Lewis Chapter 30: Lower Respiratory Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient admitted to the hospital with pneumonia. Upon assessment, the nurse notes a temperature of 38.6°C (101.5°F), a productive cough with yellow sputum, and a respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is most appropriate based upon this assessment?

A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness
B. Ineffective thermoregulation related to chilling
C. Ineffective breathing pattern related to pneumonia
D. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick secretions

A

A. Hyperthermia related to infectious illness

Because the patient has spiked a temperature and has a diagnosis of pneumonia, the logical nursing diagnosis is hyperthermia related to infectious illness. There is no evidence of a chill, and the patient’s breathing pattern is within normal limits at 20 breaths/minute. There is no evidence of ineffective airway clearance from the information given because the patient is expectorating sputum.

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2
Q

Which of the following physical assessment findings in a patient with a lower respiratory problem best supports the nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance?

A. Basilar crackles
B. Respiratory rate of 28
C. Oxygen saturation of 85%
D. Presence of greenish sputum

A

A. Basilar crackles

The presence of adventitious breath sounds indicates that there is accumulation of secretions in the lower airways. This would be consistent with a nursing diagnosis of ineffective airway clearance because the patient is retaining secretions.

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3
Q

Which of the following clinical manifestations should the nurse expect to find during an assessment of a patient who has been admitted with pneumococcal pneumonia?

A. Hyper-resonance on percussion
B. Vesicular breath sounds in all lobes
C. Increased tactile fremitus on palpation
D. Fine crackles in all lobes on auscultation

A

C. Increased tactile fremitus on palpation

A typical physical examination finding for a patient with pneumonia is increased tactile fremitus on palpation. Other signs of pulmonary consolidation include dullness to percussion, bronchial breath sounds, and crackles in the affected area.

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4
Q

Which of the following is the priority nursing intervention in helping a patient expectorate thick lung secretions?

A. Humidify the oxygen as able
B. Administer cough suppressant q4hr
C. Teach patient to splint the affected area
D. Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day if tolerated

A

D. Increase fluid intake to 3 L/day if tolerated

Although several interventions may help the patient expectorate mucus, the highest priority should be on increasing fluid intake, which will liquefy the secretions so that the patient can expectorate them more easily. Humidifying the oxygen is also helpful, but is not the primary intervention. Teaching the patient to splint the affected area may also be helpful, but does not liquefy the secretions so that they can be removed.

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5
Q

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to an older person with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and pneumonia. Which of the following vaccines should the nurse recommend that this patient receive?

A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Haemophilus influenzae
C. Pneumococcal
D. Bacille Calmette–Guérin (BCG)

A

C. Pneumococcal

The pneumococcal vaccine is important for patients with a history of heart or lung disease, recovering from a severe illness, age 65 or over, or living in a long-term care facility.

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6
Q

The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a patient that was hospitalized with pneumonia. Which of the following patient statements about measures to prevent a relapse indicates that the teaching has been effective?

A. “I will seek immediate medical treatment for any upper respiratory infections.”
B. “I will increase my food intake to 2 400 calories a day to keep my immune system well.”
C. “I should continue to do deep-breathing exercises for at least 6 weeks.”
D. “I must use home oxygen therapy for three months and then will have a chest X-ray to re-evaluate.”

A

C. “I should continue to do deep-breathing exercises for at least 6 weeks.”

It is important for the patient to continue with deep-breathing exercises for 6–8 weeks until all of the infection has cleared from the lungs. A patient should seek medical treatment for upper respiratory infections that persist for more than 7 days. Increased fluid intake, not caloric intake, is required to liquefy secretions. Home oxygen is not a requirement unless the patient’s oxygenation saturation is below normal.

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7
Q

The nurse is admitting a patient to the medical unit with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which of the following orders should the nurse verify the completion of before administering a dose of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole to the patient?

A. Orthostatic blood pressures
B. Sputum culture and sensitivity
C. Pulmonary function evaluation
D. Serum laboratory studies ordered for the morning

A

B. Sputum culture and sensitivity

The nurse should ensure that the sputum for culture and sensitivity was sent to the laboratory before administering trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole. It is important that the organisms are correctly identified (by the culture) before their numbers are affected by the antibiotic; the test will also determine whether the proper antibiotic has been ordered (sensitivity testing). Although antibiotic administration should not be unduly delayed while waiting for the patient to expectorate sputum, all of the other options will not be affected by the administration of antibiotics.

