Lesson 8: Special Collections and Point-Of-Care Testing Flashcards

1
Q

determine the blood type and Rh factor

A

blood bank: blood type and screen

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2
Q
  • checks compatibility between the donor’s and the recipient’s blood
  • patient’s serum or plasma and donor’s RBCs
A

blood bank: Cross-match test

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3
Q
  • determines the presence of infection
  • identifies the type of organism involved
  • measures extent of infection
  • identifies best antibiotic that could be prescribed
  • blood volume should be 20 to 30mL per culture
  • minimum of 10mL per draw for patients weighing more than 80 pounds
  • Infants, only 1% to 4% of the total blood volume.
A

blood culture

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4
Q
  • evaluates the blood clotting function
  • microclots are avoided by gently inverting anticoagulants tubes 3 or 4 times after collection.
A

Coagulation Test

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5
Q
  • screens for diabetes and other metabolic disorders
  • must be obtained 2 hours after meal
A

2-hour Postprandial Glucose

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6
Q
  • diagnose problems in carbohydrate metabolism
  • checks the ability to metabolize glucose through the tolerance level
  • 1 hour for gestational diabetes
  • 3 hours for other glucose metabolism evaluation
A

Glucose Tolerance Test (GTT) and Oral Glucose Test (OGTT)

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7
Q

-determines the lack of mucosal lactase which is responsible for conversion of lactose into glucose

  • same procedure as 2-hour GTT but an equal amount of lactose is substituted for glucose
A

lactose tolerance test

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8
Q
  • verifies the probability that the patient fathered a particular child
  • follow the chain of custody protocol and specific identification procedures
A

Paternity/ Parentage Testing

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9
Q
  • tests the drug levels at specific intervals to establish proper drug dosage and avoid toxicity
  • collection timing should include the peak and trough levels
A

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

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10
Q
  • treats polycythemia and hemochromatosis
  • done to restore the levels to normal range
  • involves withdrawal of approximately 500mL as part of the treatment
A

Therapeutic Phlebotomy

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11
Q
  • checks the presence of toxins in the blood, hair, urine, and other substances
  • Toxins usually exist in very small amounts
A

Toxicology test

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12
Q
  • checks the presence of aluminum, arsenic, copper, lead, iron, and zinc
  • measured in small amounts
A

Trace elements

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13
Q

to determine which blood product can be safely used for blood transfusion

A

blood bank specimen

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14
Q

tube used for collecting blood bank specimen

A
  • lavender-top or pink-top EDTA tube
  • red-top non-additive glass as an alternative
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15
Q

What are the important information for strict specimen identification and labeling procedures in blood banks? [FHSDDI]

A
  • Full name including middle initial
  • Hospital ID Number
  • Social Security Number for Outpatients
  • Date of Birth
  • Date and Time of Collection
  • Initials of the phlebotomist
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16
Q

What is the procedure for conducting a cross-match test?

A

the plasma or serum from the patient is mixed with the RBC of the donor to check for compatibility

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17
Q

What are the qualifications for being a blood donor?

A
  • 17 to 66 years of age
  • minimum weight of 110 lbs.
  • completed the physical exam
  • declared their medical history
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18
Q
  • patients donate blood for their own use especially for elective surgeries
  • eliminates risk associated with blood transfusion
  • upon the written permission of the physician, blood can be collected within a minimum of 72 hours from the surgery schedule
A

autologous blood donation

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19
Q
  • blood of the patient is salvaged (during surgical procedure)
  • washed, and re-infused after testing for residual free hemoglobin
  • salvaged blood needs to be tested prior to reinfusion
  • high free hemoglobin level means that too many red cells were destroyed during the salvage process and reinfusion is not recommended because it will result in renal dysfunction
A

cell salvaging

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20
Q
  • checks the blood for pathogen for patients with fever of unknown origin
  • determines the existence of bacteria in the blood that results in bacteremia
  • determines the presence of microorganism and toxins in the blood that causes septicemia
A

blood culture

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21
Q

When does a physician orders a blood culture test?

A

only when there is a probability of bloodstream microorganism invasion

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22
Q

What are the special preparation for optimum results in blood culture test?

A
  • collection should have 2 to 4 blood culture sets placed in a special bottle
  • one aerobic (with air)
  • one anaerobic (without air)
  • drawn 30 to 60 minutes apart
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23
Q

prevents the contamination by microbial flora in the skin which can be introduced in the blood culture bottles and affect the results

A

skin antisepsis

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24
Q

What antiseptics can be used to sterilize the blood culture test specimen collection site? [BCPFB]

A
  • betadine swab sticks
  • chloroprep
  • PVP ampule
  • Frepp/ Sepp II
  • Benzalkonium Chloride
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25
Q

What should be done to minimize the risk of contamination in blood culture test specimen collection site?

