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Block 4 > Lesson 23 > Flashcards

Lesson 23 Flashcards

1
Q

Per 7110.65, controllers shall advise pilots of hazardous weather that may impact operations within ______ of their sector or area.

A

150 NM

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2
Q

Name the Factors that Influence Aviation Weather Safety: (3)

A
  • pilot ratings and experience
  • aircraft design and performance specifications
  • onboard equipment
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3
Q

______ is responsible for most weather related accidents

A

adverse wind

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4
Q

_________ are most susceptible to adverse wind.

A

takeoff and landing

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5
Q

Crosswind

A

wind that is not parallel to the runway or path of an aircraft

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6
Q

What happens when aircraft are oriented into the wind for take off and landing?

A
  • more efficient
  • groundspeed is minimized
  • less runway is required to achieve lift off
  • pilot has more time to make adjustments necessary for a smooth landing
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7
Q

What happens when aircraft are oriented into the wind for take off and landing?

A
  • more efficient
  • groundspeed is minimized
  • less runway is required to achieve lift off
  • pilot has more time to make adjustments necessary for a smooth landing
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8
Q

What happens if a pilot does not correctly compensate for the crosswind?

A
  • aircraft may drift off the side of the runway

- side load on the landing gear might occur, leading to gear collapse

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9
Q

Gust

A

a sudden, brief increase in the speed of the wind

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10
Q

What is the main issue gusts cause?

A

airspeed fluctuations

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11
Q

Tailwind

A

any wind more than 90 degrees to the longitudinal axis of the runway

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12
Q

A tailwind can be hazardous during both takeoff and landing because….

A
  • a longer takeoff roll is required
  • a higher ground speed is required
  • a smaller initial rate of climb occurs during takeoff
  • a longer landing roll is required
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13
Q

Variable Wind

A

during the 2 minute evaluation period, it fluctuates by 60 degrees or more and the wind speed is more than 6 knots (larger shift at slower speed)

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14
Q

Wind Shift

A

a change in wind direction of 45 degrees or more which takes place in less than 15 minutes and has sustained winds of 10 knots or more throughout the wind shift

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15
Q

Why are variable winds and sudden wind shifts dangerous?

A

a headwind can quickly become a crosswind or tailwind

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16
Q

Why are variable winds and sudden wind shifts dangerous?

A

a headwind can quickly become a crosswind or tailwind

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17
Q

____ airplanes are more affected by tailwinds and crosswinds during takeoff and landing than _____ airplanes.

A

Small; Large

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18
Q

Which type of aircraft will perform better in adverse wind conditions, due to its higher takeoff and approach speeds?

A

larger airplanes

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19
Q

What is the single greatest cause of fatal accidents in relation to vertigo?

A

continued visual flight into IFR weather

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20
Q

Ceiling

A

the lowest layer aloft reported as broken or overcast; or the vertical visibility into an indefinite ceiling

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21
Q

Indefinite Ceiling

A

the ceiling classification that is applied when the reported ceiling value represents the vertical visibility upward into a surface based obscuration

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22
Q

An ________ restricts the pilot’s slant range visibility, thus he may not see the runway ahead after he descends below the indefinite ceiling.

A

indefinite ceiling

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23
Q

Which is more hazardous, an indefinite ceiling or an equal ceiling?

A

indefinite ceiling

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24
Q

Fog

A

a visible aggregate of minute water droplets based at the Earth’s surface and reducing horizontal visibility to less than 5/8 SM; does not fall to the ground

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25
Q

When does fog form?

A

when the temperature and dew point of the air become identical (or nearly so)

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26
Q

When does fog form?

A

when the temperature and dew point of the air become identical (or nearly so)

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27
Q

Blowing Snow

A

snow lifted from the surface or the earth by the wind to a height of 6 ft or more above the ground and blow about in such quantities that the reported horizontal visibility is reduced to less than 7 SM

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28
Q

What causes a “whiteout”?

A

blowing snow

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29
Q

Volcanic Ash

A

fine particles of rock powder that originate from a volcano and that may remain suspended in the atmosphere for long periods

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30
Q

Mountain Obscuration

A

weather phenomena causing the obscuration of mountain peaks caused by clouds, precipitation, smoke, haze, mist or fog

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31
Q

Which precipitation types most commonly produce instrument weather?

A

rain, drizzle, and snow

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32
Q

Aircraft turbulence

A

irregular motion of an aircraft in flight, especially when characterized by rapid up and down motion, caused by a rapid variation of atmospheric wind velocities

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33
Q

Turbulence is caused by: (3)

A
  • convective currents (called “ convective turbulence”
  • obstructions to wind flow (called “mechanical turbulence”)
  • wind shear
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34
Q

Turbulence is caused by: (3)

A
  • convective currents (called “ convective turbulence”
  • obstructions to wind flow (called “mechanical turbulence”)
  • wind shear
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35
Q

Convective Currents are most active on ___________ when winds are light.

