LEM Glossary Flashcards

1
Q

accredited investor

A

defined in rule 501 of Regulation D

any institution or individual meeting minimum net worth requirements for the purchase of securities qualifying under the Regulation D registration exemption.

an individual accredited investor is generally accepted to be one who, individually or with spouse, has a net worth, including the net equity in the primary residence, of $1 million or more, or has had an annual income of $200,000 or more in each of the two most recent years (or $300,000 jointly with a spouse), and who has a reasonable expectation of reaching the same level of income in the current year

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2
Q

accumulation stage

A

the period during which contributions are made to an annuity account.`

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3
Q

accumulation unit

A

an accounting measure used to determine an annuitant’s proportionate interest in the insurer’s separate account during an annuity’s accumulation (deposit) stage.

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4
Q

acid test

A

acid test ratio; asset ratio

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5
Q

active management style

A

unlike the passive cycle, analysts believe they can identify industries that are undervalued or overvalued in order to weight them appropriately and achieve returns in excess of the market.

some managers engage in sector rotation, which is overweighting or underweighting industries based on the current phase of the business cycle

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6
Q

adjusted basis

A

the value contributed to an asset or security that reflects any deductions taken on, or capital improvements to, the asset or security.

adjusted basis is used to compute the gain or loss on the sale or other disposition of the asset or security.

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7
Q

adjusted gross income (AGI)

A

gross income from all sources minus certain adjustments to income, such as deductible contributions to an IRA and net capital losses.

it is basically the amount of income that will be subject to tax.

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8
Q

administrator

A

an official or agency that administers state’s securities laws.

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9
Q

adoption

A

a social media term meaning that a securities firm links to a third-party site and indicates that it endorses the content on that site.

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10
Q

advertisement

A

any notice, circular, letter, or other written communication addressed to more than one person, or any notice or other announcement in any publication, or by radio or television, that offers (1) any analysis, report, or publication concerning securities, or that is to be used in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security, or which security to buy or sell; or (2) any graph, chart, formula, or other device to be used in making any determination as to when to buy or sell any security, or which security to buy or sell; or (3) any other investment advisory service with regard to securities

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11
Q

agency cross transaction

A

for an advisory client, a transaction in which a person acts as an investment adviser in relation to a transaction in which that investment adviser, or any person controlling, controlled by, or under common control with that investment adviser, acts as a broker for both an advisory client and for another person on the other side of the transaction.

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12
Q

agency issue

A

a debt security issued by an authorized agency of the federal government. such an issue is backed by the issuing agency itself, not by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government (except GNMA issues).

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13
Q

agency transaction

A

a transaction in which a broker-dealer acts for the accounts of others by buying or selling securities on behalf of customers.

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14
Q

agent

A

(1) an individual who effects securities transactions for the accounts of others
(2) under state securities laws, a securities salesperson who represents a broker-dealer or an issuer when selling or trying to sell securities to the investing public; this individual is considered an agent whether he actually receives or solicits orders.

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15
Q

back-end load

A

a commission or sales fee that is charged when mutual fund shares or variable annuity contracts are redeemed. It declines annually, decreasing to zero over an extended holding period–up to eight years– as described in the prospectus.

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16
Q

balanced fund

A

a mutual fund whose stated investment policy is to have at all times some portion of its investment assets in bonds and preferred stock, as well as in common stock, in an attempt to provide both growth and income.

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17
Q

balanced investment strategy

A

a method of portfolio allocation and management aimed at balancing risk and return. a balanced portfolio may combine stocks, bonds, packaged products such as investment companies, DPPs, or REITs and cash equivalents.

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18
Q

balance of payments

A

an international accounting record of all transactions made by one particular country with others during a certain period; it compares the amount of foreign currency the country has taken in with the amount of its own currency it has paid out.

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19
Q

balance of trade

A

the largest component of a country’s balance of payments; it concerns the export and import of merchandise (not services). debit items include imports, foreign aid, domestic spending abroad. credit items include exports, foreign spending in the domestic economy, and foreign investments in the domestic economy.

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20
Q

balance sheet

A

a report of a corporation’s financial condition at a specific time

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21
Q

balance sheet equation

A

a formula stating that a corporation’s assets equal the sum of its liabilities plus shareholder’s equity

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22
Q

bank holding company

A

a holding company whose primary asset is a commercial bank.

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23
Q

aggressive investment strategy

A

a method of portfolio allocation and management aimed at achieving maximum return. aggressive investors place a high percentage of their investable assets in equity securities and a far lower percentage in safer debt securities and cash equivalents, and they pursue aggressive policies including margin trading, arbitrage, and option trading.

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24
Q

AGI

A

adjusted gross income

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25
Q

algorithmic trading

A

computerized trading using proprietary algorithms. there are two types of algorithmic trading

it is estimated that more than 50% of stock trading volume in the US is currently being driven by algorithmic trading

(1) execution trading
(2) high frequency trading

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26
Q

execution trading

A

when an order (often a large order) is executed via an algorithmic trade.

the program is designed to get the best possible price. it may split the order into smaller pieces and execute at different times

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27
Q

high-frequency trading

A

looking for small trading opportunities in the market.

it is estimated that more than 50% of stock trading volume in the US is currently being driven by algorithmic trading

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28
Q

all or none order (AON)

A

an order that instructs the floor broker to execute the entire order in one transaction; if the order cannot be executed in its entirety, it is allowed to expire

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29
Q

alpha

A

the risk-adjusted returns that a portfolio manager generates in excess of the risk-adjusted returns expected by the capital asset pricing model (CAPM).

suppose an index return is 10%; the risk-free rate is 3%, the portfolio beta is 1.5, and the actual return is 25%.

according to the CAPM, the portfolio should expect to return 1.5 times the index after netting out the risk-free rate. this is because the portfolio is 1.5x riskier than the market.

if we take the index return after subtracting the 3% has risk-free rate, we get 7%. multiple that times 1.5 and the measured portfolio should have returned 10.5% for taking extra risk. it actually returned 22% over the risk-free rate giving us an alpha 11.5.

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30
Q

alternative minimum tax (AMT)

A

an alternative tax computation that adds certain tax preference items back intro adjusted gross income. if the AMT is higher than the regular tax and the amount by which the AMT exceeds the regular tax are paid.

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31
Q

American depositoty receipt (ADR)

A

a negotiable certificate representing a given number of shares in a foreign corporation. it is issued by a domestic bank. ADRs are bought and sold in the American securities markets, and are traded in English and U.S. dollars

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32
Q

anti-dilutive covenant

A

a protective clause found in most convertible issues (preferred stock or debentures) that adjusts the conversion rate for stock splits and/or stock dividends. this ensures that the holder of the convertible will not suffer a dilution in value.