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8
Q

Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate to enhance oxygenation in a patient with unilateral malignant lung disease?

A. Positioning patient on right side
B. Maintaining adequate fluid intake
C. Positioning patient with “good lung down”
D. Performing postural drainage every 4 hours

A

C. Positioning patient with “good lung down”

Therapeutic positioning identifies the best position for the patient assuring stable oxygenation status. Research indicates that positioning the patient with the unaffected lung (good lung) dependent best promotes oxygenation in patients with unilateral lung disease. For bilateral lung disease, the right lung down has best ventilation and perfusion. Increasing fluid intake and performing postural drainage will facilitate airway clearance, but positioning is most appropriate to enhance oxygenation.

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9
Q

The nurse is admitting a patient with acute respiratory distress related to cor pulmonale. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate during admission of this patient?

A. Perform a comprehensive health history with the patient to review prior respiratory problems.
B. Complete a full physical examination to determine the effect of the respiratory distress on other body functions.
C. Delay any physical assessment of the patient and review with the family the patient’s history of respiratory problems.
D. Perform a physical assessment of the respiratory system and ask specific questions related to this episode of respiratory distress.

A

D. Perform a physical assessment of the respiratory system and ask specific questions related to this episode of respiratory distress.

Because the patient is having respiratory difficulty, the nurse should complete a focused assessment—ask specific questions about this episode and perform a physical assessment of this system. Further history taking and physical examination of other body systems can proceed once the patient’s acute respiratory distress is being managed.

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10
Q

The nurse is planning care for a patient with metastatic lung cancer who has a 60-pack-per-year history of cigarette smoking. Which of the following respiratory defences is impaired related to tobacco use?

A. Cough reflex
B. Mucociliary clearance
C. Reflex bronchoconstriction
D. Ability to filter particles from the air

A

B. Mucociliary clearance

Smoking affects the bronchial epithelium, which ultimately decreases the ciliary action in the tracheobronchial tree, resulting in impaired clearance of respiratory secretions, chronic cough, and frequent respiratory infections.

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11
Q

The nurse is assisting a patient with metastatic lung cancer to ambulate when the nurse observes a decrease in oxygen saturation from 93% to 86%. Which of the following nursing interventions is best for the nurse to implement?

A. Continue with ambulation since this is a normal response to activity.
B. Obtain a prescription for arterial blood gas determinations to verify the oxygen saturation.
C. Obtain a prescription for supplemental oxygen to be used during ambulation and other activity.
D. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe for more accurate monitoring during activity.

A

C. Obtain a prescription for supplemental oxygen to be used during ambulation and other activity.

An oxygen saturation level that drops below 90% with activity indicates that the patient is not tolerating the exercise and needs to use supplemental oxygen.

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12
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent a left total knee arthroplasty. On the third postoperative day, the patient has symptoms of shortness of breath, slight chest pain, and reports that “something is wrong.” Upon assessment, the nurse notes the patient’s temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), blood pressure 130/88 mm Hg, respirations 36 breaths/minute, and oxygen saturation 91% in room air. Which of the following etiologies should the nurse first suspect related to these findings?

A. New onset of angina pectoris
B. Septic embolus from the knee joint
C. Pulmonary embolus from deep vein thrombosis
D. Pleural effusion related to positioning in the operating room

A

C. Pulmonary embolus from deep vein thrombosis

The patient presents the classic symptoms of pulmonary embolus: acute onset of symptoms, tachypnea, shortness of breath, and chest pain.

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13
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who underwent a left total knee arthroplasty. On the third postoperative day, the patient has symptoms of shortness of breath, slight chest pain, and reports that “something is wrong.” Upon assessment, the nurse notes that the patient’s temperature is 36.9°C (98.4°F), blood pressure 130/88 mm Hg, respirations 36 breaths/minute, and oxygen saturation 91% in room air. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A. Notify the health care provider.
B. Administer nitroglycerine sublingually.
C. Conduct a thorough assessment of the chest pain.
D. Sit the patient up in bed as tolerated and apply oxygen.

