Lesson 15: Explain Risk Management Processes Flashcards

1
Q

Define ‘risk management’

A

Identifying potential issues, assessing their potential impact on the organization, and implementing controls to mitigate them.

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2
Q

What are key concepts of effective risk management?

A

Risk identification, risk assessment, mitigation, and monitoring.

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3
Q

What is the purpose of audits?

A

To provide an independent and objective evaluation of processes, controls, and compliance, ensuring adherence to standards and identifying gaps that pose risks.

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4
Q

What is the purpose of an assessment?

A

To evaluate the effectiveness of risk management strategies, identify potential vulnerabilities, and prioritize mitigation efforts.

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5
Q

What is the importance of audits and assessments?

A

To understand risks, implement controls, and continuously monitor and adapt risk management strategies.

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6
Q

Define ‘risk identification’

A

Process of listing sources of risk due to threats and vulnerabilities.

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7
Q

What are common risk identification methods?

A

Vulnerability assessments, penetration testing, security audits, threat intelligence.

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8
Q

Define a ‘risk assessment’

A

Process of identifying risks, analyzing them, developing a response strategy for them, and mitigating their future impact.

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9
Q

What are the different risk assessment methods?

A

Ad hoc, recurring, one-time, or continuous.

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10
Q

Define ‘risk analysis’ relative to risk assessment

A

The distinct process of identifying and evaluating potential risks and the nature and scope of risks by examining their causes, consequences, and concerns.

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11
Q

Define ‘risk assessment’ relative to risk analysis

A

Risk assessment considers the likelihood of an event occurring and the severity of its consequences by interpreting data collected during risk analysis.

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12
Q

Define ‘Quantitative risk analysis’

A

A numerical method that is used to assess the probability and impact of risk and measure the impact.

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13
Q

Define ‘Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)’

A

The amount that would be lost in a single occurrence of a particular risk factor.

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14
Q

Define an ‘exposure factor (EF)’

A

The percentage of an assets value that would be lost in an event.

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15
Q

How is Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) calculated?

A

By multiplying the value of the asset by the exposure factor (EF).

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16
Q

Define ‘Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE)’

A

The total cost of a risk to an organization on an annual basis.

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17
Q

Define an ‘annualized rate of occurrence (ARO)’

A

The number of times an event could occur in a year in terms of probability/likelihood.

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18
Q

How is Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) calculated?

A

By multiplying the SLE by the annual rate of occurrence (ARO).

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19
Q

Define ‘Qualitative risk analysis’

A

Assess risks based on subjective judgment and logic rather than precise numerical data.

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20
Q

How is qualitative risk analysis performed?

A

Qualitative risk analysis frames risks by considering their causes, consequences, and potential interdependencies.

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21
Q

Define ‘inherent risk’

A

Risk that an event will pose if no controls are put in place to mitigate it; The level of risk before any type of mitigation has been attempted.

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22
Q

Is it possible to eliminate risk?

A

It is not possible to eliminate risk.

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23
Q

What is the ultimate goal of risk management?

A

To mitigate risk factors to the point where the organization is exposed only to a level of risk that it can tolerate.

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24
Q

What term is used to describe an organizations overall status of risk management?

A

Risk/security posture.

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25
Q

Define ‘risk mitigation’

A

Overall process of reducing exposure to or the effects of risk factors.

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26
Q

Define ‘risk deterrence/reduction’

A

The response to risk identification/analysis by deploying security controls to reduce the likelihood and/or impact of a threat scenario.

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27
Q

Define ‘risk avoidance’

A

The practice of ceasing activity that presents risk.

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28
Q

Define ‘risk transference/sharing’

A

Moving or sharing the responsibility of risk to another entity; typically cyber insurance.

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29
Q

Define ‘risk acceptance’

A

Risk tolerance; Determining that a risk is within the organization’s appetite and no countermeasures other than ongoing monitoring is needed.

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30
Q

Define ‘risk exception’

A

Describes a situation where a risk cannot be mitigated using standard risk management practices or within a specified time frame due to financial, technical, or operational conditions.