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33
Q

appreciation

A

the increase in an asset’s value.

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34
Q

arbitrage

A

a legal strategy that generates a guaranteed profit from transaction. a common form of the same security in different markets at different prices to lock in a profit.

this is not considered market manipulation.

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35
Q

arithmetic mean

A

the average of a set of numbers, such as annual returns on investment.

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36
Q

ask

A

an indication by a trader or a dealer of willingness to sell a security or a commodity; the price at which an investor can buy from a broker-dealer;

offer; bid; public offering price; quotation

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37
Q

assessable stock

A

a stock that is issued below its par or stated value. the issuer and/or creditors have the right to assess the shareholder for the deficiency. all stock issues today is nonassesable.

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38
Q

asset

A

(1) anything that an individual or a corporation owns

(2) a balance sheet item expressing what a corporation owns

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39
Q

asset class allocation

A

dividing an investment portfolio among different asset categories, such as stocks, bonds, cash, and tangible assets such as real estate, and precious metals and commodities; asset allocation

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40
Q

auction market

A

a market in which buyers enter competitive bids and sellers enter competitive offers simultaneously. the NYSE is an auction market; double action market

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41
Q

audited financial statement

A

a financial statement of a program, a corporation, or an issuer (including the profit and loss statement, cash flow, and source and application of revenues statement, and balance sheet) that has been examined and verified by an independent certified public accountant.

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42
Q

average basis

A

an accounting method used when an investor has made multiple purchases at different prices of the same security; the method averages the purchase prices to calculate an investor’s cost basis in shares being liquidated.

the difference between the average cost basis and the selling price determined the investor’s tax liability.

first in, first out; last in, first out

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43
Q

basis

A

another term for yield to maturity (e.g., this bond is selling at a 5.78 basis)

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44
Q

basis point

A

a measure of a bond’s yield, equal to 1/100 of 1% of yield.

a bond whose yield increases form 5.00% to 5.50% is said to increase by 50 basis points.

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45
Q

bear

A

an investor who acts on the belief that a security or the market is falling or will fall.

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46
Q

bear market

A

a market in which prices of a certain group of securities are falling on or are expected to fall.

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47
Q

benchmark portfolio

A

a model portfolio of a larger number of assets, such as the S&P 500, against which the performance of a fund or portfolio is measured.

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48
Q

beta

A

a means of measuring the co-movement of the return of security or a portfolio of securities to the return on the overall market.

a beta of 1 indicates that the security’s returns will be expected to move in tandem with the market.

a beta greater than 1 indicates that the security’s returns will be expected to succeed those of the market.

a beta less than 1 means returns will be expected to be lower than those of the markert.

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49
Q

bid

A

an indication by an investor, a trader, or a dealer of a willingness to buy a security; the price at which at which an investor can sell to a broker- dealer;

public offering price; quotation

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50
Q

Black-Scholes

A

one of the most popular options pricing models. appears frequently on the exam as an incorrect choice.

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51
Q

block trade

A

a large trading order, defined as an order that consists of 10,000 or more of shares of a given stock or at a total market value of $200,000 or more; block sale

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52
Q

blue-sky laws

A

the nickname for state regulations governing the securities industry. the term was coined in 1911 by a Kansas Supreme Court justice who wanted regulation to protect against “speculative schemes that have no more basis than so many feet of blue sky.”

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53
Q

board of directors

A

individuals elected by stockholders to establish corporate management policies. a board of directors decides, among other issues, if and when dividends will be paid to stockholders.

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54
Q

bona fide

A

from the latin “good faith”

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55
Q

call

A

(1) an option contract giving the owner the right to buy a specified amount of an underlying security at a specified price within a specified time.
(2) the act of exercising a call option.

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56
Q

callable bond

A

a type of bond issued with a provision allowing the issuer to redeem the bond before maturity at a predetermined price.

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57
Q

callable preferred stock

A

a type of preferred stock issued with a provision allowing the corporation to call in the stock at a certain price and retire it;

call price; preferred stock

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58
Q

call buyer

A

an investor who pays a premium for an option contract and receives, for a specified time, the right to buy an underlying security at a specified price;

call writer; put

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59
Q

call date

A

the date, specified in the prospectus of every callable security, after which the security’s issuer has the option to redeem the issue at par or at par plus a premium

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60
Q

call feature; call provision

A

the written agreement between an issuer an its bondholders or preferred stockholders giving the issuer the option to redeem its senior securities at a specified price before maturity and under certain conditions.

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61
Q

call protection

A

a provision in a bond indenture stating that the issue is noncallable for a certain period (e.g., 5 years or 10 years) after the original issue date; call provision

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62
Q

call risk

A

the potential for a bond to be called before maturity, leaving the investor without the bond’s current income. because this is more likely to occur during times of falling interest rates, the investor may not be able to reinvest his principal at a comparable rate of return.

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63
Q

call writer

A

an investor who receives a premium and takes on, for a specified time, the obligation to sell the underlying security at a specified price at the call buyer’s discretion.

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64
Q

capital appreciation

A

an increase in an asset’s market price

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65
Q

capital asset

A

all tangible property, including securities, real estate, and other property, held for the long term.

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66
Q

capital asset pricing model (CAPM)

A

a securities market investment theory that attempts to derive the expected return on an asset on the basis of the asset’s systematic risk.

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67
Q

capital gain

A

the profit realized when a capital asset is sold for a higher price than the purchase price.

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68
Q

capitalization

A

the sum of a corporation’s long-term debt, stock, and surpluses.

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69
Q

capitalization ratio

A

a measure of an issuer’s financial status that calculates the value of its bonds, preferred stock, or common stock as a percentage of its total capitalization.

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70
Q

capital loss

A

the loss incurred when a capital asset is sold for a price lower than the purchase price.

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71
Q

capital market

A

the segment of the securities market that deals in instruments with more than one year to maturity– that is, long-term debt and equity securities. in contrast, the money market is the raising of short-term capital such as Treasury bills and commercial paper.

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72
Q

capital stock

A

all of a corporation’s outstanding preferred stock and common stock, listed at par value.

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73
Q

capital structure

A

the composition of long-term funds (equity and debt) a corporation has a source for financing.

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74
Q

capital surplus

A

the money a corporation receives in excess of the status value of stock at the time of the first sale.

