levinson questions Flashcards

1
Q

1: Each of the following statements concerning the surface structures of bacteria is correct except:

A: Pili mediate the interaction of bacteria with mucosal epithelium
B: Polysaccharide capsules retard phagocytosis
C: Both gram-negative rods and cocci have lipopolysaccharide (“endotoxin”) in their cell wall
D: bacterial flagella are nonantigenic in humans because they closely resemble human flagella in chemical composition

A

D

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2
Q

2: each of the following statements concerning peptidoglycan is correct except:

A: it has a backbone composed of alternating units of muramic acid and acetylglucosamine
B: cross-links between the tetrapeptides involved D-alanine
C: it is thinner in gram-positive than in gram-negative cells
D: it can be degraded by lysozyme

A

C

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3
Q

3: each of the following statements concerning bacterial spores is correct except:

A: their survival ability is based on their enhanced metabolic activity
B: they are formed by gram-positive rods
C: they can be killed by being heated to 121 degrees for 15 minutes
D: they are formed primarily when nutrients are limited

A

A

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4
Q

16: the identification of bacteria by serologic tests is based on the presence of specific antigens. which on of the following bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?

A: capsule
B: flagella
C: exotoxins
D: ribosomes

A

D

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5
Q

20: each of the following statements concerning the gram stain is correct except:

A: escherichia coli stains pink because it has a thin peptidoglycan layer
B: streptococcus pyogenes stains blue because it has a thick peptidoglycan layer
C: mycobacterium tuberculosis stains blue because it has a thick lipid layer
D: mycoplasma pneumoniae is not visible in the gram stain because it does not have a cell wall

A

C

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6
Q

22: in the gram stain, the decolorization of gram-negative bacteria by alcohol is most closely related to:

A: proteins encoded by F plasmids
B: lipids in the cell walls
C: 70S ribosomes
D: branched polysaccharides in the capsule

A

B

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7
Q

26: bacterial surface structures that show antigenic diversity include each of the following except:

A: pili
B: capsules
C: flagella
D: peptidoglycan

A

D

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8
Q

37: each of the following statements concerning the structure and chemical composition of bacteria is correct except:

A: some gram-positive cocci contain teichoic acid external to the peptidoglycan
B: some gram-positive rods produce spores that are resistant to boiling
C: some gram-negative rods contain lipid A in their outer cell membrane
D: some mycoplasms contain pentaglycine in their peptidoglycan

A

D

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9
Q

each set of matching question in this section consists of a list of lettered options followed by several numbered items. for each numbered item, select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with it.

A: capsule
B: periplasmic space
C: peptidoglycan
D: lipid A
E: 30S ribosomal subunit
F: G protein
G: Pilus
H: ADP-ribosyliating enzyme
I: mesosome
J: Flagellum
K: transposon

536: is the site of action of lysozyme

A

C

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10
Q

each set of matching question in this section consists of a list of lettered options followed by several numbered items. for each numbered item, select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with it.

A: capsule
B: periplasmic space
C: peptidoglycan
D: lipid A
E: 30S ribosomal subunit
F: G protein
G: Pilus
H: ADP-ribosyliating enzyme
I: mesosome
J: Flagellum
K: transposon

537: mediates adherence of bacteria to mucous membranes

A

G

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11
Q

each set of matching question in this section consists of a list of lettered options followed by several numbered items. for each numbered item, select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with it.

A: capsule
B: periplasmic space
C: peptidoglycan
D: lipid A
E: 30S ribosomal subunit
F: G protein
G: Pilus
H: ADP-ribosyliating enzyme
I: mesosome
J: Flagellum
K: transposon

538: is the toxic component of endotoxin

A

D

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12
Q

block two, 4: regarding the gram stain, which one of the following is the most accurate?

A: after adding the crystal violet and gram’s iodine, both gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria will appear blue
B: if you forget to stain with the red dye (safranin or basic fuchin), both gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria will appear blue
C: if you forget to heat-fix, both gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria will appear blue
D: one reason why bacteria have a different color in this stain is because the gram-positive bacteria have lipid in their membrane, whereas gram-negative do not

A

A

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13
Q

block two, 8: regarding bacterial spores, which one of the following is the most accurate?

A: one spore germinates to form one bacterium
B: they are produced primarily within human red blood cells
C: they are killed by boiling by at sea level but not high altitude
D: they are produced by anaerobes only in the presence of oxygen
E: they contain endotoxin, which accounts for their ability to cause disease

A

A

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14
Q

27: the effects of antibody on bacteria include each of the following except:

A: lysis of gram-negative bacteria in conjunction with complement
B: augmentation of phagocytosis
C: increase in the frequency of lysogeny
D: inhibition of adherence of bacteria to mucosal surfaces

A

C

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15
Q

19: each of the following is a typical property of obligate anaerobes except:

A: they generate energy by using the cytochrome system
B: the grow best in the absence of air
C: They lack superoxide dismutase
D: the lack catalase

A

A

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16
Q

29: each of the following statements concerning bacterial and human cells is correct except:

A: bacteria are prokaryotic (i.e. they have one molecule of DNA, are haploid, and have no nuclear membrane), whereas human cells are eukaryotic (i.e. they have multiple chromosomes, are diploid, and have a nuclear membrane)
B: bacteria derive their energy by oxidative phosphorylation within mitochondria in a manner similar to human cells
C: bacterial and human ribosomes are of different sizes and chemical compositions
D: bacterial cells possess peptidoglycan, whereas human cells do not

A

B

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17
Q

9: which one of the following processes involves a sex pilus?