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31
Q

Define ‘risk exemption’

A

A condition where risk can remain without mitigation, usually due to a strategic business decision.

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32
Q

Define ‘residual risk’

A

Risk that remains even after controls (mitigation/transference/exemption/exception) are put into place.

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33
Q

Define ‘risk appetite’

A

How much risk and what types of risk an organization is willing to take to fulfill its organizational goals and objectives.

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34
Q

In order, list the 5 phases of risk management

A
  1. Identify Mission Essential Functions
  2. Identify Vulnerabilities
  3. Identify Threats
  4. Analyze Business Impacts
  5. Identify Risk Response
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35
Q

What are the two main variables when calculating risk?

A

Likelihood and Impact.

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36
Q

Define ‘risk likelihood’

A

Qualitative analysis used to describe the chance of a risk event happening; Low/Med/High or on some form of a numeric scale.

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37
Q

Define ‘risk impact’

A

The severity of the risk if realized as a security incident.

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38
Q

Define ‘risk probability’

A

Quantitative measure typically expressed as a numerical value to precisely measure the chance of a risk event occurring based on statistical methods.

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39
Q

What are NIST’s Risk Management Framework (RMF) or ISO 31K?

A

They are enterprise risk management (ERM) policies and procedures.

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40
Q

Define a ‘risk register’

A

A document showing the results of risk assessments that includes information regarding risks, their severity, the associated owner of the risk, and all identified mitigation strategies.

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41
Q

Define a ‘risk threshold’

A

Determines risk acceptance; defines the limits or levels of acceptable risk an organization is willing to tolerate.

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42
Q

What are factors that define a risk threshold?

A

Regulatory requirements, organizational objectives, stakeholder expectations, and the organization’s risk appetite.

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43
Q

Define ‘Key Risk Indicators (KRIs)’

A

Metrics that provide an early indication of increasing risk exposures in different areas of the organization.

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44
Q

Define a ‘risk owner’

A

An individual who is accountable for developing and implementing a risk response strategy for a risk documented in a risk register.

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45
Q

Define ‘risk tolerance’

A

The maximum risk the organization is willing to take for a risk.

46
Q

What is the difference between risk tolerance and risk appetite?

A

Risk appetite is what drives the willingness of the company to take risks. Risk tolerance then defines the boundaries and standards for assessing and responding to those risks.

47
Q

What are the 3 levels of risk appetite?

A
  1. Expansionary
  2. Conservative
  3. Neutral
48
Q

Define an expansionary risk appetite

A

Willingness to take on higher levels of risk in the pursuit of high returns or aggressive growth.

49
Q

Define a conservative risk appetite

A

Prioritizes risk avoidance.

50
Q

Define a neutral risk appetite

A

Balances expansionary and conservative approaches and is willing to take on risks if they align with strategic objectives and can be managed effectively.

51
Q

Define ‘risk reporting’

A

A summarized overview of known risks, realized risks, and their impact on the organization.

52
Q

What is the purpose of risk reporting?

A

Supports decision-making, highlights concerns, and ensures stakeholders understand the organization’s risks.

53
Q

When assessing mission critical functions, what is an important component of advancing operatoins?

A

By reducing the number of dependencies between components.

54
Q

How are dependencies between mission critical functions identified?

A

By performing a business process analysis (BPA) for each function.

55
Q

What are the 5 factors to identify when performing a business process analysis (BPA) for a function/process?

A
  1. Inputs
  2. Outputs
  3. Process Flow
  4. Hardware
  5. Staff
56
Q

What are business process inputs?

A

Sources of information for performing the function (including the impact if these are delayed or out of sequence).

57
Q

What are business process outputs?

A

Data or resources produced by the function.

58
Q

What are business process ‘process flows’?

A

A step-by-step description of how the function is performed.

59
Q

What defines business process hardware?

A

Server(s) or data center that performs the processing.

