Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PPL Ground School > Lesson 2: Aircraft components, Systems, Instruments > Flashcards

Lesson 2: Aircraft components, Systems, Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 strokes of a reciprocating engine?

A

Intake - Compression - Power (Combustion) - Exhaust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Aircraft Components - AILERONS

A

Allows a ROLL maneuver,
Controlled by turning the Yoke left or right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Aircraft Components - ELEVATOR

A

Allows a PITCH maneuver,
Controlled by pushing in or pulling out the yoke (Pull = Tail down = Nose up)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Aircraft components - RUDDER

A

Allows a YAW maneuver,
Controlled by the RUDDER PEDALS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What 3 things does an engine require?

A

Air (Oxyen)
Fuel
Electricity for Spark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Air and Fuel get delivered to the engine in 1 of 2 ways:

A

Carburetor or Fuel Injection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Fuel / Air Mixture

A

For every gram of fuel, you need 14.7 grams of air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Rich Fuel

A

•More fuel to air ratio
•Not enough air to burn all fuel
•Extra fuel that doesn’t burn lowers engine temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lean Fuel Mixture

A

•Less fuel to air ratio
•All fuel is burned
•Lower performance
•Hotter temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When can you expect Carburetor ice

A

• temperatures are between 20°F and 70°F (-7°C and 21°C)
• high realitive humidity (over 80%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

First sign of Caruretor Ice

A

Loss of RPMs!

(Then eventual engine roughness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Applying Carb heat will:

A

ENRICH the fuel/air mixture

Decreases engine performance

Engine roughness as ice melts and water enters the engine

When engine runs smoothly, remove carb heat and reduce throttle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Float-type carburetor or fuel injection systems: which tend to be more susceptible to icing?

A

Carburetor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Pilotos Action if Carb Ice is present

A
  1. Full Throttle
  2. Pull the Carb Heat Control
    • (NOTE—-There will be a further drop in rpm)
    • Use of Carb. Heat enrichens the mixture
  3. Engine may run rough as ice melts and water enters engine.
  4. When engine runs smoothly, remove carb heat and reduce throttle.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

If the proper grade of fuel is not available, which grade should you use?

A

ONLY the next higher octane aviation grade.

(A lower grade should never be used, may cause detonation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

DETONATION

A

Fuel mixture ignited instantaneously, a SUDDEN EXPLOSION instead of burning progressively and evenly.

Occurs when the unburned charge in cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PREIGNITION

A

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge IN ADVANCE or PRIOR to normal spark ignition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why should fuel tanks be filled after the last flight of the day?

A

This will prevent moisture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where should water be purged from fuel system / tanks?

A

Fuel strainers
AND
Sumps from every fuel tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the 2 different fuel pumps in the Cessna Skyhawks?

A

Engine driven
and
Electrical (AUX) fuel pump

Two for REDUNDANCY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What will happen if you operate an aircraft with low oil?

A

The engine will seize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the first action to take after starting an engine?

A

Check that oil pressure is in the green.

THEN check RMP and pull throttle to 1,000.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

AMP

A

Quantity of flow of electricity.

How much electricity is flowing?

(Water example: gallons per hour)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

VOLT

A

Electrical pressure.

What is the pressure of electricity?

Water example: PSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 3 things OIL does?

A

Lubricates
Cools
Cleans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Preventing DETONATION

A

• use correct grade fuel
• maintain a sufficiently rich mixture
• open the throttle smoothly
• keep temperature of the engine within recommended operating limits

(If detonating is occurring on incline with a fixed-pitch propeller, lower the nose to slightly increase airspeed, which eventually lowers the engine temperature)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

High engine temperature will:

A

• cause loss of power
• excessive oil consumption
• detonation
• serious engine damage

28
Q

High engine temps are caused by:

A

• Too lean a mixture
• too low a grade of fuel
• low oil
• insufficient airflow over the engine

29
Q

Types of Propellers

A

• Fixed Pitch
• Adjustable Pitch
• Constant Speed

30
Q

CONSTANT SPEED PROPELLOR

How is engine operation controlled?

A

Allows the pilot to select a prop setting for most efficient performance using:

THROTTLE which controls engine power output (measured w/ Manifold Pressure gauge)

-and-

PROPELLER which regulates engine RMP ( measure with w/ Tachometer)

31
Q

On engines equipped with a constant speed propeller, a pilot should avoid a __________ manifold pressure setting with ________ RPM.

A

HIGH manifold press

LOW rpms

32
Q

TORQUE

A

The tendency of an airplane to turn left.

It is a combination of four forces:
• Reactive
• Spiraling slipstream
• Gyroscopic procession
• P-Factor

33
Q

Flight conditions that TORQUE is more pronounced in a single engine airplane?

