Lesson 4 Questions

Question 1

What are three ways to increase lift?

Answer 1

(1) Increasing angle of attack
(2) If angle of attack is held constant, increasing velocity/speed
(3) Changing the area of the wing by deploying flaps/slats

Question 2

What is meant by normal or reverse region of command? How does it affect our flying?

Answer 2

• Region of normal command - power must be added to INCREASE speed
• Reverse region of command - additional power is needed to maintain a LOWER airspeed. This is due to high induced drag and low parasite drag.

Most flying is in the region of normal command, where the aircraft has a strong tendency to maintain its trim speed. In the reverse region of command, this tendency to maintain trim speed is weak or non-existent. The aircraft will prove much less stable in reversed command.

Thus, the pilot must pay extra attention to precise airspeed control, particularly in the slow-speed phases of reversed command.

Question 3

What is power? Thrust? The difference between them?

Answer 3

Thrust is the actual forward force produced by the engine, which opposes the force of drag. Power is the work/energy done over time.

Power = thrust * velocity

If the engine in our Cessna is at full throttle and producing 2400 RPM on takeoff, we will be producing LESS power (but the same thrust) than 2400 RPM at cruise speed.

Thrust CHANGES the velocity of a mass, which leads to a change in power.

Question 4

Describe horizontal component of lift and what effects it has on an airplane.

Answer 4

The force of lift is separated into two components at right angles to each other. Horizontal component of lift is the sideward force that causes an aircraft to turn. Centripetal force is the equal/opposite reaction to this component.

When we’re turning, our total/resultant no longer points straight up, it points at an angle correlated to our rate of bank. So, with less lift pointed straight up, more back-pressure will be required to maintain a given altitude.

Question 5

A pilot is turning in a 10 degree left hand bank at 110 kts, he then reduces his airspeed to 100 kts, what, if
anything, happens to the rate and radius of the turn? Pitch attitude?

Answer 5

The rate of the turn will INCREASE as speed DECREASES (inverse correlation). The radius of the turn will DECREASE as speed DECREASES (positive correlation). Pitch attitude will have to be increased at the lower speed to maintain the same vertical component of lift and maintain altitude.

Question 6

How does the ball on the turn coordinator indicate a slip/skid?

Answer 6

• A slipping turn will be indicated by an off-center ball TOWARDS the turn (right of center on a right turn).
• A skidding turn will be indicated by an off-center ball AWAY from the turn (left of center on a right turn)

Question 7

How does ice/frost adversely affect aircraft performance?

Answer 7

Ice alters the shape of an airfoil, reducing the maximum coefficient of lift and critical angle-of-attack. It can have even worse effects at lower airspeeds.

• It greatly increases drag and load factor.
• It increases the aircraft’s weight quickly and can lead to an overweight situation.
• It can alter the way the aircraft performs or cause it to stall with flaps down.
• It can block or limit control surfaces.
• It can cause uncommanded roll phenomenon or self-deflection of ailerons.
• Propeller ice can greatly reduce thrust.
• Antenna icing can cause radios to fail.
• Stall warning systems can be iced over and fail to warn a pilot of a stall.

Question 8

Basic VFR Weather Minimums (Why are the cloud clnc requirements different in Class B airspace?)

Answer 8

3 miles visibility, 1,000 ft ceiling

Basic Cloud Clearance - 3 - 152 (3 miles visibility, 500 ft below, 1,000 ft above, 2,000 ft horizontal

Requirements are different in Class B because all aircraft are being controlled, are on radar, and separation services being provided by ATC

Question 9

Could you depart KPWK under Basic VFR with the following METAR: 232120Z 08003KT 1 1/2SM -SN BR
VV013 M07/M08 A2978

Answer 9

No. Visibility is too low.

Question 10

Could you depart KPWK under Basic VFR with the following METAR: 232120Z 08003KT 5SM -SN BR VV013
M07/M08 A2978

Answer 10

Visibility is technically okay, but to maintain 1,000 feet above obstacles in the congested area, you would not be able to clear the clouds vertically by 500 feet, so no.

Question 11

What is a Class E Surface Area?

Answer 11

Class E surface area are those areas where Class E airspace extends from the surface to 1,500 ft or the floor of the nearest airspace, typically for airports that don’t have a control tower or for times when the tower is unmanned at towered airports.

Question 12

Explain “Mode C Veil” and how you might get an exemption.

Answer 12

Mode C Veil is the airspace within 30nm of an airport, generally a Class B airport. An aircraft that was not certificated with an engine-driven electrical system may operate in the area assuming they stay out of the airspace. An exemption could also be obtained by contacting ATC.

Question 13

What is Class G airspace? What are the Basic VFR Weather Minimums during the day below 10,000 feet
MSL in Class G airspace?

Answer 13

Class G airspace is UNCONTROLLED. It’s airspace that has NOT been designated as another type of controlled airspace.

During the day below 10,000 ft, minimums are 1-152, unless below 1,200 AGL, where they are 1-clear of clouds

Question 14

How can you find out if an uncontrolled airport is in Class G or a Class E surface area? Why can’t you cancel
IFR when landing at a Class E surface area uncontrolled field when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet?

Answer 14

Class E surface areas are present on sectional charts and low enroute charts. We can’t cancel IFR because VFR flight in controlled airspace is not permitted when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.

“No person may operate an aircraft beneath the ceiling under VFR within the lateral boundaries of controlled airspace designated to the surface for an airport when the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.”

Question 15

IFR operations in any class of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ airspace require that the pilot must file an IFR flight plan and
receive an appropriate ATC clearance.

Answer 15

IFR operations in any class of CONTROLLED airspace require that the pilot must file an IFR flight plan and
receive an appropriate ATC clearance.

