Lesson 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Within the U.S. federal government, a polygraph examination is also referred to as a?

A

Psychophysiological Detection of Deception (PDD) examination.

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2
Q

The Examination Room or Polygraph Suite must be______ and_____ from all outside noise and detracting influences.

A

Private
Free

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3
Q

What percentage of the polygraph suite should be soundproof?

A

90%

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4
Q

– A setup in a polygraph suite that allows an authorized audience, such as a lawyer or investigator, to discreetly observe and monitor the test proceedings without direct interaction.

A

One-Way Mirror and Remote Sound System

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5
Q

Refers to persons who are not suitable for polygraph testing due to permanent physical illness or conditions such as mental derangement, narcotic addiction, coercion, serious heart conditions, severe nervous disorders, severe respiratory illnesses, or quadriplegia (paralysis of both arms and legs).

A

Permanent Physical Illness

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6
Q

refers to conditions such as sickness, injury, pain, physical discomfort, external physical or mental fatigue, colds, coughs, fever, allergies, and influences of sedatives and liquor are causes for deferment of the test until such time that the subjects regain his ordinary physical condition, a pregnant woman, unless he has obtained prior written permission from a physician to do so.

A

Temporary illness

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7
Q

Phases of Polygraph Examination

A

Phase I - Initial Interview with the Investigator Handling the Case

Phase II - Pre-Test Interview

Phase III – The Conduct of Instrumentation or Actual Test

Phase IV - Post-Test Interview or Interrogation

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8
Q

Test question are formulated by the polygraph examiner based from information obtained from the?.

A

Investigator

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9
Q

Before the actual testing is done, the examiner must first make an __________of the subject which may last from_________ to condition the subject psychologically for the test, to apprise the subject of his constitutional rights, a written consent which must be freely and voluntary given is taken.

A

informal interview

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10
Q
  • These are questions which have no bearing to the case under investigation. The question may refer to the subject’s age, educational attainment, marital status, citizenship, occupation, etc.
A

Irrelevant Question

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11
Q

The examiner asks these types of questions to ascertain the subject’s normal pattern of response by eliminating the feeling of apprehension.

A

Irrelevant Question

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12
Q
  • These are questions pertaining to the issue under investigation. They must be unambiguous, unequivocal and understandable to the subject. They must be related to one issue or one criminal act. It is equally important to limit the number of this questions to avoid discomfort to the subject.
A

Relevant Question

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13
Q

– These questions are intended and created to test for direct participation only and specifically designed to produce and emotional response in guilty subject.

A

Strong Relevant or Primary or Crucial Question

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14
Q

These are questions concern in several secondary aspects of the crime or problem and often deal with guilty knowledge and partial involvement.

A

Weak Relevant or Secondary Question

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15
Q
  • These are questions which are unrelated to the matter under investigation but are of similar nature although less serious as compared to those relevant questions under investigation.
A

Control Question

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16
Q

– is based on known lie. It must concern about actions that transpired within three (3) to five (5) years’ time prior to case under investigation occurred. Example: Before turning the age of 15, have you ever raped a goat?

A

Primary Control Question

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17
Q

– is more precise in nature and is based on another experience of unlawful activity, which will improve the chance for responsiveness. It ranges covers up to the current period. The question for responsiveness must not be connected to the case under investigation.

A

Secondary Control Question

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18
Q

– This is intended to arouse the guilty subject and focus his attention on the probability of incriminating proof that would tend to establish his guilt. In formulating the question, the examiner must know from the investigator whether or not pieces of evidences were collected from the scene of the crime. Example: Was the evidence found at the scene of the crime yours?

A

Evidence Connection Question

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19
Q

– This question is intended to discover whether the subject possesses information regarding the identity of the offender, or as to the location of the evidence or other secondary elements of the facts of the case under investigation. Example: Did you know who committed the crime?

A

Knowledge Question

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20
Q

– This is intended to obtain responses usually produced by the introduction of the first relevant question in the sequence. These divulge the subject’s norm plus stimulus and excitement stage. Example: Regarding the stealing incident, do you intend to answer all of these questions truthfully?

A

Sacrifice or DYAT Question

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21
Q

– These questions are intended to identify and assess the occurrence of the outside issues that might restrain subject’s responses to the relevant question. An outside factor in a case, which he is concerned, but not the issue under investigation. Example: Do you understand that i will only ask you questions we discussed?

A

Symptomatic or Introductory Question

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22
Q

– These are three groups question place as one by Backster and they are intended to verify the previous charts and detect indirect participation or guilty knowledge.

A

SKY Question

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23
Q

SKY means?

A

Suspect Know You

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24
Q

Validated methods for Test Data Analysis used in PH

A

Utah Zone Comparison Test (UZCT)(PLC/DLC)

DLST

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25
Q

Introduced in 2008 by R. Nelson, M. Handler and D. Krapohl, Derived from experiment and observation rather than theory.

A

Empirical Scoring System (ESS)

26
Q

Empirical Scoring System (ESS) Use five diagnostic features;

A

Respiration
1. decrease in amplitude for 3 cycles
2. decrease in rate for 3 cycles
3. temporary increase in baseline
EDA
4. amplitude
Cardio
5. amplitude

27
Q

– The interrogator must create a mood that is conducive to confession. He may be sympathetic and friendly to the subject. The subject may be willing to disclose more information if he is treated in a kind of approach.