A
  • friction rub of the collection sites for 30 to 60 seconds
  • using tincture of iodine, chlorhexidine gluconate, and a povidine/70% ethyl alcohol combination
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26
Q

Why is blood culture collection takes first priority in the order of draw?

A

to prevent contamination

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27
Q

What are the three ways to inoculate the medium in the blood culture collection procedure?

A
  1. directly into the bottle (during collection)
  2. collected in a syringe (after collection)
  3. through an intermediate collection tube (in the laboratory)
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28
Q

What is the procedure in direct inoculation?

A
  • butterfly and a specially designed holder are used
  • holder is connected to the Luer connector of the butterfly collection set
  • aerobic vial is filled first and each container is mixed after removal from the holder
  • needle is removed after completing the collection
  • safety device is activated as pressure is applied over the collection site
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29
Q

What is the procedure in inoculation using a syringe method?

A
  • blood is transferred to the culture bottles after completing the draw using a safety transfer device
  • safety transfer device is attached to the syringe
  • bottle is pushed into the device until it reaches the stopper
  • blood will be drawn from the syringe filling the vacuum in the container
  • bottle should be placed in a solid surface or in a rack
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30
Q

What is the procedure in inoculation using the intermediate collection tube?

A
  • performed in the laboratory rather at the patient’s bedside
  • NOT recommended because the sodium polyanethole sulfonate (SPS) in collection tubes increases its concentration when added to the blood culture bottles
  • transfer of the blood increases the risk of contamination and the exposure to the laboratory staff
  • if it could not be avoided, the yellow SPS tube is acceptable for collection purposes
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31
Q

Why does physician requests a coagulation tests?

A

to assess the blood clotting functions especially if the patient has an unexplained bleeding

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32
Q

What are the coagulation tests? [PAT]

A
  • prothrombin time (PT)
  • activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
  • thrombin time (TT)
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33
Q
  • done to check if the patient is suffering from diabetes
  • also used to monitor insulin therapy
A

2-hour Postprandrial Glucose (2-hour PP)

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34
Q

What is the principles of 2-hour Postprandrial Glucose (2-hour PP) specimen collection?

A
  • patients is on high-CHO diet 2 to 3 days prior to the test
  • patient should fast for at least 10 hours before the test
  • Fasting glucose specimen may be collected before the start of the procedure
  • special breakfast containing an equivalent of 100g glucose or a glucose beverage is given on the day of the test
  • blood glucose specimen is collected 2 hours after the meal
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35
Q
  • evaluate the ability of the body to metabolize glucose by measuring the tolerance level to high glucose level.
  • Insulin response to a measured dose of glucose is recorded by consistent specimen collection at a given intervals.
A

Glucose Tolerance Test

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36
Q

What is the special preparation of patients for Glucose Tolerance Test?

A
  • patient must eat a balanced meal containing approx. 150g of CHO for 3 days
  • must fast for 12 to 16 hours before the scheduled test
  • drinking water is allowed to avoid dehydration
37
Q

measures the ability of the body to process lactose and determines if the patient lacks mucosal lactase, an enzyme that converts lactose into glucose

A

Lactose Tolerance Test

38
Q

What is the curve if the patient is lactose intolerant?

A

flat curve

39
Q

What are the patients that will show false-positive result in lactose tolerance test? [SCC]

A
  • slow gastric emptying
  • crohn’s disease
  • cystic fibrosis
40
Q

performed to exclude the possibility of paternity of a particular child

A

Paternity/Parentage Testing

41
Q

What are the testings involved in Paternity/Parentage Testing? [AB]

A
  • ABO and Rh Typing
  • Basic red cell antigen testing
42
Q

In Paternity/Parentage Testing if the result does not exclude alleged parent, what are further tests that needs to be performed? [ERSWWH]

A
  • extended red cell antigens
  • red cell enzymes
  • serum proteins testing
  • white cell enzymes
  • white cell antigen
  • human leukocyte antigen
43
Q

What are included in genetic proof to establish parentage in DNA paternity testing?

A
  • genetic fingerprinting
  • DNA profiling
44
Q

What are the principles of DNA paternity testing?

A
  • all involved parties need to submit a government issued photo identification along with the completed chain-of-custody form
  • photos of all tested parties are also taken
  • buccal samples are collected using swab rubbed inside the cheek
  • sealed and tamper-evident package is used to hold the specimen during transport to the laboratory
  • test results are ready after 48 hours and are usually sent via mail
45
Q

measured drug levels at designated intervals so that the appropriate dosage can be established and maintained for the patient, avoiding toxicity

A

Therapeutic Drug Monitoring

46
Q

performed by drawing a large volume of blood, 500 mL, from the patient as part of the treatment procedure for polycythemia and hemochromatosis

A

Therapeutic Phlebotomy

47
Q

overproduction of RBC that is harmful to the patient

A

polycythemia

48
Q
  • excess iron deposits in the tissues which could be due to problems with iron metabolism
  • caused by multiple blood transfusion or excessive iron intake
A

hemochromatosis

49
Q

detection of toxins and treatment

A

clinical toxicology

50
Q

forensic toxicology

A

legal consequences of toxin exposure

51
Q

What are the common toxicology specimens?