Question 16

It is the responsibility of the ________ to ensure that ATC clearance or radio communication requirements are
met prior to entry into Class B, C, or D airspace. The _________ retains this responsibility when receiving
ATC radar advisories.

Answer 16

It is the responsibility of the PILOT IN COMMAND to ensure that ATC clearance or radio communication requirements are met prior to entry into Class B, C, or D airspace. The PILOT IN COMMAND? retains this responsibility when receiving ATC radar advisories.

Question 17

What is Mode C?

Answer 17

A ‘Mode C’ transponder provides the identification and the altitude of the aircraft.

Question 18

At what altitude does Class A airspace begin?

Answer 18

Class A airspace begins at 18,000 feet

Question 19

When you are IFR, do you need to be cleared to enter Class A, B, C, or D airspace?

Answer 19

No, you are then cleared for whatever airspace your route traverses, including Class B.

Question 20

To operate IFR in a Class Bravo airspace, what navigation device(s) must you be equipped with?

Answer 20

For all operations - 2-way radio, mode C transponder

For IFR operations - an operable VOR or TACAN receiver or an operable and suitable RNAV system

Question 21

Required IFR instruments (§91.205)

Answer 21

(d) Instrument flight rules. For IFR flight, the following instruments and equipment are required:
(1) Instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (b) of this section, and, for night flight, instruments and equipment specified in paragraph (c) of this section.
(2) Two-way radio communication and navigation equipment suitable for the route to be flown.
(3) Gyroscopic rate-of-turn indicator, except on the following aircraft:
(i) Airplanes with a third attitude instrument system usable through flight attitudes of 360 degrees of pitch and roll and installed in accordance with the instrument requirements prescribed in §121.305(j) of this chapter; and
(ii) Rotorcraft with a third attitude instrument system usable through flight attitudes of ±80 degrees of pitch and ±120 degrees of roll and installed in accordance with §29.1303(g) of this chapter.
(4) Slip-skid indicator.
(5) Sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure.
(6) A clock displaying hours, minutes, and seconds with a sweep-second pointer or digital presentation.
(7) Generator or alternator of adequate capacity.
(8) Gyroscopic pitch and bank indicator (artificial horizon).
(9) Gyroscopic direction indicator (directional gyro or equivalent).

Question 22

§91.213 Inoperative instruments and equipment.

Answer 22

(a) Except as provided in paragraph (d) of this section, no person may take off an aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment installed unless the following conditions are met:
(1) An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft.
(2) The aircraft has within it a letter of authorization, issued by the responsible Flight Standards office, authorizing operation of the aircraft under the Minimum Equipment List. The letter of authorization may be obtained by written request of the airworthiness certificate holder. The Minimum Equipment List and the letter of authorization constitute a supplemental type certificate for the aircraft.
(3) The approved Minimum Equipment List must—
(i) Be prepared in accordance with the limitations specified in paragraph (b) of this section; and
(ii) Provide for the operation of the aircraft with the instruments and equipment in an inoperable condition.
(4) The aircraft records available to the pilot must include an entry describing the inoperable instruments and equipment.
(5) The aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in the Minimum Equipment List and the letter authorizing the use of the list.
(b) The following instruments and equipment may not be included in a Minimum Equipment List:
(1) Instruments and equipment that are either specifically or otherwise required by the airworthiness requirements under which the aircraft is type certificated and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions.
(2) Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive to be in operable condition unless the airworthiness directive provides otherwise.
(3) Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by this part.
(c) A person authorized to use an approved Minimum Equipment List issued for a specific aircraft under subpart K of this part, part 121, 125, or 135 of this chapter must use that Minimum Equipment List to comply with the requirements in this section.
(d) Except for operations conducted in accordance with paragraph (a) or (c) of this section, a person may takeoff an aircraft in operations conducted under this part with inoperative instruments and equipment without an approved Minimum Equipment List provided—
(1) The flight operation is conducted in a—
(i) Rotorcraft, non-turbine-powered airplane, glider, lighter-than-air aircraft, powered parachute, or weight-shift-control aircraft, for which a master minimum equipment list has not been developed; or
(ii) Small rotorcraft, nonturbine-powered small airplane, glider, or lighter-than-air aircraft for which a Master Minimum Equipment List has been developed; and
(2) The inoperative instruments and equipment are not—
(i) Part of the VFR-day type certification instruments and equipment prescribed in the applicable airworthiness regulations under which the aircraft was type certificated;
(ii) Indicated as required on the aircraft’s equipment list, or on the Kinds of Operations Equipment List for the kind of flight operation being conducted;
(iii) Required by §91.205 or any other rule of this part for the specific kind of flight operation being conducted; or
(iv) Required to be operational by an airworthiness directive; and
(3) The inoperative instruments and equipment are—
(i) Removed from the aircraft, the cockpit control placarded, and the maintenance recorded in accordance with §43.9 of this chapter; or
(ii) Deactivated and placarded “Inoperative.” If deactivation of the inoperative instrument or equipment involves maintenance, it must be accomplished and recorded in accordance with part 43 of this chapter; and
(4) A determination is made by a pilot, who is certificated and appropriately rated under part 61 of this chapter, or by a person, who is certificated and appropriately rated to perform maintenance on the aircraft, that the inoperative instrument or equipment does not constitute a hazard to the aircraft.

An aircraft with inoperative instruments or equipment as provided in paragraph (d) of this section is considered to be in a properly altered condition acceptable to the Administrator.

(e) Notwithstanding any other provision of this section, an aircraft with inoperable instruments or equipment may be operated under a special flight permit issued in accordance with §§21.197 and 21.199 of this chapter.