60
Q

How does an organization’s staff impact business processes

A

Needing sufficient staff and resources to support the function.

61
Q

Define ‘Business impact analysis (BIA)’

A

A process that helps businesses understand the potential effects of disruptions on their operations.

62
Q

How is business impact analysis (BIA) performed?

A

Identifying and assessing the impact of various unplanned threat scenarios on the business, such as accidents, emergencies, and disasters.

63
Q

What is the outcome of performing business impact analysis (BIA)?

A

To proactively create recovery strategies to minimize the impact of disruptions and ensure operational resilience.

64
Q

What four metrics help determine mission critical functions?

A
  1. Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)
  2. Recovery time objective (RTO)
  3. Work Recovery Time (WRT)
  4. Recovery point objective (RPO)
65
Q

Define the ‘Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)’ metric

A

The longest period that a process can be inoperable without causing irrevocable business failure; Max amount of recovery time that system and asset owners have to resume operations.

66
Q

What is a typical maximum tolerable downtime (MTD) for a mission critical process?

A

Could be 24hrs or less.

67
Q

Define the ‘Recovery time objective (RTO)’ metric

A

Represents the amount of time it takes to identify that there is a problem and then perform recovery (restore from backup or switch to an alternative system, for instance).

68
Q

Define the ‘Work Recovery Time (WRT)’ metric

A

In disaster recovery, time additional to the RTO of individual systems to perform reintegration and testing of a restored or upgraded system following an event.

69
Q

When considering the Recovery time objective (RTO) and the Work Recovery Time (WRT), what must be kept in mind determining Maximum tolerable downtime (MTD)?

A

RTO+WRT must not exceed MTD.

70
Q

Define the ‘Recovery point objective (RPO)’ metric

A

The amount of data loss that a system can sustain, measured in time.

71
Q

What does determining Recovery point objective (RPO) impact?

A

Impacts the frequency of data backups, data replication requirements, recovery site selection, and technologies that support failover and high availability.

72
Q

How does Recovery point objective (RPO) impact data backups/replication or failover/high availability mechanisms?

A

The RPO can determines backup frequency or replication for applicaitons/services or a recovery sites/high availability based on RPO.

73
Q

Define ‘key performance indicators (KPIs)’

A

Metrics used to measure the reliability and efficiency of systems, processes, and equipment.

74
Q

What are the two key performance indicators (KPIs)?

A
  1. Mean time between failures (MTBF)
  2. Mean time to repair (MTTR)
75
Q

What do key performance indicators (KPIs) help make decisions in?

A

Risk management processes, providing measurable insights into potential risks and supporting risk mitigation strategies.

76
Q

Define ‘Mean time between failures (MTBF)’

A

Represents the expected lifetime of a device/component; Predicts the expected time between failures.

77
Q

How is Mean time between failures (MTBF) calculated?

A

The number of devices/components multiplied by the lifetime of the device before failure, and the sum of that divided by the number of failures; (n*t)/f

78
Q

Define ‘Mean time to repair (MTTR)’

A

Represents the average time taken for a device or component to be repaired, replaced, or otherwise recover from a failure.

79
Q

How is Mean time to repair (MTTR) calculated?

A

The total number of hours of unplanned maintenance divided by the number of failure incidents.

80
Q

What does a low Mean time to repair (MTTR) indicate?

A

Indicates quicker restoration of functionality, reducing downtime and potential disruptions to operations.

81
Q

What is the purpose of calculating Mean time between failures (MTBF)?

A

To identify the average time between system or equipment failures.

82
Q

What does a high Mean time between failures (MTBF) indicate?

A

Suggests greater reliability and longer intervals between failures.

83
Q

What metric(s) could be used to make a quantitative calculation of risk due to a specific threat to a specific function or asset?

A

Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) or Annual Loss Expectancy (ALE).

84
Q

What are the components of ‘3rd party risk assesments’

A

Vendor due diligence, risk identification and assessment, ongoing monitoring, and incident response planning.

