Level 1 Textbook highlights Flashcards

1
Q

Extension lives should be separated by a distance of what?

A

1.6 mm

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2
Q

What are centrelines used to indicate?

A

The centre of holes and cylinders

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3
Q

What are the two types of leader lines?

A

An arrowhead and a black dot instead of the arrowhead

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4
Q

What do phantom lines show?

A

Alternate positions of moving oarts

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5
Q

What effect do we want to avoid by using a fillet weld?

A

Notch effect

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6
Q

What are conventional dimensions used for?

A

Welded fabrication of tanks, hoppers, bases and frames when tolerance is not rigid.

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7
Q

What are running dimensions primarily used for?

A

Structural fabrication of columns, beams and trusses.

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8
Q

How is the thickness of steel sheet specified?

A

Gauge number or millimetres

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9
Q

What does HSS stand for?

A

Hollow structural sections

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10
Q

What does UNC and UNF stand for?

A

United National Coarse and United National Fine

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11
Q

What does ‘Class of thread fit’ mean?

A

The degree of tolerance allowed in the fit of the threaded fastener

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12
Q

Unless otherwise specified in the specification, what type of thread is it?

A

A right-handed thread

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13
Q

What is another name for shop drawings and what other drawing are they developed from?

A

Fabrication drawings developed from engineering drawings

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14
Q

What does AISI stand for?

A

American Iron and Steel Institute

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15
Q

What does ANSI stand for?

A

American National Standards Institute

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16
Q

What does BP stand for?

A

Base plate

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17
Q

What does ELL stand for?

A

Elbow

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18
Q

What does F&D stand for?

A

Flanged & Dished

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19
Q

What does P&ID stand for?

A

Piping and Instrumentation Drawings

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20
Q

A spool is a collection of what?

A

Pipes, associated components and fittings that form a required assembly or sub-assembly to be fabricated and shipped.

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21
Q

What is the takeoff formula?

A

Takeoff = (centre to centre length) - (total length of fittings) - (total length of gaps)

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22
Q

What is the faying surface?

A

The mating surface of a workpiece in contact with or near another workpiece to which it is to be joined

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23
Q

The flange on a T-joint must project at least what?

A

Twice the fillet weld size to permit the weld bead to be deposited.

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24
Q

As per CSA Standard W59, the minimum overlap of parts in a lap joint shall be what?

A

5x the thickness of the thinner part joined and not less than 25 mm, while the gap between the mating surfaces should not exceed 2 mm.

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25
Q

What is the formula for theoretical throat?

A

TT = leg x 0.707

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26
Q

When joining two different thicknesses of material with a butt joint, what must the end of the thicker section be tapered at?

A

No more than 1:2.5

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27
Q

In an edge weld, what is fused?

A

The full thickness of the member

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28
Q

What is the strength of a fillet weld governed by?

A

The effective throat thickness

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29
Q

What is the effective throat thickness?

A

The shortest distance from the root of a weld to its face, less any convexity.

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30
Q

Where are intermittent fillet welds mostly used?

A

Mostly on lap and t-joints, sometimes square joints

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31
Q

What is a joint with backing?

A

Used when there is no access for welding from the other side

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32
Q

When is a back weld used?

A

It’s used on the other side of the joint after a single groove weld is made

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33
Q

When are melt through welds used?

A

When complete joint penetration and root reinforcement is required in welds made from one side.

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34
Q

When is backgouging performed?

A

When welding is required from both sides, it may be necessary to remove base and weld metal from the second side to ensure that complete joint penetration is achieved.

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35
Q

What position are stringer beads normally used for?

A

Horizontal and overhead positions

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36
Q

What is referred to as a GF assembly?

A

A single bevel groove weld with a specified root opening and backing

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37
Q

For thicker plates, why are unequal double groove preparations made?

A

Minimize the tendency of distortion

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38
Q

Having prequalified joint status allows the regulatory authority to approve what?

A

The procedure without the requirement of mechanical testing

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39
Q

What is a flare groove weld?

A

A joint that is the result of one or both parts of the joint consisting of a 90• bend or convex surface in section that is produced.

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40
Q

What is the cheapest and quickest method of preparing straight edges on a plate up to 3/4’’ thick?

A

Shearing

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41
Q

Saws are versatile and effective tools for what?

A

Cutting. Shaping and bevelling material.

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42
Q

Bevelling by grinding is usually limited to a bevel depth of what?

A

3-5 mm

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43
Q

What grit size will basically polish the surface?

A

100-150

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44
Q

What grit size is for rapid stock removal and rough grinding?

A

24-40

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45
Q

Oxy-fuel cutting is what type of reaction?

A

Chemical

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46
Q

What colour is the acetylene vs oxygen hose?