A

warm summer afternoons

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36
Q

What cloud type indicates convective turbulence?

A

billowy cumuliform clouds

37
Q

Mechanical Turbulence occurs when…..

A

obstructions to the wind flow disrupt the smooth flow of air

38
Q

Mechanical Turbulence intensity is directly related to:

A
  • wind speed

- roughness of the obstructions

39
Q

Mountain Wave

A

an atmospheric wave disturbance formed when stable air flow passes over a mountain or mountain range

40
Q

Characteristics of Mountain Waves:

A
  • develop above and downwind of mountains
  • may extend 100 miles or more downwind
  • produces severe to extreme turbulence
  • waves remain nearly stationary while the wind blows rapidly through them
41
Q

Name the 3 conditions of a Wind Shear that are of special interest:

A
  • wind shear with low-level temperature inversion
  • wind shear with a frontal zone
  • Clear Air Turbulence associated with the jet stream
42
Q

Temperature Inversion

A

temperature increases with altitude

    • Inversions Occur:
  • within the lowest few thousand feet above ground due to nighttime cooling
  • along frontal zones
  • when cold air is trapped in a valley
43
Q

Temperature Inversion

A

temperature increases with altitude

    • Inversions Occur:
  • within the lowest few thousand feet above ground due to nighttime cooling
  • along frontal zones
  • when cold air is trapped in a valley
44
Q

Clear Air Turbulence (CAT)

A

a higher altitude (20,000 to 50,000 ft) turbulence phenomenon occurring in cloud free regions, associated with wind shear, particularly between the core of a jet stream and the surrounding air

45
Q

When is CAT frequency and intensity maximized?

A

during winter when the jet streams are the strongest

46
Q

When is CAT frequency and intensity maximized?

A

during winter when the jet streams are the strongest

47
Q

Name the 4 intensities of Turbulence:

A
  • Light (LGT)
  • Moderate (MOD)
  • Severe (SEV)
  • Extreme (EXTRM)
48
Q

Light (LGT) Turbulence

A
  • momentarily causes slight erratic changes in altitude and/or attitude (pitch, roll, yaw)
  • occupants may feel a slight strain against seat belts or shoulder straps. unsecured objects may be displaced slightly.
49
Q

Moderate (MOD) Turbulence

A
  • changes in altitude and/or attitude occur but the aircraft remains in positive control at all times; variations in indicated airspeed
  • occupants feel definite strains against seat belts or shoulder straps; unsecured objects are dislodged
50
Q

Severe (SEV) Turbulence

A
  • large abrupt changes in altitude and/or attitude; causes large variations in indicated airspeed; a/c may be momentarily out of control
  • occupants forced violently against seatbelts or shoulder straps; unsecured objects are tossed about
51
Q

Extreme (EXTRM) Turbulence

A

a/c violently tossed about and is practically impossible to control; may cause structural damage

52
Q

Extreme (EXTRM) Turbulence

A

a/c violently tossed about and is practically impossible to control; may cause structural damages

53
Q

When the air is too dry for cumuliform clouds to form, ______ currents caused by uneven surface heating can still be active and cause turbulence.

A

convective

54
Q

High Density Altitude

A

a condition of the atmosphere that reduces an aircrafts performance capability below a level of standard performance at a specified altitude

55
Q

_____ is ice that sticks to the outside of an a/c; forms when supercooled water strikes the aircraft’s airframe; can accumulate on every exposed frontal surface of the airplane.

A

Structural Icing

56
Q

Name the 3 types of structural icing:

A
  • Rime
  • Clear (or glaze)
  • Mixed
57
Q

Rime Ice

A

rough, milky, opaque ice formed by the instantaneous freezing of small supercooled water droplets after they strike the aircraft

58
Q

Characteristics of Rime Ice

A
  • most common
  • least serious type of icing
  • typically controlled by de icers/anti icers
  • its shape and texture disturb the airflow
  • its brittleness makes it easier to remove
59
Q

Clear Ice (or glaze ice)

A

a glossy, clear or translucent ice formed by the relatively slow freezing of large supercooled water droplets

60
Q

Characteristics of Clear Ice

A
  • more hazardous than rime
  • can greatly disrupt airflow
  • pilot may not see it
  • difficult to remove
  • can spread beyond the reach of de icing / anti icing equipment
61
Q