A

Blood
Hair
Urine

52
Q

track the specimen from time of collection until the time that the results are released using a special protocol

A

chain of custody

53
Q

uses aqueous povidone-iodine and aqueous benzalkonium chloride

A

Blood Alcohol (Ethanol) Specimens

54
Q
  • specimen is urine
  • companies, healthcare organizations, and sports associations subject their potential employees to _______ as part of their pre-employment requirement
A

Drug Screening

55
Q

What are the presence of elements/mineral that trace element testing checks? [AACLIZ]

A

Aluminum
Arsenic
Copper
Lead
Iron
Zinc

56
Q

any analytical test that is done outside the centralized laboratory and near the site where the patient receives treatment

A

Point-of-Care Testing

57
Q

Bleeding Time

A

to evaluate the capillaries for platelet plug formation

58
Q

measures the level of oxygen, carbon dioxide, and acid-base in the blood

A

Arterial Blood Gases

59
Q

presence of hydrogen ions in a solution

60
Q

What does arterial pH test checks?

A

the balance of the acid-base level, which shows the metabolic and respiratory status of the patient

61
Q

What is the normal pH range of blood?

A

7.35 to 7.45

62
Q

What does a Partial pressure of Carbon Dioxide (PCO2) test indicates?

A
  • how well air is exchanged between the blood and lungs
  • test shows the measure of pressure exerted by dissolved CO2 in the blood plasma in proportion to the PO2 in the alveoli
63
Q
  • PCO2 level increases to an abnormal level
  • higher concentration of CO2 and development of of more H ions and leads to acidosis
A

hypoventilation

64
Q
  • PCO2 level decreases
  • reduces concentration of CO2 and leads to alkalosis
A

hyperventilation

65
Q

What is Partial pressure of Oxygen (PO2)?

A

representative of the pressure exerted by the dissolved O2 and the ability of the lungs to diffuse oxygen through the alveoli

66
Q

What is the use oxygen saturation (SO2) test?

A
  • used to evaluate the oxygenation status of the patient
  • measures the percentage of the binding sites of the hemoglobin that is occupied by oxygen in blood
  • normal person exhibits 98% oxygen saturation
67
Q

aid in moving nutrients in the body and remove wastes in the cells of the body

A

Electrolytes

68
Q
  • helps keep the normal balance of fluids in the body
  • plays a role in transmitting nerve impluses
A

Sodium (Na+)

69
Q

What is the term for elevated and reduced level of Sodium?

A

Hypernatremia
Hyponatremia

70
Q
  • helps in nerve conduction and muscle function
  • regulates the acid-base balance and osmotic pressure
A

Potassium (K+)

71
Q

What is the term for elevated and reduced level of blood Potassium?

A

Hyperkalemia
Hypokalemia

72
Q

maintains the integrity of the cells by helping in balancing the osmotic pressure as well as the acid-base and water balance of the body

A

Chloride (Cl-)

73
Q

helps transport carbon dioxide to the lungs and regulate blood pH

A

Bicarbonate ion (HCO3-)

74
Q

helps in:
muscular function
cardiac function
blood clotting
nerve transmission

A

Ionized Calcium (iCa2+)

75
Q
  • could be detected as early as 10 days from conception
  • by checking the presence of Beta-subunit of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the urine or serum
A

Pregnancy Testing

76
Q

gauge the effectiveness of the thrombolytic therapy being administered to patients who have suffered from heart attacks

A

Cardiac Troponin T (TnT) and Troponin I (TnI)

77
Q

the alanine transferase (ALT) of patients under lipid-lowering medication

A

Lipid Testing

78
Q

chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and congestive heart failure (CHF)

A

B-Type Natriuretic Peptide (BNP)

79
Q

infection, tissue injury and other inflammation disorders

A

C-Reactive Protein (CRP)

80
Q

glucose level of patients with Diabetes Mellitus

A

Glucose testing

81
Q

a diagnostic tool for diabetes therapy monitoring

A

Glycosylated Hemoglobin

82
Q

the volume of red blood cells

A

Hematocrit testing

83
Q

the hemoglobin level to manage patients suffering from anemia

A

Hemoglobin testing

84
Q

the severity of the lactic acid disorder and the stress response of the patient

A

Lactate testing

85
Q

gastrointestinal (GIT) bleeding

A

Occult blood (guaiac)

86
Q

the presence of human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)

A

Pregnancy Test

87
Q

contact with allergens and determines if the body has developed antibodies

A

Skin test checks

88
Q

the presence of group A streptococci

A

Strep testing

89
Q

physical, chemical, and microscopic analyses of the urine specimen

A

urinalysis