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75
Q

capping

A

an illegal form of market manipulation that attempts to keep the price of a subject security from rising. it is used by those with a short position.

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76
Q

cash account

A

an account in which the customer is required by the SEC’s Regulation T to pay in full for securities not purchased not later than two days after the standard period set by industry practice codes;

special cash account

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77
Q

cash dividend

A

money paid to a corporation’s stockholders out of the corporation’s current earnings or accumulated profits. the board of directors must declare all dividends.

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78
Q

cash equivalent

A

a security that can be readily converted into cash

ex. Treasury bills, certificates of deposit, and money market instruments and funds.

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79
Q

cash flow

A

the money received by a business minus the money paid out. cash flow is also equal to net income plus depreciation or depletion.

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80
Q

CBOE

A

Chicago Board Options Echange

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81
Q

CD

A

negotiable certificate of deposit

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82
Q

cease and desist order

A

used by the Administrator when it appears that a registered person has or is about to commit a violation. may be issued with or without a prior hearing.

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83
Q

certificate of deposit (CD)

A

a traditional CD pays a fixed interest rate over a specific period of time. when that term ends, you can withdraw your money or roll it into another CD. these are insured up to $250,000 by the FDIC and are considered the best method of preservation of captial.

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84
Q

chartist

A

a securities analyst who uses charts and graphs of the past price movements of a security to predict its future movements;

technician; technical analysis

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85
Q

Chicago Board Options Exchange (CBOE)

A

the self-regulatory organization (SRO) with jurisdiction over all writing and trading of standardized options and related contracts listed on that exchange. also, the first national securities exchange for the trading of listed options.

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86
Q

Chicago Stock Exchange

A

registered stock exchange located in Chicago’s downtown “loop”; CHX

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87
Q

Chinese Wall

A

a descriptive name for the division within a brokerage firm that prevents insider information from passing from corporate advisers to investment traders, who could make use of the information to reap illicit profits;

information barriers

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88
Q

churning

A

excessive trading in a customer’s account by an agent who ignores the customer’s interests and seeks only to increase commissions; violates NASAA’s policies on unethical business practices.

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89
Q

Class A share

A

a class of mutual fund shares issued with a front-end sales load. a mutual fund offers the type of sales charge they will pay;

front-end load

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90
Q

Class B share

A

a class of mutual fund share issued with a back-end load. a mutual fund offers the type of sales charge they will pay;

back-end load

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91
Q

Class C share

A

a class of mutual fund share issued with a level load. a mutual fund offers the type of sales charge they will pay.

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92
Q

closed-end investment company

A

an investment company that issues a fixed number of shares in an actively managed portfolio of securities. the shares may be of several classes; they are traded in the secondary marketplace, either on a stock exchange or over the counter. the market price of the shares is determined by supply and demand and not by net asset value;

publicly traded fund; closed-end management compnay

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93
Q

closing purchase

A

an options transaction in which the seller buys back an option in the same series; the two transactions effectively cancel each other our and the position is liquidated

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94
Q

coincident indicator

A

a measurable economic factor that varies directly and simultaneously with the business cycle, thus indicating the current state of the economy;

examples: nonagricultural employment, personal income, and industrial production

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95
Q

collateral

A

certain assets set aside and pledged to a lender for the duration of a loan. if the borrower fails to meet obligations to pay principal or interest, the lender has claim to the assets

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96
Q

collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO)

A

a mortgage-backed corporate security. these issues attempt to return interest and principal at a predetermined rate

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97
Q

collateral trust bond

A

a secured bond backed by stocks or bonds of another issuer. the collateral is held by a trustee for safekeeping;

collateral trust certificate

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98
Q

combination privilege

A

a benefit offered by a mutual fund whereby the investor may qualify for a sales charge breakpoint by combining separate investments in two or more mutual funds under the same management.

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99
Q

commercial paper

A

an unsecured, short-term promissory note issued by a corporation or financing accounts receivable and inventories. it is usually issued at a discount reflecting prevailing market interest rates. maturities range up to nine months.

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100
Q

commingling

A

the combining by a brokerage firm of one customer’s securities with another customer’s securities and pledging them as joint collateral for a bank loan; unless authorized by the customers, this violates SEC Rule 15c2-1.

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101
Q

commission

A

a service charge an agent assess in return for arranging a security’s purchase or sale. a commission must be fair and reasonable, consider all the relevant factors of the transaction;

sales charge

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102
Q

common stock

A

a security that represents ownership in a corporation. holders of common stock exercise control by electing a board of directors and voting on corporate policy

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103
Q

complex trust

A

a trust that accumulates income over time and is not required to make scheduled distributions to its beneficiaries.

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104
Q

conduit theory

A

a means for an investment company to avoid taxation on net investment income distributed to shareholders. if a mutual fund acts as a conduit for the distribution of net investment income, it may qualify as a regulated investment company and be taxed only on the income and fund retains;

pipeline theory

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105
Q

confirmation

A

a printed document that states the trade date, settlement date, and money due from or owed to a customer; it is sent or given to the customer on or before the settlement date

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106
Q

constant dollar plan

A

a formula method of investing that attempts to maintain a fixed dollar, rather than ratio, amount in a specific asset class. periodically, the account is reviewed and the specified asset class is either sold or purchased in order to get the fixed dollar level

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107
Q

constant ratio plan

A

a formula method of investing that contemplates maintaining a fixed ratio, rather than dollar amount, between specific asset classes in the portfolio. periodically, the account is reviewed and the specified asset class is either sold or purchased in order to get to the fixed ratio level.

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108
Q

Consumer Price Index (CPI)

A

a measure of price changes in a “market basket” of consumer goods and services used to identify periods of inflation and deflation.

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109
Q

consumption

A

a term used by economists to refer to the purchase by household units of newly produced goods and services.

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110
Q

contraction

A

a period of general economic decline, of the business cycle’s four stages.

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111
Q

contributory plan

A

a retirement plan to which both the employee and the employer make contributions

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112
Q

control person

A

(1) a director or an officer of an issuer.
(2) a stockholder who owns more than 10% of any class of a corporation’s outstanding securities.
(3) spouse or other immediate family of any of the previous. under the Investment Company Act of 1940, a control person owns more than 25% of the voting securities and, under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, it is 25% or more.

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113
Q

control security

A

any security owned by a director or an officer of the issuer or by a stockholder who owns more than 10% of an class of a corporation’s outstanding securities. who owns a security, not the security itself, determines whether it is a control security.