A: transduction of a chromosome gene
B: transposition of a mobile genetic element
C: integration of a temperate bacteriophage
D: conjunction resulting in transfer of an R (resistance) factor

A

D

18
Q

14: which of the following events is most likely to be due to bacterial conjugation?

A: a strain of corynebacterium diphtheriae produces a toxin encoded by a prophage
B: a strain of pseudomonas aeruginosa produces produces beta-lactamase encoded by a plasmid of another gram-negative organism
C: an encapsulated strain of sterptococcus pneumoniae acquires the gene for capsule formation from an extract of DNA from another encapsulated strain
D: a gene encoding resistance to gentamicin in the escherichia coli chromosome appears in the genome of a bacteriophage that has infected e coli

A

B

19
Q

31: each of the following statements concerning the mechanisms of resistance to antimicrobial drugs is correct except:

A: R factors are plasmids that carry the genes for enzymes that modify one or more drugs
B: resistance to some drugs is due to a chromosomal mutation that alters the receptor for the drug
C: resistance to some drugs is due to transposoms genes that code for enzymes which inactivate the drugs
D: resistance genes are rarely transferred by conjugation

A

D

20
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items.

A: transduction
B: conjugation
C: DNA transformation
D: Transposition

44: During an outbreak of gastrointestinal disease caused by an escherichia coli strain sensitive to ampicillin, tetracycline, and chloramphenicol, a stool sample from one patient yields E. coli with the same serotype resistant to the three antibiotics

A

B

21
Q

select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items.

A: transduction
B: conjugation
C: DNA transformation
D: Transposition

45: a mutant cell line lacking a functional thymidine kinase gene was exposed to a preparation of DNA from normal cells; under appropriate growth conditions, a colony cells was isolated that makes thymidine kinase

A

C

22
Q

block one, 28: the emergence of antibiotic resistant bacteria, especially in enteric gram-negative rods, is an extremely important phenomenon. the acquisition of resistance most commonly occurs by a process that involves a sex pilus and the subsequent transfer of plasmids carrying one or more transposons. which one of the following is the name that best describes this process?

A: conjugation
B: combination
C: transformation
D: transduction
E: translocation
A

A

23
Q

5: which statement is most accurate regarding the drug depicted in the diagram?
(i’ll post the picture on fb)

A: it inhibits DNA synthesis
B: it is bacteriostatic
C: it binds to 30S ribosomes
D: it prevents formation of folic acid

A

C

24
Q

6: each of the following statements regarding the selective action of antibiotics on bacteria is correct except:

A: chloramphenicol affects the large subunit of the bacterial ribosome, which is different from the large subunit of the human ribosome
B: isoniazid affects the DNA polymerase of bacteria but not that of human cells
C: sulfonamides affect folic acid synthesis in bacteria, a pathway that does not occur in human cells
D: penicillins affect bacteria rather than human cells because bacteria have a cell wall, whereas human cells do not

A

B

25
Q

11: each of the following statements concerning the mechanism of action of antimicrobial drugs is correct except:

A: vancomycin acts by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis
B: quinolones such as ciprofloxacin act by inhibiting the DNA gyrase of bacteria
C: erythromycin is a bactericidal drug that disrupts cell membranes by a detergent-like action
D: aminoglycosides such as streptomycin are bactericidal drugs that inhibit protein synthesis

A

C

26
Q

12: each of the following statements concerning the resistance of bacteria to antimicrobial drugs is correct except:

A: resistance to chloramphenicol is known to be due to an enzyme that acetylates the drug
B: resistance to penicillin is known to be due to reduced affinity of transpeptidases
C: resistance to penicillin is known to be due to cleavage by beta-lactamase
D: resistance to tetracycline is known to be due to an enzyme that hydrolyzes the ester linkage

A

D

27
Q

18: each of the following statements concerning the mechanism of action of antibacterial drugs is correct except:

A: cephalosporins are bactericidal drugs that inhibit the transpeptidase reaction and prevent cell wall synthesis
B: tetracyclines are bacteriostatic drugs that inhibit protein synthesis by blocking tRNA binding
C: aminoglycosides are bacteriostatic drugs that inhibit protein synthesis by activating ribonuclease, which degrades mRNA
D: erythromycin is a bacteriostatic drug that inhibits protein synthesis by blocking translocation of polypeptide

A

C

28
Q

23: chemical modification of benzylpenicillin (penicillin G) has resulted in several beneficial changes in the clinical use of this drug. which one of the following is not one of those beneficial changes?