A

Emotional Appeal

28
Q

In this technique there must be at least two investigators with opposite character; one () who is arrogant and relentless who knows the subject to be guilty and will not waste time in the interrogation, and the other () who is friendly, sympathetic and kind.

A

Mutt and Jeff Technique

29
Q

– This is applicable where there are two or more persons who allegedly participated in the commission of a crime. All of them are interrogated separately and the results of their individual statements are not known to one another. While one of them is under interrogation, the interrogator claim that the subject was implicated by the author and that there is no use for him to deny participation.

A

Bluff and Split-Fair Technique

30
Q

– The questions must be answered clearly, and the interrogator utilizes harsh language. Immediate response from the subject is demanded.

A

Stern Approach

31
Q

a. First marking of the examiner on the chart.

A

X / 60 / 1.5A

32
Q

a. Indicates the beginning or the start of the test.
b. Is placed on the chart below the cardio tracing.
c. Wait for fifteen (15) to twenty (20) seconds before asking the first question in order to record the normal tracings of the subject.

33
Q

Millimeter of mercury shown in sphygmamom

34
Q

a. ohms of skin electrical resistance.

35
Q

a. Indicates end or ending of the test.
b. Is placed on the chart below the cardio tracing.

36
Q

a. When a question is asked, a stimulus mark or a vertical line is placed on the chart below the cardio tracing.

37
Q

b. The single stimulus mark or the vertical line indicates the beginning of the question and double stimulus mark or the vertical line indicates the ending of the question.

38
Q

sign indicates that the subject answers the question with “Yes” sign or negative sign indicated “No” and sign indicates that subject fails to answer the question being asked.

A

+, - and No sign

39
Q

a. Talking by the subject other than the subject talks “Yes” or “No”, indicate on the chart at the point subject’s starts to talk and again where the subjects stopped talking.
b. Draw horizontal line between the two (two) symbols to show the length of talking.

A

“T” or“T”——–“T”

40
Q

a. It is for talking instruction
b. It is made on the chart below the cardio pattern when the subject is diplomatically instructed regarding talking.

41
Q

a. It is for “C”
b. It causes a sharp ring in the galvo and a break on cardio pattern, depending on its intensity.

42
Q

CT Is placed on the chart for _____________and is frequently placed bellow the pneumo tracing, both galvo and cardio appears as a result of any noise or sound sufficient to cause disturbance in the pattern.

A

clearing throat

43
Q

M” or “M”——–“M” indicates subject’s___________. Prolong movement is indicated with the first “M: when movement is noticed and second “M” when movement stopped, and draw horizontal line between the two (2) symbols to determine the length of the movement.

44
Q

MI is for?

A

Movement instruction

45
Q

The_________ is done only when necessary and shall be preceded by an irrelevant question and is indicated by an arrow either pointing up or down adjacent to respective pattern where the adjustment is made.

A

mechanical adjustment

46
Q

OSN Indicate on the chart for_________ and shall be placed on the chart where the galvo or pneumo activity appears as a result of any noise or sound sufficient to cause disturbance in the pattern.

A

outside noise

47
Q

“S” is indicated on the chart for_____ and shall be placed inside the pneumo tracing exactly where it took place.

It may be indicative of deception or merely denotes relief, because of the psychological implications involved, it must be distinguished from deep breath.

48
Q

SN is indicated on the chart for_____ and shall be placed below the pneumo tracing where it was noted.

49
Q

SZ is indicated on the chart for_____ and should place just below the pneumo tracing at the point where the sneeze occurred. Such occurrence will affect all three (3) tracing to varying degrees.

50
Q

B is indicated on the chart for _________with affects both pneumo and galvo tracings.

A

Burp or Belch

51
Q

“Y” is indicated for____ on the chart, it is placed below the pneumo tracing.
b. This will also affect the cardio and galvo tracings.

A

Yawn/Yawning

52
Q

L is placed on the chart if the subject_____ and should be placed below the pneumo tracings. This will also affect the cardio tracings.

53
Q

VC It stands for _________when the subjects answer the question. It is indicated on the chart and the symbol is placed at the break point of the cardio tracing where stimulus mark showed subject answer. The change of voice when subject answer the question will also affect the galvo and pneumo tracing.

A

change of voice

54
Q

“IM”
a. It is indicated on the chart for___________ at the break point of the cardio tracing.
b. The subject will actually jerk occasionally; thus, this will affect the galvo and pneumo tracings. Involuntary movement frequently contains deception criteria.

A

involuntary movement

55
Q

a. Extraneous factors due to blood pressure cuff discomfort will affect all the three (3) tracings; it is indicated on the char with “ARM”. If the discomfort continues, draw a horizontal line for the duration of the apparent discomfort with the additional “ARM” at the termination of discomfort.

A

“ARM”———-“ARM”

56
Q

“BI”
a. Indicated on the chart as____________ and placed below the cardio tracings. This is being done when the subject is carefully and properly instructed regarding deep breathing.

A

breathing instruction

57
Q

RQ
a. It is indicated below the cardio tracing when the subject__________

A

requests a repetition of the question.

58
Q

“PJ”
a. Indicated for_______ below the cardio pattern at the time of the wedge.

59
Q

a. C positive or plus is indicated if the sensitivity of galvo was?,

while C negative or minus is indicated if the sensitivity of galvo was?.

A

increased

decrease

60
Q

a. It is indicated when the ink of the polygraph stops.

61
Q

The accurateness of instrumental deception detection is?