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114
Q

conversion parity

A

two securities, one of which can be converted into the other, of equal dollar value. a convertible security holder can calculate parity to help decide whether converting would lead to gain or loss.

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115
Q

conversion price

A

the dollar amount of a convertible security’s par value that is exchangeable for one share of common stock.

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116
Q

conversion privilege

A

a feature the issuer adds to a security that allows the holder to change the security into shares of common stock. this makes the security attractive to investors and, therefore, more marketable.

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117
Q

conversion ratio

A

the number of shares of common stock per par value amount that the holder would receive for converting a convertible bond or preferred share;

conversion rate

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118
Q

convertible bond

A

a debt security, usually in the form of a debenture, that can be exchanged for equity securities of the issuing corporation at specified prices or rates.

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119
Q

convertible preferred stock

A

an equity security that can be exchanged for common stock at specified prices or rates. dividends may be cumulative or noncumulative.

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120
Q

convexity

A

the most accurate way of indicating a debt security’s sensitivity to changes in interest rates.

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121
Q

cooling-off period

A

the period (a minimum of 20 days) between a registration statement’s filing date with the SEC and the registration’s effective date. in practice, the period varies in length.

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122
Q

corporate account

A

an account held in a corporation’s name. the corporate agreement, signed when the account is opened, specifies which officers are authorized to trade in the account. in addition to standard margin account documents, a corporation must provide a copy of its charter and bylaws authorizing a margin account.

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123
Q

corporate bond

A

a debt security issued by a corporation. a corporate bond typically has a par value of $1,000, its interest is taxable, and it has a term maturity

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124
Q

corporation

A

the most common form of business organization, in which the organization’s total worth is divided into shares of stock, each share representing a unit of ownership. a corporation is characterized by a continuous life span and its owners’ limited liability.

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125
Q

correlation

A

the extent to which two or more securities or portfolios move together. the correlation coefficient is a number that ranges from -1 to +1. a perfect correlation would have a coefficient of +1, whereas two securities that move in total opposite would have a -1. a coefficient of 0 would reflect a totally random correlation between the two securities.

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126
Q

cost basis

A

the price paid for an asset, including any commissions or fees, used to calculate capital gains or losses when the asset is sold.

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127
Q

covered call writer

A

an investor who sells a call option while owning the underlying security or some other asset that guarantees the ability to deliver if the call is exercised.

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128
Q

credit risk

A

the degree of probability that the issuer of a debt security will default the payment of either principal or interest. securities issued by the U.S. government are considered to have virtually no credit risk.

note: credit risk only refers to debt securities – common stock has no credit risk because there is no debt obligation to the owner;

default risk; financial risk

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129
Q

credit spread

A

(1) a position established when the premium received for the option sold exceeds the premium paid for the option bought; debt spread
(2) the difference in yields between two securities; yield spread

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130
Q

cumulative preferred stock

A

an equity that offers the holder any unpaid dividends in arrears. these dividends accumulate and must be paid to the cumulative preferred stockholder before any dividends can be paid to the common stockholders.

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131
Q

current assets

A

cash and other assets that are expected to be converted into cash within the next 12 months.

examples: liquid items (cash and equivalents), accounts receivable, inventory, prepaid expenses

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132
Q

current liabilities

A

a corporation’s debt obligations due for payment within the next 12 months.

examples: accounts payable, accrued wages payable, current long-term debt

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133
Q

current market value (CMV)

A

the worth of the securities in an account. the market value of listed securities is based on the closing prices on the previous business day;

long market value

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134
Q

current ratio

A

a measure of a corporation’s liquidity; that is, its ability to transfer assets into cash to meet current short-term obligations. it is calculated by dividing total current assets by total current liabilities;

working capital ratio

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135
Q

current yield

A

the annual rate of return on a security, calculated by dividing the interest or dividends paid by the security’s current market price.

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136
Q

custodial account

A

an account in which a custodian enters trades on behalf of the beneficial owner, often a minor.

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137
Q

custodian

A

an institution or person responsible for making all investment, management, and distribution decisions in an account maintained in the best interests of another. mutual funds have custodian banks responsible for safeguarding certificates and performing clerical duties.

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138
Q

custody

A

maintaining physical possession of a customer’s assets. state-registered investment advisers must notify the Administrator if they intend to take custody, assuming the state law permits such.

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139
Q

customer

A

any person who opens a trading account with a broker-dealer. a customer may be classified in terms of account ownership, trading authorization, payment method, or types of securities traded.

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140
Q

customer statement

A

a document showing a customer’s trading activity, positions, and account balance. the SEC requires that customer statements be sent quarterly, but customers generally receive them monthly.

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141
Q

cyclical industry

A

a fundamental analysis term for an industry that is sensitive to the business cycle and price changes. most cyclical industries produce durable goods, raw materials, and heavy equipment.

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142
Q

dark pool

A

this term refers to an alternative trading system (ATS) where a supply of shares exists that is not displayed for all to see. dark pools are akin to members-only trading platforms for those desiring to execute larger trades without their interest being made known through an open book. a dark pool provides anonymity to investors and sensitivity of share prices to movement when any sizable demand appears.

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143
Q

day order

A

an order that is valid only until the close of trading on the day it is entered; if it is not executed by the close of trading, it is canceled.

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144
Q

dealer

A

(1) an individual or a firm engaged in the business of buying and selling securities for its own account, either directly or through a broker.
(2) the role of a firm when it acts as a principal and charged the customer a markup or markdown;

principal

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145
Q

debenture

A

a debt obligation backed by the issuing corporation’s general credit;

unsecured bond

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146
Q

debit spread

A

a position established when the premium paid for the option bought exceeds the premium received for the option sold.

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147
Q

debt security

A

a security representing an investor’s loan to an issuer, such as a corporation, a municipality, the federal government, or a federal agency. in return for the loan, the issuer promises to repay the debt on a specified date and to pay interest.

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148
Q

debt-to-equity ratio

A

the ratio of total long-term debt to total stockholders’ equity; it is used to measure leverage

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149
Q

decumulation

A

disposal of something accumulated. investors spend much of their working years accumulating for retirement; taking the funds out is decumulation.

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150
Q

default

A

the failure to pay interest or principal promptly when due.

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151
Q

defensive industry

A

a fundamental analysis term for an industry that is relatively unaffected by the business cycle. most defensive industries produce nondurable goods for which demand remains steady throughout the business cycle;

examples: food industry and utilities

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152
Q

defensive investment strategy

A

a method of portfolio allocation and management aimed at minimizing risk of losing principal. defensive investors place a high percentage of their investable assets in bonds, cash equivalents, and stocks that are less volatile than average.