A: lowered frequency of anaphylaxis
B: increased activity against gram-negative rods
C: increased resistance to stomach acid
D: reduced cleavage by penicillinase

A

A

29
Q

24: each of the following statements concerning resistance to antibiotics is correct except:

A: resistance to aminoglycosides can be due to phosphorylating enzymes encoded by R plasmids
B: resistance to sulfonamides can be due to enzymes that hydrolyze the five-membered ring structure
C: resistance to penicillins can be due to alterations in biding proteins in the cell membrane
D: resistance to cephalosporins can be due to cleavage of the beta-lactam ring

A

B

30
Q

30: each of the following statements concerning penicillin is correct except:

A: an intact beta-lactam ring of penicillin is required for its activity
B: the structure of penicillin resembles that of a dipeptide of alanine, which is a component of peptidoglycan
C: penicillin is a bacteriostatic drug because autolytic enzymes are not activated
D: penicillin inhibits transpeptidases, which are required for cross-linking peptidoglycan

A

C

31
Q

31: each of the following statements concerning the mechanisms of resistance to antimicrobial drugs is correct except:

A: R factors are plasmids that carry the genes for enzymes that modify one or more drugs
B: resistance to some drugs is due to a chromosomal mutation that alters the receptor for the drug
C: resistance to some drugs is due to transposon genes that code for enzymes which inactivate the drugs
D: resistance genes are rarely transferred by conjugation

A

D

32
Q

35: each of the following statements concerning the drug depicted in the diagram is correct except: (diagram will be posted to fb)

A: the drug is bacteriostatic
B: the drug inhibits cell wall synthesis
C: the drug is made by a fungus
D: the portion of the molecule required for activity is labeled B

A

A

33
Q

Select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items.

A: Penicillins
B: Aminoglycosides
C: Chloramphenicol
D: Rifampin
E: Sulfonamides

40: Inhibit(s) bacterial RNA polymerase

A

D

34
Q

Select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items.

A: Penicillins
B: Aminoglycosides
C: Chloramphenicol
D: Rifampin
E: Sulfonamides

43: inhibit(s) folic acid synthesis

A

E

35
Q

Select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items

A: Ampicillin
B: Nafcillin
C: Clindamycin
D: Gentamicin
E: Tetracycline
F: Amphotericin B
G: Ciprofloxacin
H: Rifampin
I: Sulfonamide
J: Erythromycin

546: Inhibits protein synthesis by blocking formation of the initiation complex so that no polysomes form

A

D

36
Q

Select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items

A: Ampicillin
B: Nafcillin
C: Clindamycin
D: Gentamicin
E: Tetracycline
F: Amphotericin B
G: Ciprofloxacin
H: Rifampin
I: Sulfonamide
J: Erythromycin

547: inhibits DNA gyrase

A

G

37
Q

Select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items

A: Ampicillin
B: Nafcillin
C: Clindamycin
D: Gentamicin
E: Tetracycline
F: Amphotericin B
G: Ciprofloxacin
H: Rifampin
I: Sulfonamide
J: Erythromycin

548: inhibits folic acid synthesis

A

I

38
Q

Select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items

A: Ampicillin
B: Nafcillin
C: Clindamycin
D: Gentamicin
E: Tetracycline
F: Amphotericin B
G: Ciprofloxacin
H: Rifampin
I: Sulfonamide
J: Erythromycin

549: inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis; resistant to beta-lactamase

A

B

39
Q

Select the one lettered option that is most closely associated with the numbered items

A: Ampicillin
B: Nafcillin
C: Clindamycin
D: Gentamicin
E: Tetracycline
F: Amphotericin B
G: Ciprofloxacin
H: Rifampin
I: Sulfonamide
J: Erythromycin

550: inhibits RNA polymerase

A

H

40
Q

block one, 38: regarding antimicrobial drugs that act by inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis in bacteria, which one of the following is the most accurate?
A: quinolones, such as ciprofloxacin, inhibit the RNA polymerase in bacteria by acting as nucleic acid analogues
B: rifampin inhibits the RNA polymerase in bacteria by binding to the enzyme and inhibiting messenger RNA synthesis
C: Sulfonamides inhibit the DNA polymerase in bacteria by causing chain termination of the elongating strand
D: trimethoprim inhibits the DNA polymerase in bacteria by preventing the unwinding of double-stranded DNA

A

B

41
Q

21: each of the following statements concerning the killing of bacteria is correct except:
A: lysozyme in tears can hydrolyze bacterial cell walls
B: silver nitrate can inactivate bacterial enzymes
C: detergents can disrupt bacterial cell membranes
D: ultraviolet light can degrade bacterial capsules

A

D

42
Q

34: each of the following statements concerning the killing of bacteria is correct except:
A: a 70% solution of ethanol kills more effectively than absolute (100%) ethanol
B: an autoclave uses steam under pressure to reach the killing temperature of 121 degrees C
C: the pasteurization of milk kills pathogens but allows many organisms and spores to survive
D: iodine kills by causing the formation of thymine dimers in bacterial DNA

A

D