A

High power
Low airspeed
High angle of attack

34
Q

P-Factor

A

Caused by the downward moving blade on the right side of the propellor having a higher angle of attack.

This will be the greatest when the aircraft is operating at low airspeed with high power setting.

35
Q

ABCs of engine failure

A

Airspeed
Best Field
Checklist

Remember what n engine needs to run!
• Air (carb ice blocking airflow? Turn on carb heat!)
• Fuel (did the fuel get turned off? Fuel pump fail?)
• Spark (Are the mags on? Do both work?)

NOTE: If the alternator dies, the aircraft will be using the battery for electrical power. A healthy battery lasts for 30 mins. The engine does NOT need power from the battery or alternator to run, bc the Magnetos are still going. Try resetting the alternator. Follow the checklist.

36
Q

Which instrument utilizes pitot pressure?

A

Airspeed Indicator (ASI)

37
Q

Pitot Pressure

A

Impact / RAM pressure

Dynamic pressure created by the aircraft’s movement through the air

38
Q

Static Pressure

A

Ambient air pressure around the aircraft

39
Q

Which instrument utilizes pitot pressure?

A

Airspeed Indicator (ASI)

40
Q

Which instruments utilize static pressure?

A

Airspeed Indicator (ASI), Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI) and Altimeter

41
Q

What is the standard pressure at Sea Level?

A

29.92” Hg (Mercury)

42
Q

What do you set the Altimeter based on?

A

Weather Conditions

43
Q

Flight Instuments
AIRSPEED INDICATOR (ASI)

A

Measure Pitot pressure and compares it to Static pressure

44
Q

Flight Instruments
ALTIMETER

A

Measures height (altitude) by responding to atmospheric changes.

Compares the ambient pressure around the aircraft (static) to the air pressure at sea level.

Each 1” of pressure difference equates to 1,000’.

45
Q

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be at to which altitude or altimeter setting?

A

The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the elevation of the departure airport.

46
Q

What altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92?

A

18,000 feet MSL and above

47
Q

What is True Altitude?

A

The height above sea level.

48
Q

What is Absolute Altitude?

A

The vertical distance of the aircraft above the surface.

49
Q

What is Density altitude?

A

The pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature.

50
Q

What is Pressure Altitude?

A

The altitude indicated when the barometric pressure scale is set to 29.92 (the standard datum plane)

51
Q

How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

A

Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.

On a warm day, the expanded air is lighter than in a cold day, and the pressure levels are raised.

52
Q

Under what conditions will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?

A

In colder than standard air temperature.

53
Q

Under which conditions will pressure altitude be equal to true altitude?

A

Under standard atmospheric conditions.

54
Q

Under what condition is pressure altitude and Density altitude the same value?

A

When conditions are standard.

55
Q

If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate: a _______ than the actual altitude above sea level.

A

LOWER

56
Q

Why does altimeter read higher in colder air?

A

Warmer air is less dense and exerts less pressure, which can cause an altimeter to read a higher altitude than actual. Conversely, colder air is denser and exerts more pressure, causing the altimeter to read a lower altitude than actual.

57
Q

High to Low:

A

Look out below!

58
Q

Gyroscopic Instrument:
ATTITUDE INDICATOR

A

Rigidity in Space principle

When viewing the attitude indicator? The direction of bank is determined by the relationship of the mini airplane to the horizon bar.

Normally the mini airplane will be adjusted so that the wings overlap the horizon bar when the airplane is in straight-and-level flying.

59
Q

Gyroscopic Instrument:
TURN COORDINATOR

A

Uses a miniature airplane to provide info concerning rate of roll and rate of turn.

The quality of turn, (movement about the yaw axis), is indicated by the ball of the inclinometer.

60
Q

Gyroscopic Instrument:
HEADING INDICATOR

A

Designed to avoid the errors inherent in a magnetic compass.

The heading indicator must be periodically realigned with the magnetic compass during straight-and-level, in accelerated flight.

61
Q

UNOS

A

Undershoot North, Overshoot South

When turning North from an easterly or westerly heading, the compass lags.

When a turn is initiated while on a northerly heading, the compass first indicated a turn in the opposite direction.

When turning South from easterly or westerly heading, the compass leads.

When a turn is initiated while on a southerly heading, the compass shows an immediate lead in the same direction as the turn.

62
Q

ANDS

A

Accelerate North, Decelerate South

Accelerating while heading either east or west, the compass will indicate a turn to the north.

Decelerating while heading either east or west will indicate a turn to the south.

63
Q

DEVEATION in a magnetic compass is caused by:

A

Magnetic fields within the aircraft distorting lines of magnetic force.

64
Q

MAGNETIC VARIATION

A

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north.

65
Q

During flight, when are the indicators of a magnetic compass accurate?

A

Only in straight-and-level unaccelerated flight.

PPL Ground School (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions