Lesson 6 Flashcards

1
Q

A server disk configured to allow clients to access it over the network is a

A

Fileshare

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2
Q

SMB

A

Server Message Block

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3
Q

NetBIOS

A

Network Basic Input/Output System

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4
Q

NetBT

A

NetBIOS over TCP/IP

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5
Q

FTP

A

File Transer Protocol

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6
Q

Allows a client to upload and download files from a network server

A

File transfer Protocol (FTP)

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7
Q

Often used to upload files to websites

A

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

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8
Q

URL

A

Uniform Resource Locator

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9
Q

Resources on the internet are accessed using an addressing scheme known as a

A

Uniform Resource Locator (URL)

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10
Q

SSL

A

Server Socket Layer

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11
Q

TLS

A

Transport Layer Security

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12
Q

Then Transport Layer Security (TLS) is used with the HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) application, it is referred to as

A

HTTPS

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13
Q

SMTP

A

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

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14
Q

POP

A

Post Office Protocol

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15
Q

IMAP

A

Instant Message Access Protocol

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16
Q

SSO

A

Single Sign-On

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17
Q

A protocol that allows a user to authenticate once to access the network and gain authorization for all the compatible application servers running on it

A

Single Sign-On (SSO)

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18
Q

A directory is a type of

A

Database

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19
Q

LDAP

A

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol

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20
Q

AAA

A

Authenticate, Authorization, and Accounting

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21
Q

Consolidates authentication services across multiple access devices

A

Authenticate, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA)

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22
Q

Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) uses the following components

A

Supplicant
Network Access Server (NAS) or Network Access Point (NAP)
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) Server

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23
Q

The device requesting access, such as a user’s PC or laptop

A

Supplicant

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24
Q

Network access applications, such as switches, access points, and VPN gateways

A

Network Access Server (NAS) or Network Access Point (NAP)

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25
RADIUS
Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service
26
Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) is often implemented using a protocol called
Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service (RADIUS)
27
What allows a host to accept connections to its command shell or graphical desktop from across the network?
A Remote Terminal Server
28
TTY
Teletype
29
The terminal or endpoint for communication between the computer and the user
Teletype (TTY)
30
Where the terminal accepts input and displays output, the _____ performs the actual processing
Shell
31
Any kind of software ther replicates the Teletype (TTY) input/output function
Terminal Emulator
32
SSH
Secure Shell
33
The principle means of obtaining secure remote access to Unix and Linux servers and to most types of network appliances (Switches, Routers, and Firewalls)
Secure Shell (SSH)
34
NOS
Network Operating System
35
A protocol and a terminal emulation software tool that transmits shell commands and output between a client and the remote host
Telnet
36
RDP
Remote Desktop Protocol
37
Microsoft's protocol for operating remote GIU connections to a Windows machine
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)
38
SNMP
Simple Network management Protocol
39
A framework for management and monitoring network devices
Simple Network Management Protocol
40
Simple Network Management Protocol consists of a ______________ and __________.
- Management System - Agents
41
A process running on a switch, router, server, or other Simple Network Management Protocol-compatible network device and maintains a database called a Management Information Base (MIB) that holds statistics relating to the activity of the device.
Agent
42
MIB
Management Information Base
43
Monitors all agents by polling them at regular intervals for information from their Management Information Bases (MIBs) and displays the information for review
Management System
44
____ is an example of a protocol and supporting software that facilitates log collection
Syslog
45
NAT
Network Address Translation
46
What device translates between the private IP address and the public IP address?
Network Address Translation (NAT)
47
DLP
Data Leak/Loss Prevention
48
Allows or blocks traffic based on a network access control list specifying a source and destination IP addresses and application ports
Firewalls
49
IDS
Intrusion Detection Systems
50
Identifies known malicious traffic patterns
Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)
51
Scans files being transferred over the network to detect any matches for known malware signatures in binary data
Antivirus/Antimalware
52
Used to block outgoing access to unauthorized websites and services
Content Filters
53
Scans outgoing traffic for information that is marked as confidential or personal
Data Leak/Loss Prevention (DLP)
54
An appliance that enforces a variety of security policies and controls, combining the work of multiple security functions
Unified Threat Management (UTM)
55
UTM
Unified Threat Management
56
What can be deployed to distribute client requests across server nodes in a farm or pool?
Load Balancers
57
EOL
End Of Life
58
A product that is no longer supported
End Of Life (EOL)
59
An electrical device that is designed to perform a specific, dedicated function
Embedded System
60
ICS
Industrial Control System
61
Controls machinery used in critical infrastructure, such as power suppliers, water suppliers, health services, telecommunications, and national security services.
Industrial Control System (ICS)
62
PLC
Programmable Logic Controller
63
OT
Operational Technology
64
HMI
Human Machine Interface
65
SCADA
Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition
66
Gathers data from and managing plant devices and equipment with embedded Programmable Logic Controllers (PLCs)
Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA)
67
An IoT smart device network will generally use the following types of components:
- Hub/Control System - Smart Devices
68
NIC
Network Interface Card
69
IDC
Insulation Displacement Connector
70
Network error where a port transitions rapidly between up and down states
Port Flapping
71
RF
Radio Frequency
72
RSSI
Received Signal Strength Indicator
73
The time it takes for a signal to reach the recipient, measured in milliseconds (ms)
Latency
74
QoS
Quality of Service
75