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153
Q

deferred annuity

A

an annuity contract that delays payment of income, installments, or a lump sum until the investor elects to receive it.

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154
Q

deferred compensation plan

A

a non-qualified retirement plan whereby the employee defers receiving current compensation in favor of a larger payout at retirement (or in the case of disability or death).

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155
Q

deficiency letter

A

the SEC’s notification of additions or corrections that a prospective issuer must make to a registration statement before the SEC will clear the offering for distribution.

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156
Q

defined benefit plan

A

a qualified retirement plan that specifies the total amount of money that the employee will receive at retirement.

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157
Q

defined contribution plan

A

a qualified retirement plan that specifies the amount of money that the employer will contribute annually to the plan.

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158
Q

deflation

A

a persistent and measurable fall in the general level of prices.

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159
Q

delta

A

one of the four Greeks used by option analysts. an option’s delta is the rate of change of the price of the option with respect to its underlying security’s price. the delta of an option ranges in value from 0 to 1 for calls (0 to -1 for puts) and reflects the increase or decrease in the price of the option in response to a 1 point movement of the underlying asset price.

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160
Q

demand

A

a consumer’s desire and willingness to pay for a good or service.

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161
Q

demand deposit

A

(DDA) refers to a type of account held at banks and financial institutions that may be withdrawn at any time by the consumer. the majority of such demand deposit accounts are checking accounts, although many now include savings accounts in the definition as well.

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162
Q

demutualization

A

demutualization is the process through which a member-owned company becomes shareholder-owned. historically, this has usually been done by mutual life insurance companies (think MetLife or Prudential), but, in recent years has been done by other member-owned entities such as the New York Stock Exchange (NYSE).

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163
Q

depreciation

A

(1) a tax deduction that compensates a business for the cost of certain tangible assets.
(2) a decrease in the value of a particular currency relative to other currencies.

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164
Q

depreciation expense

A

a bookkeeping entry of a noncash expense charged against earnings to recover the cost of an asset over its useful life.

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165
Q

depression

A

a prolonged period of general economic decline.

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166
Q

derivative

A

an investment vehicle, the value of which is based on another security’s value. futures contracts, forward contracts, and options are among the most common types. institutional investors generally use derivatives to increase overall portfolio return or to hedge portfolio risk.

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167
Q

dilution

A

a reduction in earnings per share of common stock. dilution occurs through the issuance of additional shares of common stock and the conversion of convertible securities.

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168
Q

directed brokerage

A

the ability of an investment adviser or a client to determine broker-dealers to be used in the execution of transactions in their advisory accounts.

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169
Q

direct participation program (DPP)

A

a business organized so as to pass all income, gains, losses, and tax benefits to its owners, the investors; the business is usually structured as a limited partnership.

examples: oil and gas programs, real estate programs, agricultural programs, cattle programs, condominium securities, and S corporation offerings.

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170
Q

discount

A

the difference between the lower price paid for a security and the security’s face amount at issue.

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171
Q

discount bond

A

a bond that sells at a lower price than its face value.

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172
Q

discount rate

A

the interest rate charged by the 12 Federal Reserve Banks for short-term loans made to member banks.

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173
Q

discounted cash flow

A

(DCF) is a model or method of valuation in which future cash flows are discounted back to a present value using the time-value of money. an investment’s worth is equal to the present value of all projected future cash flows.

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174
Q

discretion

A

the authority given to someone other than an account’s beneficial owner to make investment decisions for the account concerning the security, the number of shares or units, and whether to buy or sell. the authority to decide only timing or price does not constitute discretion.

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175
Q

discretionary account

A

an account in which the customer has given the agent authority to enter transactions at the representative’s discretion.

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176
Q

disgorge(ment)

A

in legal usage, the forced giving up of profits made through illegal activity, most commonly insider trading.

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177
Q

disposable income (DI)

A

the sum that people divide between spending and personal savings.

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178
Q

distributable net income (DNI)

A

taxable income from a trust that determines the amount of income that may be taxable to beneficiaries.

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179
Q

diversification

A

a risk management technique that mixes a wide variety of investments within a portfolio, thus minimizing the impact of any one security on overall portfolio performance.

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180
Q

diversified common stock fund

A

a mutual fund that invests its assets in a wide range of common stocks. the fund’s objectives may be growth, income, or a combination of both.

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181
Q

dividend

A

a distribution of a corporation’s earnings. dividends may be in the form of cash, stock, or property. the board of directors must declare all dividends.

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182
Q

dividend discount model

A

(DDM) the simplest model for valuing equity is the dividend discount model – the value of a stock is the present value of expected dividends on it.

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183
Q

dividend exclusion rule

A

an IRS provision that permits a corporation to exclude from its taxable income 70% of dividends received from domestic preferred and common stocks. the Tax Reform Act of 1986 repealed the dividend exclusion for individual investors.

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184
Q

dividend growth model

A

a valuation method which takes into consideration dividend per share and its expected growth. the model assumes that dividends grow at the same rate forever. therefore, it is most commonly used to value companies belonging to for mature and stable industries, having steady dividend growth. it will show a higher valuation than the DDM.

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185
Q

dividend payout ratio

A

a measure of a corporation’s policy of paying cash dividends, calculated by dividing the dividends paid on common stock by the net income available for common stockholders. the ratio is the complement of the retained earnings ratio.

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186
Q

dividends per share

A

the dollar amount of cash dividends paid on each common share during one year.

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187
Q

dividend reinvestment plan

A

frequently referred to as a DRIP, the plan allows shareholders the option of having cash dividends automatically reinvested in shares of the issuer’s stock, frequently at a discounted price and/or without commissions. in most plans, additional investments are permitted.

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188
Q

dividend yield

A

the annual rate of return on a common or preferred stock investment. the yield is calculated by dividing the annual dividend by the stock’s purchase price.

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189
Q

Dodd-Frank Bill

A

the general term by which the Wall Street Reform and Consumer Protection Act of 2010 is known. considered to be the most significant legislation impacting the securities industry since the 1930s.

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190
Q

dollar cost averaging

A

a system of buying mutual fund shares in fixed dollar amounts at regular fixed intervals, regardless of the share’s price. the investor purchases more shares when prices are low and fewer shares when prices are high, thus lowering the average cost per share over time.

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191
Q

donor

A

a person who makes a gift of money or securities to another. once the gift is donated, the donor gives up all rights to it. Gifts of securities to minors under the Uniform Gift to Minors Act provide tax advantages to the donor.

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192
Q

Dow Jones avergaes

A

the most widely quotes and oldest measures of change in stock prices. each of the four averages is based on the prices of a limited number of stocks in a particular category.

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193
Q

Dow Jones Composite Average (DJCA)

A

a market indicator composed of the 65 stocks that make up the Dow Jones Industrial, Transportation, and Utilities Averages.

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194
Q

Dow Jones Industrial Average (DJIA)

A

The most widely used market indicator, composed of 30 large, actively traded issues of industrial stocks.

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195
Q

Dow Jones Transportation Average (DJTA)

A

a market indicator composed of 20 transportation stocks.

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196
Q

Dow Jones Utilities Average (DJUA)

A

a market indicator composed of 15 utilities stocks.

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197
Q

DRIP

A

dividend reinvestment plan

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198
Q

durable power of attorney

A

a document giving either full or limited authority to a third party that survives the mental or physical incompetence (but not death) of the grantor.

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199
Q

duration

A

an approximate measure of a bond’s price sensitivity to changes in interest rates. can be used to compare bonds with different issue and maturity dates, coupon rates, and yields to maturity. the duration of a bond is expressed as a number of years from its purchase date.

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200
Q

EAFE

A

the EAFE index is designed to represent the performance of large and mid-cap securities across 21 developed markets, including countries in Europe, Austalasia, and Far East, but not the U.S. or Canada.

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201
Q

earned income

A

income derived from active participation in a trade or business, including wages, salary, tips commissions, and bonuses. also included is alimony received. one must have earned income in order to make contributions to an IRA.

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202
Q

earnings momentum

A

a term used to describe that earnings are growing at an increasing rate. that is, if they grew at a rate of 10% in the first quarter, 11% in the second quarter, and 14% in the most recent quarter, this shows earnings increasing at an accelerating rate. that is positive earnings momentum. used by those following a growth style of portfolio management.

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203
Q

earnings multiplier

A

another term for the price-to-earning (PE) ratio. the earnings multiplier is the price of the stock divided by its earnings per share.

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204
Q

earnings per share (EPS)

A

a corporation’s net income available for common stock divided by its number of shares of common stock outstanding.

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205
Q

economically targeted investing (ETI)

A

a form of impact investing in investments selected for the economic benefits they create apart from their investment return to the employee benefit plan.

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206
Q

effective date

A

the date the registration of an issue of securities becomes effective, allowing the underwriters to sell the newly issued securities to the public and confirm sales to investors who have given indications of interest.

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207
Q

effective tax rate

A

the overall rate paid on a taxpayer’s total taxable income. it will always be less than the margin tax rate.

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208
Q

efficient market theory

A

a theory based on the premise that the stock market processes information efficiently. the theory postulates that, as new information becomes known, it is reflected immediately in the price of a stock and therefore stock prices represent fair prices.

there are three forms of this theory: weak, semistrong, and strong;

efficient market hypothesis

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209
Q

employee stock options

A

a form of employee compensation where the employing corporation makes available the opportunity for employees to acquire the issuer’s stock.

there are two forms: nonqualified (NSOs) and incentive (ISOs)

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210
Q

enjoined

A

this term includes being subject to a mandatory injunction, prohibitory injunction, preliminary injunction, or a temporary restraining order issued by a court of competent jurisdiction.

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211
Q

entangled

A

a social media term meaning that a securities firm has participated in the development of content on a third-party site to which it publishes links.

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212
Q

environmental, social, and governance (ESG)

A

a form of impact investing. it is a set of standards for a company’s operations that socially conscious investors use to screen investments.

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213
Q

equity

A

common and preferred stockholders’ ownership interests in a corporation.

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214
Q

equity financing

A

raising money for working capital or for capital expenditures by selling common or preferred stock to individual or institutional investors. in return for the money paid, the investors receive ownership interests in the corporation.

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215
Q

equity security

A

a security representing ownership in a corporation or another enterprise.
examples: common and preferred stock, interests in a limited partnership or joint venture; securities that carry the right to be traded for equity securities, such as convertible bonds, rights, and warrants; and put and call options on equity securities.

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216
Q

eurobond

A

a long-term debt instrument of a government or corporation that is denominated in the currency of the issuer’s country but is issued and sold in a different country.

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217
Q

Eurodollar

A

U.S. currency held in banks outside the United States

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218
Q

exchange-listed security

A

a security that has met certain requirements an dhas been admitted to full trading privileges on a stock exchange. the NYSE and regional exchanges set listing requirements for volume of shares outstanding, corporate earnings, and other characteristics.

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219
Q

exchange privilege

A

a feature offered by a mutual fund allowing an individual to transfer an investment in one fund to another fund under the same sponsor without incurring an additional sales charge;

conversion privilege

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220
Q

exchange traded fund (ETF)

A

an investment company originally designed to track a specific index that is traded on a stock exchange. rather than basing the price on NAV, the ETF’s market price is constantly changing as does the price of any other listed stock. ETFs may be purchased on margin and sold short. although most ETFs still track indexes, there are a number of ETFs that are actively managed.

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221
Q

executor, (f. executrix)

A

a person given fiduciary authorization to manage the affairs of a decedent’s estate. an executor’s authority is established by the decedent’s last will.

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222
Q

exempt reporting adviser

A

ERAs are advisers that are exempt from registration relying on either the venture capital fund adviser or the private fund adviser exemption. although exempt from registration, an ERA is subject to certain reporting, recordkeeping, and other obligations.

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223
Q

exempt security

A

a security exempt from the registration requirements (although not from the antifraud requirements) of the Securities Act of 1933 or the Uniform Securities Act

examples: U.S. government securities and municipal securities

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224
Q

exempt transaction

A

a transaction that does not trigger a state’s registration and advertising requirements under the USA.

examples: nonissuer transactions in outstanding securities (normal market trading); transactions with financial institutions; unsolicited transactions; and private placement transactions.

no transaction is exempt from the USA’s antifraud provisions.

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225
Q

exercise price

A

the cost per share at which an option or a warrant holder may buy or sell the underlying security;

strike price

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226
Q

expansion

A

a period of increased business activity throughout the economy; one of the four stages of the business cycle

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227
Q

expansionary policy

A

a monetary policy that increases the money supply, usually with the intention of lowering interest rates and combating deflation.

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228
Q

expense ratio

A

a ratio for comparing a mutual fund’s efficiency by dividing the fund’s expenses by its net assets.

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229
Q

Farm Credit Administration (FCA)

A

the government agency that coordinates the activities of the banks in the Farm Credit System.

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230
Q

Farm Credit System (FCS)

A

an organization of 37 privately owned banks that provide credit services to farmers and mortgages on farm property. included in the system are the Federal Land Banks, Federal Intermediate Credit Banks, and Banks for Cooperatives.

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231
Q

federal covered adviser

A

as defined by the NSMIA of 1996, either an IA registered with the SEC or excluded from the definition of IA under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.

under Dodd-Frank, these advisers registering with the SEC must generally meet a threshold of $100 million or more AUM.

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232
Q

Federal covered security

A

under the NSMIA of 1996, a new definition was created: covered security, generally referred to as a federal covered security on the exam.

state securities registration requirements were preempted with respect to covered securities, other than the ability to require notice filing, particularly in the case of registered investment companies. the most tested federal covered securities include those on the major U.S. exchanges and Nasdaq as well as investment companies registered with the SEC and securities offered pursuant to the provisions of Rule 506 of Regulation D under the Securities Act of 1933 (private placements).

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233
Q

Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation (FDIC)

A

the government agency that provides deposit insurance for member banks and prevents banks from thrift failures.

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234
Q

federal funds

A

the reserves of banks and certain other institutions greater than the reserve requirements or excess reserves. these funds are available immediately.

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235
Q

federal funds rate

A

the interest rate charged by one institution lending federal funds to another.

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236
Q

Federal Home Loan Bank (FHLB)

A

a government-regulated organization that operates a credit reserve system for the nation’s savings and loan institutions.

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237
Q

Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation (FHLMC)

A

a publicly traded corporation that promotes the nationwide secondary market in mortgages by issuing mortgage-backed pass-through debt certificate;

Freddie Mac

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238
Q

Federal Intermediate Credit Bank (FICB)

A

one of 12 banks that provide short-term financing to farmers as part of the Farm Credit System.

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239
Q

Federal National Mortgage Association (FNMA)

A

a publicly held corporation that purchases conventional mortgages and mortgages from government agencies, including the Federal Housing Administration, Department of Veterans Affairs, and Farmers Home Administration;

Fannie Mae

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240
Q

Federal Open Market Committee (FOMC)

A

a committee that makes decisions concerning the Fed’s operations to control the money supply.

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241
Q

Federal Reserve Board (FRB)

A

a committee that makes decisions concerning the Fed’s operations to control the money supply;

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242
Q

Federal Reserve System

A

the central bank system of the U.S. its primary responsibility is to regulate the flow of money and credit. the system includes 12 regional banks, 24 branch breaks, and hundreds of national and state banks;

fed; the fed

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243
Q

fiduciary

A

a person legally appointed and authorized to hold assets in trust for another person and manage those assets for that person’s benefit.

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244
Q

filing date

A

the day on which an issuer submits tot he SEC the registration statement for a new securities issue.

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245
Q

fill-or-kill order (FOK)

A

an order that instructs the floor broker to fill the entire order immediately; if the entire order cannot be executed immediately, it is cancelled.

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246
Q

final prospectus

A

the legal document that states a new issue security’s price, delivery date, and underwriting spread, as well as other material information. it must be given to every investor who purchases a new issue of registered securities;

prospectus

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247
Q

final roder

A

a term used in both state and federal law to refer to a decision rendered by a regulatory body. the final order may result in a suspension, revocation, or denial of registration. it is analogous to the judge passing sentence in trial.

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248
Q

Financial Industry Regulatory Authority (FINRA)

A

organized in July 2007 as a joint effort of NASD and the NYSE to harmonize regulation in the securities industry.

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249
Q

firm quote

A

the actual price at which a trading unit of a security (such as 100 shares od stock or five bonds) may be bought or sold. all quotes are firm quotes unless otherwise indicated.

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250
Q

first in, first out (FIFO)

A

an accoutning method used to assess a company’s inventory, in which it is assumed that the first goods acquired are the first to be sold. the same method is used by the IRS to determine cost basis for tax purposes.

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251
Q

fiscal policy

A

the federal tax and spending policies set by Congress and the President. these policies affect tax rates, interest rates, and government spending in an effort to control the economy.

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252
Q

fiscal year

A

term used to describe an accounting years that ends other than December 21st (calendar year accounting)

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253
Q

fixed annuity

A

an insurance contract in which the insurance company makes fixed dollar payments to the annuitant for the term of the contract, usually until the annuitant dies. the insurance company guarantees both earnings and principal.

fixed dollar annuity; guaranteed dollar annuity

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254
Q

fixed asset

A

a tangible, physical property used in the course of a corporation’s everyday operations, including buildings, equipment, and land.

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255
Q

flat yield curve

A

a chart showing the yields of bonds with short maturities as equal to the yields of bonds with long maturities;

even yield curve

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256
Q

flow-through

A

a term that describes the way income, deductions, and credits resulting from the activities of a business are applied to individual taxes and expenses as though each incurred the income and deductions directly.

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257
Q

FNMA

A

Federal National Mortgage Association

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258
Q

FOK

A

fill-or-kill order

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259
Q

FOMC

A

Federal Open Market Committee

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260
Q

foreign curency

A

money issued by a country other than the one in which the investor resides. options and futures contracts on numerous foreign currencies are traded on U.S. exchanges.

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261
Q

foreign exchange rate

A

the price of one country’s currency in terms of another currency;

exchange rate

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262
Q

Form 706

A

the IRS form used for the computation of estate tax. it must be filed within nine months of death unless an extension has been obtained.

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263
Q

Form 709

A

the United States Gift (and Generation-Skipping Transfer) Tax Return is filed on Form 709.

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264
Q

Form 1040

A

the IRS form used to file individual income tax. schedule C of the Form 1040 is used to report business income for sole proprietorships.

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265
Q

Form 1041

A

the IRS form used by estates and trusts to report their income for tax purposes.

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266
Q

Form 1065

A

the information return field by a partnership or LLC. because income and losses flow through to owners, the entity pays no tax.

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267
Q

Form 1120 & 1120S

A

the tax returns filed by corporations. the “S” is for an S corporation.

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268
Q

Form D

A

the SEC form required to be filed when engaging in a Regulation D private placement.

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269
Q

forward contract

A

a forward contract is a direct commitment between one buyer and one seller for a specific commodity. because forward contracts are direct obligations between a specific buyer and seller (unlike futures and options, they are not standardized), they are not easily transferred and are considered illiquid.