A

D. Sit the patient up in bed as tolerated and apply oxygen.

The patient’s clinical picture is consistent with pulmonary embolus, and the first action the nurse takes should be to assist the patient. For this reason, the nurse should sit the patient up as tolerated and apply oxygen before notifying the physician.

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14
Q

What clinical manifestations should the nurse expect when assessing a client with pneumococcal pneumonia?

a. Fever, chills, and a productive cough with purulent sputum

b. Nonproductive cough and night sweats that are usually self-limiting

c. Gradual onset of nasal stuffiness, sore throat, and purulent productive cough

d. Abrupt onset of fever, nonproductive cough, and formation of lung abscesses

A

A.

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15
Q

A client with pneumonia has the nursing diagnosis of inadequate airway clearance from an excessive amount of mucus and retained secretions. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention?

a. Promote fluid hydration, as appropriate, to help liquefy secretions.

b. Provide analgesics as ordered to promote client comfort.

c. Administer oxygen as prescribed to maintain optimal oxygen levels.

d. Teach the client how to cough effectively to bring secretions to the mouth.

A

A.

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16
Q

A client with tuberculosis (TB) has a history of nonadherence to the medication regimen. What is the most common cause of this behaviour in clients with TB?

a. Fatigue and lack of energy to manage self-care

b. Lack of knowledge about how the disease is transmitted

c. Lack of social support systems for the client and family

d. Feelings of shame and the response to the social stigma associated with TB

A

D.

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17
Q

A client has been receiving high-dose corticosteroids and broad-spectrum antibiotics for treatment of serious trauma and infection. Which of the following infections is the client most susceptible to?

a. Aspergillosis

b. Candidiasis

c. Coccidioidomycosis

d. Histoplasmosis

A

B.

18
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the treatment of lung abscess?

a. It is best treated with surgical excision and drainage.

b. Antibiotics for a prolonged period is the treatment of choice.

c. Abscesses are difficult to treat and usually result in pulmonary fibrosis.

d. Penicillin can effectively eradicate anaerobic organisms.

A

B.

19
Q

What is a common complication of many types of environmental lung diseases?

a. Benign tumour growth

b. Diffuse airway obstruction

c. Liquefactive necrosis

d. Pulmonary fibrosis

A

D.

20
Q

What type of lung cancer is generally associated with the best prognosis because it is potentially surgically resectable?

a. Adenocarcinoma

b. Small cell carcinoma

c. Squamous cell carcinoma

d. Undifferentiated large cell carcinoma

A

C.

21
Q

How does the nurse identify in a client a flail chest caused by trauma?

a. Multiple rib fractures are determined by radiographic study.

b. Tracheal deviation to the unaffected side is present.

c. Paradoxical chest movement occurs during respiration.

d. Decreased movement of the involved chest wall is apparent.

A

C.

22
Q

The nurse notes tidalling of the water level in the tube submerged in the water-seal chamber in a client with closed chest tube drainage. What should the nurse do?

a. Continue to monitor this normal finding.

b. Check all connections for a leak in the system.

c. Lower the drainage collector further from the chest.

d. Clamp the tubing at progressively more distal points from the client until the tidalling stops.

A

A.

23
Q

Which nursing measure should be instituted after a pneumonectomy?

a. Monitor chest tube drainage and functioning.

b. Position the client on the operative side or their back.

c. Perform range-of-motion exercises on the affected upper extremity.

d. Auscultate frequently for lung sounds on the affected side.

A

B.

24
Q

What is the cause of respiratory symptoms in clients with Guillain-Barré syndrome?

a. Central nervous system depression

b. Deformed chest-wall muscles

c. Paralysis of the diaphragm secondary to trauma

d. Interruption of nerve transmission to respiratory muscles

A

D.

25
Q

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease asks why the heart is affected by the respiratory disease. Which of the following statements regarding cor pulmonale is the basis for the nurse’s response to the client?

a. Pulmonary congestion secondary to left ventricular failure

b. Excess serous fluid collection in the alveoli caused by retained respiratory secretions

c. Right ventricular hypertrophy secondary to increased pulmonary vascular resistance

d. Right ventricular failure secondary to compression of the heart by hyperinflated lungs

A

C.