A

Acetylene red, oxygen green

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47
Q

For a neutral flame, what ratio of oxygen to acetylene is needed?

A

1.0 - 1.0

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48
Q

For a carburizing (excessive acetylene) flame, what oxygen vs acetylene ratio is needed?

A

0.9 oxygen - 1.0 acetylene

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49
Q

For an oxidizing flame, what oxygen vs acetylene ratio is needed?

A

1.5 oxygen - 1.0 acetylene

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50
Q

For an edge prep where the top edge is melted and rounded, the face is irregular with deep gouges, and bottom edge very rough and regular: where was the fault?

A

Cutting speed too low

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51
Q

For an edge prep where the top is fairly sharp with slight beading, draglines have pronounced backward rake and considerable undercutting just below top edge: what was the fault?

A

Cutting speed too fast

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52
Q

For an edge prep, when the top edge is badly melted and rounded over with the face otherwise square: where was the fault?

A

Preheat flames too high above the work

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53
Q

For an edge prep, where there is a noticeable taper from top to bottom of cut and considerable undercutting below the top edge: where was the fault?

A

Cutting oxygen pressure too high

54
Q

For an edge prep, the top edge is slightly rounded, heavy beads along top edge, face is smooth and square, bottom edge sharp and could actually be considered a fairly good cut: where was the fault?

A

Preheat flames too close to the work

55
Q

For an edge prep, where the top edge is rounded over, heavy beads along entire length of top edge with a considerable taper from top to bottom cut: where was the fault?

A

Preheat flames too long

56
Q

What may be problematic during OFC of light-gauge sheet metals?

A

Distortion, considerable buckling and warping

57
Q

Carbon arc gouging is performed using CC power sources provided what?

A

They have a high open-circuit voltage of at least
60 V

58
Q

CAC-A is thought of as a cutting process, but it is frequently used to what?

A

Remove weld defects when repairing or modifying existing weldments

59
Q

What type of electrode is a good general purpose solution to removing metal and maintaining a consistent tip size?

A

Pointed electrode

60
Q

What type of electrodes are designed to be joined together so the stub can be consumed to reduce waste?

A

Jointed electrode

61
Q

What type of electrode is mainly used to make wide, rectangular and shallow grooves?

A

Flat

62
Q

What electrode produces both a shallow and broad groove?

A

Half round

63
Q

What process is mainly used to cut metals that are difficult or impossible to cut using the oxy-fuel process?

A

Plasma arc cutting (PAC)

64
Q

For PAC, the gas is ionized by what current?

A

High voltage direct current

65
Q

What is capable of conducting an electric current due to the ionized particles and behaves like a metal conductor?

A

Plasma

66
Q

Plasma is an ionized gas this is created by super heating a gas so that…..

A

It’s molecules are separated into ionized atoms

67
Q

Which transferred arc mode does the current go through the piece?

A

Transferred arc mode

68
Q

What is the surface condition produced in the plasma arc process?

A

Rough bevelled side

69
Q

The PAC process uses what kind of power?

A

DC/CC

70
Q

PAC power sources are usually designed with a very high open circuit voltage of usually what?

A

120-400 V

71
Q

What shielding gas is best for cutting carbon steels?

A

Oxygen

72
Q

What shielding gas is best for aluminum and stainless alloys?

A

Nitrogen

73
Q

What shielding gas is the universal second choice because of its convenience and economy?

A

Air

74
Q

PAC has a fast cutting speed of up to what?

A

7620 mm (300’’) per minute

75
Q

With PAC, the HAZ in aluminum plate will be deeper than those in a stainless-steel of the same thickness, because of what?

A

Higher thermal conductivity in aluminum

76
Q

Surface hardening in the HAZ of a plasma cut is minimal while using what as the plasma gas?

A

Oxygen

77
Q

What is the acronym for laser?

A

Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

78
Q

A laser is monochromatic. What does monochromatic mean it has?

A

One wavelength

79
Q

What is a gas laser?

A

An electric current is discharged through a gas medium to produce coherent light

80
Q

The gas laser was the first laser to operate on the principal of what?

A

Converting electrical energy to a laser light output

81
Q

What temp does the material have to be in water jet cutting?

A

COLD

82
Q

The effective throat size will always be what on the what symbol?

A

In brackets

83
Q

A plug weld is made with what type of hole?

A

Circular

84
Q

A slot weld is made with what type of hole?

A

Elongated

85
Q

The difference between a backing, spacer and consumable insert symbol:

A

Backing is a rectangle, a spacer is a box on the reference line, a consumable insert is a square

86
Q

What 3 weld symbols are depicted by a rectangular? And what’s the difference?

