voiding.
d. Assist the patient to the toilet every 2 hours.

Answer 14

ANS: B
Because the patient’s bladder is spastic and will empty in response to overstretching of the bladder wall, the most appropriate method is to avoid incontinence by emptying the bladder at regular intervals through intermittent catheterization. Assisting the patient to the toilet will not be helpful because the bladder will not empty. The Credé method is more appropriate for a bladder that is flaccid, such as occurs with areflexic neurogenic bladder. Catheterization after voiding will not resolve the patient’s incontinence.

Question 15

What should the nurse include in a rehabilitation plan as an appropriate goal for a 30-yr-old patient with a C6 spinal cord injury?

a. Drive a car with powered hand controls.
b. Propel a manual wheelchair on a flat surface.
c. Turn and reposition independently when in bed.
d. Transfer independently to and from a wheelchair.

Answer 15

ANS: B
The patient with a C6 injury will be able to use the hands to push a wheelchair on flat, smooth surfaces. Because flexion of the thumb and fingers is minimal, the patient will not be able to grasp a wheelchair during transfer, drive a car with powered hand controls, or turn independently in bed.

Question 16

A 20-yr-old patient who sustained a T2 spinal cord injury 10 days ago tells the nurse, “I want to be transferred to a hospital where the nurses know what they are doing.” Which action should the nurse appropriately take?

a. Perform care without responding to the comments.
b. Ask the patient to provide input for the plan of care.
c. Tell the patient abusive language will not be tolerated.
d. Reassure the patient about the competence of the nursing staff.

Answer 16

ANS: B
The patient is demonstrating behaviors consistent with the anger phase of the grief process. The nurse should allow expression of anger and seek the patient’s input into care. Expression of anger is appropriate at this stage and should be accepted by the nurse. Reassurance about the competency of the staff will not be helpful in addressing the patient’s concerns. Ignoring the patient’s comments will increase the patient’s anger and sense of helplessness.

Question 17

A 38-yr-old patient who has had a spinal cord injury returned home following a stay in a rehabilitation facility. The home care nurse notes the spouse is performing many of the activities that the patient had been managing unassisted during rehabilitation. What should the nurse identify as the most appropriate action at this phase of rehabilitation?

a. Remind the patient about the importance of independence in daily activities.
b. Tell the spouse to stop helping because the patient can perform activities independently.
c. Develop a plan to increase the patient’s independence in consultation with the
patient and the spouse.
d. Recognize that it is important for the spouse to be involved in the patient’s care
and encourage participation.

Answer 17

ANS: C
The best action by the nurse will be to involve all parties in developing an optimal plan of care. Because family members who will be assisting with the patient’s ongoing care need to believe their input is important, telling the spouse that the patient can perform activities independently is not the best choice. Reminding the patient about the importance of independence may not change the behaviors of the spouse. Supporting the activities of the spouse will lead to ongoing dependency by the patient.

Question 18

A patient is admitted with possible botulism poisoning after eating home-canned green beans. Which intervention ordered by the health care provider should the nurse question?

a. Encourage oral fluids to 3 L/day.
b. Document neurologic symptoms.
c. Position patient lying on the side.
d. Observe respiratory status closely.

Answer 18

ANS: A
The patient should be maintained NPO because neuromuscular weakness increases risk for aspiration. Side-lying position is not contraindicated. Assessment of neurologic and respiratory status is appropriate.

Question 19

Which action should the nurse recognize has the highest priority for a patient who was admitted 16 hours earlier with a C5 spinal cord injury?

a. Cardiac monitoring for bradycardia
b. Assessment of respiratory rate and effort
c. Administration of low-molecular-weight heparin
d. Application of pneumatic compression devices to legs

Answer 19

ANS: B
Edema around the area of injury may lead to damage above the C4 level, so the highest priority is assessment of the patient’s respiratory function. The other actions also are appropriate for preventing deterioration or complications but are not as important as assessment of respiratory effort.

Question 20

A patient is hospitalized with new onset of Guillain-Barré syndrome. What should the nurse recognize as the most essential assessment to complete?

a. Determining level of consciousness
b. Checking strength of the extremities
c. Observing respiratory rate and effort
d. Monitoring the cardiac rate and rhythm

Answer 20

ANS: C
The most serious complication of Guillain-Barré syndrome is respiratory failure, and the nurse should monitor respiratory function continuously. The other assessments will be included in nursing care, but they are not as important as respiratory assessment.

Question 21

What action should the nurse identify as most important before administering botulinum antitoxin to a patient in the emergency department?

a. Obtain the patient’s temperature.
b. Administer an intradermal test dose.
c. Document the neurologic symptoms.
d. Ask the patient about an allergy to eggs.

Answer 21

ANS: B
To assess for possible allergic reactions, the nurse should administer an intradermal test dose of the antitoxin. Although temperature, allergy history, and symptom assessment and documentation are appropriate, these assessments will not affect the decision to administer the antitoxin.

Question 22

A patient who had a C7 spinal cord injury 1 week ago has a weak cough effort and crackles. What initial intervention should the nurse perform?

a. Suction the patient’s nasopharynx.
b. Notify the patient’s health care provider.
c. Push upward on the epigastric area as the patient coughs.
d. Encourage incentive spirometry every 2 hours during the day.

Answer 22

ANS: C
Because the cough effort is poor, the initial action should be to use assisted coughing techniques to improve the patient’s ability to mobilize secretions. The use of the spirometer may improve respiratory status, but the patient’s ability to take deep breaths is limited by the loss of intercostal muscle function. Suctioning may be needed if the patient is unable to expel secretions by coughing but should not be the nurse’s first action. The health care provider should be notified if airway clearance interventions are not effective or additional collaborative interventions are needed.

Question 23

A patient with a history of T3 spinal cord injury is admitted with dermal ulcers. The patient tells the nurse, “I have a pounding headache and I feel sick to my stomach.” Which action should the nurse take first?

a. Check for a fecal impaction.
b. Give the prescribed antiemetic.
c. Assess the blood pressure (BP).
d. Notify the health care provider.

Answer 23

ANS: C
The BP should be assessed immediately when a patient with an injury at the T6 level or higher reports a headache. This will help determine if autonomic hyperreflexia is occurring. Notification of the patient’s health care provider is appropriate after the BP is obtained. Administration of an antiemetic is indicated if autonomic dysreflexia is ruled out as the cause of the nausea. After checking the BP, the nurse may assess for a fecal impaction using lidocaine jelly to prevent further increased BP.

Question 24

A patient is being evaluated for a possible spinal cord tumor. Which finding should the nurse recognize as requiring the most immediate action?

a. The patient reports chronic severe back pain.
b. The patient has new-onset weakness of both legs.
c. The patient starts to cry and says, “I feel hopeless.”
d. The patient expresses anxiety about having surgery.

Answer 24

ANS: B
The new symptoms indicate spinal cord compression, an emergency that requires rapid treatment to avoid permanent loss of function. The other patient assessments also need nursing action but do not require intervention as rapidly as the new-onset weakness.

Question 25

Which nursing action for a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome should the nurse identify as appropriate to delegate to experienced unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

a. Instilling artificial tears
b. Assessing for bladder distention
c. Administering bolus enteral nutrition
d. Performing passive range of motion to extremities

Answer 25

ANS: D
Assisting a patient with movement is included in UAP education and scope of practice. Administration of enteral nutrition, administration of ordered medications, and assessment are skills requiring more education and expanded scope of practice, and the RN should perform these skills.

Question 26

Which action should the nurse take when caring for a patient who develops tetanus from injectable substance use?

a. Avoid use of sedatives.
b. Provide a quiet environment.
c. Provide range-of-motion exercises daily.
d. Check pupil reaction to light every 4 hours.

Answer 26

ANS: B
In patients with tetanus, jarring, loud noises or bright lights can precipitate painful seizures. The nurse will minimize noise and avoid shining light into the patient’s eyes. Range-of-motion exercises may also stimulate the patient and cause seizures. Although the patient has a history of injectable drug use, sedative medications will be needed to decrease spasms.

Question 27

Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who has cauda equina syndrome related to spinal cord injury?

a. Catheterize patient every 3 to 4 hours.
b. Assist patient to ambulate 4 times daily.
c. Administer medications to reduce bladder spasm.
d. Stabilize the neck when repositioning the patient.

Answer 27

ANS: A
Patients with cauda equina syndrome have areflexic bladder, and intermittent catheterization will be used for emptying the bladder. Because the bladder is flaccid, antispasmodic medications will not be used. The legs are flaccid with cauda equina syndrome, and the patient will be unable to ambulate. The head and neck will not need to be stabilized after a cauda equina injury, which affects the lumbar and sacral nerve roots.

Question 28

After change-of-shift report on the neurology unit, which patient should the nurse assess first?

a. Patient with Bell’s palsy who has herpes vesicles in front of the ear.
b. Patient with botulism who is drooling and experiencing difficulty swallowing.
c. Patient with neurosyphilis who has tabes dorsalis and decreased deep tendon
reflexes.
d. Patient with an abscess caused by injectable drug use who needs tetanus immune
globulin.

Answer 28

ANS: B
The patient’s diagnosis and difficulty swallowing indicate the nurse should rapidly assess for respiratory distress. The information about the other patients is consistent with their diagnoses and does not indicate any immediate need for assessment or intervention.

Question 29

Which assessment finding in a patient with a spinal cord tumor requires immediate action by the nurse?

a. Depression about the diagnosis
b. Anxiety about scheduled surgery
c. Decreased ability to move the legs
d. Back pain that worsens with coughing

Answer 29

ANS: C
Decreasing sensation and leg movement indicates spinal cord compression, an emergency that will require rapid action (such as surgery) to prevent paralysis. The other findings will require nursing action but are not emergencies.

Question 30

A patient with a T4 spinal cord injury asks the nurse if he will be able to be sexually active. Which information should the nurse include in an initial response?

a. Reflex erections frequently occur, but orgasm may not be possible.
b. Sildenafil (Viagra) is used by many patients with spinal cord injury.
c. Multiple options are available to maintain sexuality after spinal cord injury.
d. Penile injection, prostheses, or vacuum suction devices are possible options.

Answer 30

ANS: C
Although sexuality will be changed by the patient’s spinal cord injury, there are options for expression of sexuality and for fertility. The other information also is correct, but the choices will depend on the degrees of injury and the patient’s individual feelings about sexuality.

Question 31

Which collaborative and nursing actions should the nurse include in the plan of care for a patient who experienced a T2 spinal cord transection 24 hours ago? (Select all that apply.)

a. Urinary catheter care
b. Nasogastric (NG) tube feeding
c. Continuous cardiac monitoring
d. Administration of H2 receptor blockers
e. Maintenance of a warm room temperature

Answer 31

ANS: A, C, D, E
The patient is at risk for bradycardia and poikilothermia caused by sympathetic nervous system dysfunction and should have continuous cardiac monitoring and maintenance of a relatively warm room temperature. To avoid bladder distention, a urinary retention catheter is used during this acute phase. Stress ulcers are a common complication but can be avoided through the use of the H2 receptor blockers. Gastrointestinal motility is decreased initially, and NG suctioning is indicated.