26
Q

Which factor contributes to the higher rates of tuberculosis (TB) in Canadian-born Indigenous populations?

A. Poorly ventilated homes

B. Use of traditional medicines

C. Locally grown foods

D. Living in rural areas

A

A. Poorly ventilated homes

Poor ventilation homes, comorbidities such as diabetes and human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), food insecurity, and smoking are contributing factors to Canadian-born Indigenous populations having a higher rate of TB.

27
Q

Which definition describes hematogenous tuberculosis (TB)?

A. Erosion of a necrotic Ghon complex through a blood vessel, spreading TB to all organs

B. TB infection in a person who does not have the active TB disease

C. The release of caseous material into the pleural space

D. An infection not transmitted from person to person and clinical manifestations as similar to those of bacterial pneumonia

A

A. Erosion of a necrotic Ghon complex through a blood vessel, spreading TB to all organs

Miliary or hematogenous TB occurs if a necrotic Ghon complex erodes through a blood vessel, large numbers of organisms invade the bloodstream and spread to all body organs. The patient may be acutely ill with fever, dyspnea, and cyanosis.

28
Q

Which diagnostic test is the most accurate in diagnosing an active tuberculosis (TB) infection?

A. Purified protein derivative (PPD)

B. Chest X-ray

C. Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) sputum smear

D. Nucleic acid amplification

A

C. Acid-fast bacilli (AFB) sputum smear

Microscopic examination of stained sputum smears for acid-fast bacilli (AFB) is usually the first bacteriological evidence of the presence of tubercle bacilli. Three consecutive sputum specimens are collected on different days and sent for smear and culture.

29
Q

Which organism is the leading cause of mycotic infections in hospitalized and immunocompromised hosts?

A. Candida albicans

B. Histoplasma capsulatum

C. Coccidioides immitis

D. Pneumocystis jiroveci

A

A. Candida albicans

Candida albicans is the leading cause of mycotic infections in hospitalized and immunocompromised hosts. Infections often follow broad-spectrum antibiotic therapy (systemic or inhaled).

30
Q

Which medication is most widely used in treating systemic fungal infections?

A. Amphotericin B

B. Ketoconazole

C. Fluconazole

D. Itraconazole

A

A. Amphotericin B

Amphotericin B is the medication most widely used in treating serious systemic fungal infections. It must be given intravenously to achieve adequate blood and tissue levels because it is poorly absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract.

31
Q

Which test differentiates atypical acid-fast mycobacteria from tuberculosis (TB)?

A. Bacteriological culture

B. Complete blood count (CBC)

C. Chest X-ray

D. Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A

A. Bacteriological culture

Pulmonary disease caused by acid-fast mycobacteria is indistinguishable from TB clinically and radiologically, but it can be differentiated by bacteriological culture.

32
Q

Bronchoscopy is used in patients with bronchiectasis to identify which concern?

A. Source of secretions

B. Streaky infiltrates

C. Consolidation

D. Vital capacity

A

A. Source of secretions

Bronchoscopy can be useful in identifying the source of secretions, in identifying sites of hemoptysis, or for collecting microbiological samples.

33
Q

Which health teaching would the nurse include for a patient with bronchiectasis?

A. “You should take on moderate to high exercise activities to help clear your airways.”

B. “Restrict your diet and fluids to avoid placing stress on your lungs or tiring yourself out.”

C. “Performing oral care regularly is not required for bronchiectasis.”

D. “Eat a low-sodium diet to avoid fluid retention.”

A

D. “Eat a low-sodium diet to avoid fluid retention.”

The nurse should health teach the patient to drink at least 3 L of fluid daily, if not contraindicated, and counsel to use low-sodium fluids to avoid systemic fluid retention.

34
Q

For which patient would 5 mm of induration following a tuberculin skin test be considered a positive result?

A. Has had recent chickenpox vaccination

B. Has had diabetes mellitus for 10 years

C. Immigrated one year ago from a country with a high incidence of tuberculosis

D. Has been on high-dose prednisone therapy for over a month to treat multiple sclerosis

A

D. Has been on high-dose prednisone therapy for over a month to treat multiple sclerosis

Prednisone therapy for a month causes the patient to be immunocompromised. When a patient is immunocompromised, only 5 mm of induration are required for a positive reaction.