Characteristics of Clear Ice

A
  • more hazardous than rime
  • can greatly disrupt airflow
  • pilot may not see it
  • difficult to remove
  • can spread beyond the reach of de icing / anti icing equipment
62
Q

Mixed Ice

A

mixture of clear ice and rime ice; combines the dangerous effects of both clear and rime icing conditions

63
Q

Name the 4 icing intensity classifications:

A
  • Trace (TRACE)
  • Light (LGT)
  • Moderate (MOD)
  • Severe (SEV)
64
Q

Trace (TRACE)

A
  • ice becomes perceptible
  • rate of accumulation slightly greater than sublimation
  • de icing/anti icing equipment is not utilized unless encountered for an extended period of time (over 1 hour)
65
Q

Light (LGT)

A
  • rate of accumulation may create a problem if flight is prolonged in the environment (over 1 hour)
  • occasional use of deicing/ anti icing equipment removes/prevents accumulation
  • does not present a problem if the deicing/ anti icing equipment is used
66
Q

Moderate (MOD)

A
  • rate of accumulation is such that even short encounters become potentially hazardous
  • use of deicing/anti icing equipment or flight diversion is necessary
67
Q

Severe (SEV)

A
  • rate of accumulation is such that deicing/anti icing equipment fails to reduce or control the hazard
  • immediate flight diversion is necessary
68
Q

Severe (SEV)

A
  • rate of accumulation is such that deicing/anti icing equipment fails to reduce or control the hazard
  • immediate flight diversion is necessary
69
Q

Supercooled Water

A

liquid water at temperatures below the freezing point

  • will crystallize in the presence of a solid around which a crystal structure can form
  • often exist in stratiform and cumulus clouds
70
Q

Icing is dependent upon:

A
  • aircraft type and design
  • altitiude
  • airspeed
  • meteorological factors
71
Q

What aircraft type is more susceptible to icing? and why?

A

Light Turboprops; because they fly at lower altitudes that support icing (0 to -20 degrees Celsius)

72
Q

How do pilots avoid/escape from icing?

A
  • exit the area of visible moisture
  • climb or descend to positive temperatures
  • climb to altitudes where temperatures are too cold to support supercooled droplets
73
Q

High density altitude _____ an aircraft’s power and thrust.

A

reduces

74
Q

Aircraft icing potential is NOT dependent upon _____.

A

pilot rating

75
Q

Which adverse effect of structural icing is LEAST significant to an aircraft?

A

increased weight

76
Q

Which adverse effect of structural icing is LEAST significant to an aircraft?

A

increased weight

77
Q

Thunderstorm

A

a storm produced by a cumulonimbus cloud and always accompanied by lightning and thunder, usually with strong gusts of wind, heavy rain and sometimes hail

78
Q

Thunderstorm Cell Formation requires what 3 ingredients?

A
  • water vapor
  • unstable air
  • lift
79
Q

Name and Describe the 3 Stages of a Thunderstorm Cell:

A
  1. Towering Cumulus Stage: updraft speeds of greater than 3,000 feet per minute
  2. Mature Stage: downdraft reaches the surface; weather hazards reach peak intensity
  3. Dissipating Stage: precipitation tapers off and ends; cloud gradually vaporizes from below leaving a remnant anvil cloud
80
Q

Downburst

A

a strong downdraft which induces an outburst of damaging winds on or near the ground.

81
Q

Microburst

A

a downburst that covers an area up to 2.5 miles along a side with peak winds as high as 150 knots that lasts 2-5 minutes

82
Q

Macroburst

A

a downburst that covers an area greater than 2.5 miles up to 10 miles along a side with peak winds as high as 120 knots that last 5-30 minutes

83
Q

Macroburst

A

a downburst that covers an area greater than 2.5 miles up to 10 miles along a side with peak winds as high as 120 knots that last 5-30 minutes

84
Q

Thunderstorm cell formation requires _____, unstable air, and lift.

A

water vapor

85
Q

Low level wind shear (LLWS)

A

a wind shear of 10 knots or more per 100 ft in a layer more than 200 ft thick which occurs within 2,000 ft of the surface (dangerous especially during takeoff and landing)

86
Q

While an a/c is on approach, a shear from a headwind to a tailwind causes:

A
  • airspeed to decrease
  • nose to pitch down
  • aircraft to drop below the glideslope
87
Q

While an a/c is on approach, if the wind is calm, or there is a slight tailwind, and the flow shears into a headwind, this causes:

A
  • airspeed to increase
  • nose to pitch up
  • aircraft to rise upward above the glideslope
  • airplane will land long and could run out of runway
88
Q

What type of aircraft are more prone to LLWS?

A

small, general aviation aircraft; because their approach speeds are much closer to their stall speeds

Block 4 (5 decks)

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