85
Q

Define ‘vendor due diligence’

A

Involves evaluating and selecting vendors based on their security practices, financial stability, regulatory compliance, and reputation.

86
Q

Define a ‘right-to-audit clause’

A

A contractual provision that grants an organization the authority to conduct audits or assessments of vendor operational practices, information systems, and security controls.

87
Q

Define a ‘Memorandum of Understanding (MOU)’

A

A preliminary, nonbinding agreement that outlines the intentions, shared goals, and general terms of cooperation between parties.

88
Q

Define a ‘Memorandum of Agreement (MOA)’

A

A formal, legally blinding, agreement that defines the parties’ specific terms, conditions, and responsibilities.

89
Q

Define a ‘Business Partnership Agreement (BPA)’

A

Agreement by two companies to work together closely for governing collaborative and mutually beneficial relationships.

90
Q

Define a ‘Master Service Agreement (MSA)’

A

Outlines the overall terms and conditions of a specific contract.

91
Q

Define a ‘Statement of Work (SOW)/Work Order (WO)’

A

Details a vendor project or engagement’s scope, deliverables, timelines, and responsibilities.

92
Q

Define ‘Rules of Engagement (RoE)’

A

Rules defining what vendors must adhere to.

93
Q

What are important elements of a Rules of Engagement (RoE)?

A

Roles and Responsibilities; Security Requirements; Compliance Obligations; Reporting and Communication; Change Management; Contractual Provisions (liability, insurance, and termination).

94
Q

Define an ‘attestation’

A

Formal declaration that an organization’s security controls and practices comply with specific standards, regulations, or best practices.

95
Q

What is the purpose of an attestation?

A

Provides assurance to stakeholders that an organization’s security measures are adequate.

96
Q

What is the function of internal audits?

A

To enable continuous monitoring, early detection of issues, and timely remediation.

97
Q

What is the function of external audits?

A

To validate the organization’s controls, compliance, and risk mitigation efforts.

98
Q

What are likely procedures in a pen test?

A

Verify a Threat Exists; Bypass Security Controls; Actively Test Security Controls; Exploit Vulnerabilities.

99
Q

Define ‘Active reconnaissance’

A

Penetration testing techniques involving actively probing and interacting with target systems and networks to gather information.

100
Q

What are forms of active reconnaissance?

A

Port scanning; service enumeration; OS fingerprinting; DNS enumeration; Web application crawling.

101
Q

Define ‘Service enumeration’

A

Interacting with identified services to gather information about their versions, configurations, and potential vulnerabilities.

102
Q

Define ‘DNS enumeration’

A

Gathering information about the target’s DNS infrastructure, such as domain names, subdomains, and IP addresses.

103
Q

Define ‘web application crawling’

A

Exploring web applications to identify pages, directories, and potential vulnerabilities.

104
Q

Define ‘passive reconnaissance’

A

Gathering information about target systems and networks without directly interacting with them by focusing on collecting publicly available data and passively observing network traffic.

105
Q

What are forms of passive reconnaissance?

A

Open-Source Intelligence (OSINT) Gathering; Network Traffic Analysis; Social Engineering.

106
Q

Define ‘Open-Source Intelligence (OSINT) Gathering’

A

Collecting publicly available information from various sources like search engines, social media, public databases, and websites.

107
Q

Define ‘Offensive penetration testing/red team’

A

Identify vulnerabilities, weaknesses, and potential attack vectors that malicious actors could exploit.

108
Q

Define ‘Defensive penetration testing/blue team’

A

Evaluates an organization’s defensive security measures, detection capabilities, incident response procedures, and overall resilience against cyber threats.

109
Q

Define ‘Physical penetration testing’

A

Assessments of an organization’s physical security practices and controls by simulating real-world attack scenarios to identify vulnerabilities and weaknesses in physical security systems.

110
Q

What is the point of the string “../../../../../../” used in an injection attack?

A

To use directory traversal to reach the root directory.

111
Q

Injecting a web shell can be accomplished by taking advantage of what discovered vulnerability?

A

File upload.