35
Q

Which situation represents the most risk for the spread of tuberculosis (TB)?

A. Hugging an infected person

B. Sitting next to an infected person on an airplane

C. Drinking out of the same glass as an infected person

D. Being in a large conference room with an infected person

A

B. Sitting next to an infected person on an airplane

TB transmission requires close, frequent, or prolonged airborne exposure, which could be established by sitting next to a person in a confined place like an airplane.

36
Q

Which response by the nurse is best to a patient who states that they cannot have tuberculosis (TB) because they have not had sexual contact with anyone infected with TB?

A. Provide teaching on how TB is spread from person to person.

B. Clarify the signs and symptoms of TB with the patient.

C. Provide teaching on the regimen that will be required to treat TB.

D. Discuss strategies that the patient can use to ensure adherence to the regimen for TB.

A

A. Provide teaching on how TB is spread from person to person.

The patient needs to understand that TB is spread through close contact with an infected person through the respiratory tract. Covering coughs, sneezes, and keeping sputum contained will help to prevent the spread.

37
Q

For which length of time should a patient with tuberculosis (TB) who is co-infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) receive treatment?

A. 6 weeks after the conversion of sputum culture to negative

B. 4 weeks after the resolution of symptoms

C. 6 months beyond the conversion of sputum cultures to negative

D. 1 year after the resolution of symptoms

A

C. 6 months beyond the conversion of sputum cultures to negative

TB tends to have a rapidly progressive course in the patient co-infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and it responds well to standard medication. Treatment should occur for at least 6 months beyond the conversion of sputum cultures to negative status.

38
Q

Which clinical manifestation by the patient is a possible adverse effect to intravenous (IV) amphotericin B?

A. Thrombophlebitis at the injection site

B. Abnormal liver function

C. Constipation

D. Headache

A

A. Thrombophlebitis at the injection site

Thrombophlebitis at the injection site is an adverse reaction to amphotericin B. The nurse should monitor the insertion site regularly.

39
Q

Which condition is characterized by permanent, abnormal dilation of one or more large bronchi?

A. Bronchiectasis

B. Lung abscess

C. Cystic fibrosis

D. Atypical acid-fast mycobacteria

A

A. Bronchiectasis

Bronchiectasis is characterized by permanent, abnormal dilation of one or more large bronchi. The pathophysiological change that results in dilation is destruction of the elastic and muscular structures of the bronchial wall.

40
Q

Which medication would the nurse expect a heath care provider to order for a patient with a lung abscess?

A. Clindamycin

B. Ertapenem

C. Prednisone

D. Amphotericin B

A

A. Clindamycin

Recent studies suggest that the anaerobic bacteria involved in abscesses of the lung produce β-lactamase, which is resistant to penicillin. Clindamycin has been shown to be superior to penicillin and is the standard treatment for an anaerobic lung infection.

41
Q

Which statement by the nurse is accurate when providing teaching to a patient with a lung abscess?

A. “Mouth care is required 2 times per day to relieve foul-smelling odour.”

B. “Do not use diluted hydrogen peroxide or mouthwash as this will worsen the lung abscess.”

C. “Restrict fluids to avoid fluid overload and swelling, which can make you short of breath.”

D. “Make sure you continue taking your antibiotics, even when you start to feel better.”

A

D. “Make sure you continue taking your antibiotics, even when you start to feel better.”

The nurse should ensure the patient is aware of the importance of continuing the medication for the prescribed period, even after they start to feel better. This is important to ensure that the infecting organism does not become resistant to the antibiotic.

42
Q

Which statement by the nurse is accurate when providing teaching to a patient with a lung abscess?

A. “Mouth care is required 2 times per day to relieve foul-smelling odour.”

B. “Do not use diluted hydrogen peroxide or mouthwash as this will worsen the lung abscess.”

C. “Restrict fluids to avoid fluid overload and swelling, which can make you short of breath.”

D. “Make sure you continue taking your antibiotics, even when you start to feel better.”

A

D.