A

Plug, slot and backing.
The backing symbol will be accompanied by a groove weld symbol opposite the reference line

87
Q

What does RSW stand for? And what’s does this symbol look like?

A

Résistance spot welding, a circle straddling the reference line

88
Q

What does coalescence mean?

A

The joining or merging of elements to form one mass or whole

89
Q

What is a seam weld?

A

Continuous weld produced between overlapping members with a coalescence initiating and occurring at faying surfaces

90
Q

What does a seam welding symbol look like?

A

A circle straddling the reference line with two horizontal lines through it

91
Q

What does a stud weld symbol look like?

A

A circle with an ‘X’ in it

92
Q

What does TB stand for?

A

Torch brazing

93
Q

When there is a weld size and effective throat size depicted on the weld symbol, in comparison to each other, what will they always be?

A

The size will always be more and the effective throat will always be low

94
Q

The percentage of NDT required will be where in relation to the NDT symbol?

A

Right of the symbol

95
Q

What does AWS stand for?

A

American Welding Society

96
Q

How does the AWS group categorize welding processes?

A

PRIMARILY, on the mode of energy transfer, SECONDARY, on the influence of capillary action in effecting distribution of filler metal in the joint (as in brazing or soldering)

97
Q

Soldering is done at what temp?

A

Below 450•C

98
Q

Brazing is done at what temp?

A

Over 450•

99
Q

What does SSW stand for?

A

Solid state welding

100
Q

What temp is SSW done at?

A

Below melting point (no melting occurs)

101
Q

Which welding processes are by far the most commonly used processes in welding?

A

Arc welding

102
Q

What is the ionized gas region between the electrodes called?

A

Plasma

103
Q

What 4 processes use a consumable electrode?

A

SMAW
GMAW
FCAW
SAW

104
Q

Name 3 processes that produce an autogenous weld:

A

GTAW
Electron Beam
Laser welding

105
Q

What type of current do SMAW and GTAW use?

A

CC

106
Q

What is the arc efficiency of SAW?

A

90-95%

107
Q

What is the arc efficiency of SMAW, GMAW and FCAW?

A

65-85%

108
Q

What is the arc efficiency of GTAW?

A

20-45%

109
Q

Where does the first voltage drop occur?

A

Over the electrode extension (the length of electrode between point of electrical contact with the contact tip and its melting point)

110
Q

The magnitude of the voltage drop depends on what 3 things?

A

Electrode extension, wire diameter, and current

111
Q

The 2ND voltage drop is due to a small thin gaseous region next to the what?

A

CATHODE DROP ZONE*

112
Q

The 4TH voltage drop is in the region called the what?

A

ANODE DROP ZONE*

113
Q

Arc blow is more likely to be present during welding of what type of materials?

A

Magnetic materials

114
Q

Rectifier changes what to what?

A

AC to DC

115
Q

In North America, AC is supplied at how many cycles per second?

A

60 cycles/sec
(60 Hz)

116
Q

DCEP can sometimes be called what?

A

Reverse polarity

117
Q

DCEN can sometimes be called what?

A

Straight polarity

118
Q

Describe resistance heating:

A

When an electric current flows through a conductor, a certain amount of heat is generated due to the current having to overcome the electrical resistance of the conductor

119
Q

Resistance heating allows what to melt?

A

The electrode

120
Q

When the dew point is low, what does that mean for the gas?

A

Dry (no humidity)
The lower the dew point, the drier the gas

121
Q

Define cold crack:

A

Defects that form as a result of the contamination of the weld metal microstructure by hydrogen

122
Q

What 4 things must be critical for hydrogen-induced cold cracking to occur?

A
  1. Susceptible microstructure (based on chemistry and cooling rates)
  2. Stress
  3. Critical level of hydrogen
  4. Temp typically below 150•C
123
Q

GTAW is often used for:

A

Welding thin materials and difficult metals (corrosion resistant alloys, aluminum, titanium and magnesium)

124
Q

Orbital welding generally uses what type of current?

A

Pulsed DC

125
Q

GTAW typically isn’t used to weld materials thicker than what?

A

10 mm

126
Q

GTAW power sources operate at wide current and voltage ranges. What are they?

A

Amperage up to 350 A
Voltage ranges from 10 to 35 V

127
Q

Which control initiates the arc?

A

Arc Force

128
Q

The current is higher is the DCEN half cycle than the DCEP half cycle because why? What is the resulting imbalance called?

A

The electrons are not emitted as effectively, causing the current to be lower. The resulting imbalance is called inherent rectification.

129
Q

What is a main advantage of pulsed DC?

A

Able to control current better in all positions

130
Q

What are the two types of GTAW torches?

A

Air cooled and water cooled

131
Q

Air cooled torches typically have a current carrying capacity of what?

A

Less than 200 A