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270
Q

forward pricing

A

the valuation process for mutual fund shares, whereby an order to purchase or redeem shares is executed at the price determined by the portfolio valuation calculated after the order is received. portfolio valuations occur at least once per business day.

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271
Q

fractional share

A

a portion of a whole share of stock. mutual fund shares are frequently issued in fractional amounts. fractional shares used to be generated when corporations declared stock dividends, merged, or voted to split stock, but today it is more common for corporations to issue the cash equivalent of fractional shares.

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272
Q

fraud

A

the deliberate concealment, misrepresentation, or omission of material information or the truth, so as to deceive or manipulate another party for unlawful or unfair gain.

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273
Q

Freddie Mac

A

Federal Home Loan Mortgage Corporation

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274
Q

front-end load

A

a mutual fund commission or sales fee that is charged at the time shares are purchased. the load is added to the share’s net asset value when calculating the public offering price.

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275
Q

front runnings

A

the prohibited practice of entering an order for the benefit of a firm or a securities professional before entering customer orders.

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276
Q

full power of attorney

A

a written authorization for someone other than an account’s beneficial owner to make deposits and withdrawals and to execute trades in the account.

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277
Q

full trading authorization

A

an authorization, usually provided by a full power of attorney, for someone other than the customer to have full trading privileges in an account.

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278
Q

fundamental analysis

A

a method of evaluating securities by attempting to measure the intrinsic value of a particular stock. fundamental analysts study the overall economy, industry conditions, and the financial condition and management of particular companies.

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279
Q

futures

A

futures contracts are exchange-traded obligations for a specific commodity. a buyer goes long, or establishes a long position, and is obligated to take delivery of the commodity on the future date specified. a seller goes short, or establishes a short position, and is obligated to deliver the commodity on the specified future date. if the seller does not own the commodity, his potential loss is unlimited because he has promised delivery and must pay any price to acquire the commodity to deliver. futures may be highly leveraged.

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280
Q

future value

A

the amount to which a current deposit will grow at a given rate of compound interest to a specific date in the future.

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281
Q

GAAP

A

the acronym for generally accepted accounting principles, the standard method used in the U.S. by professional accountants.

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282
Q

gamma

A

one of the four Greeks used by options and analysts. an option’s gamma is a measure of the rate of change of its delta. the gamma of an option is expressed as a percentage and reflects the change in the delta in response to a one point movement of the underlying stock price.

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283
Q

general obligation bond (GO)

A

a municipal debt issue backed by the full faith, credit, and taxing power of the issuer for payment of interest and principal;

full faith and credit bond

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284
Q

general partnership (GP)

A

an association of two or more entities formed to conduct business jointly. the partnership does not require documents for formation, and the general partners are jointly and severally liable for the partnership’s liabilities.

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285
Q

generation skipping trust

A

a form of bypass trust that is designed to have assets pass to grandchildren (or great-grandchildren) in order to “skip” a generation of estate tax.

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286
Q

geometric mean

A

a type of average that indicates the central tendency of a set of numbers that, instead of finding the sum as with the arithmetic mean, takes the product of the numbers and divides that by the nth root (where n is the count of numbers). it will always be lower than the arithmetic mean [unless all od the numbers are the same (.e.g, 6, 6, and 6)].

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287
Q

good-til-canceled order (GTC)

A

an order that is left on the specialist’s book until it is either executed or canceled;

open order

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288
Q

goodwill

A

an intangible asset that represents the value that a firm’s business reputation adds to its perceived value. it is not included in net worth for purposes of computing book value per share.

289
Q

Government National Mortgage Association (GNMA)

A

a wholly government-owned corporation that issues pass-through mortgage debt certificates backed by the full faith and credit of the U.S. government;

Ginnie Mae

290
Q

grantor

A

an individual or organization that gives assets to a beneficiary by transferring fiduciary duty to a third-party trustee that will maintain the assets for the benefit of the beneficiaries;

settlor, trustor

291
Q

grantor trust

A

a trust that requires that the grantor be taxed on income produced by trust property if trust income is distributed to the grantor or to the grantor’s spouse; trust income discharges a legal obligation of the grantor or grantor’s family; and the grantor retains power to revoke or amend the trust.

292
Q

gross domestic product (GDP)

A

the market value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a given period of time.

GDP = consumption + investment + government spending + (exports - imports) investment

to account for inflation, GDP is based on a constant dollar, currently the value in 2005.

293
Q

gross income

A

all income of a taxpayer, from whatever source derived.

294
Q

gross margin

A

the operating profit of a business prior to interest and taxes.

is frequently expressed as a percentage, called the margin of profit.

the calculation is the gross margin divided by the sales (revenues).

computed by subtracting the cost of goods sold (COGS) from the company’s sales (or revenues).

ex. a company has sales of $5 million and COGS of $3.5 million resulting in a gross margin of $1.5 million and a margin of profit of 30% ($1.5 million/$5 million)

295
Q

gross revenues

A

all money received by a business from its operations. the term typically does not include interest income or income from the sale, refinancing, or other disposition of properties.

296
Q

growth fund

A

a diversified common stock fund that has capital appreciation as its primary goal. it invests in companies that reinvest most of their earnings for expansion, research, or development.

297
Q

growth industry

A

an industry that is growing faster than the economy as a whole os a result of technological changes, new products, or changing consumer rates.

298
Q

growth stock

A

a common stock that is believed to offer significant potential for capital gains. it often pays low dividends and sells at high price-earnings ratio.

299
Q

growth style investing

A

a management style that attempts to find stocks with positive earnings momentum. these stocks typically sell at the upper end of their 52-week price range, have high P/E ratios and lower than average dividend payout ratios.

300
Q

guaranteed security

A

under the USA, the term guaranteed means guaranteed by a third party as to payment of principal, interest, or dividends, but not capital gains.

301
Q

guardian

A

a court-appointed fiduciary who manages the assets of a minor or an incompetent for that person’s benefit.

302
Q

head and shoulders

A

on a technical analyst’s trading chart, a pattern that has three peaks resembling a head and two shoulders. the stock price moves up to its first peak (the left shoulder), drops back, then moves to a higher peak (the top of the head), drops again but recovers to another, lower peak (the right shoulder). a head and shoulders top typically forms after a substantial rise that indicates a market reversal. a head and shoulders bottom (an inverted head and shoulders) indicates a market advance.

303
Q

hedge

A

an investment made to reduce the risk of adverse price movements in a security. normally, a hedge consists of a protecting position in a related security.

304
Q

hedge clause

A

any legend, clause or other provision that is likely to lead an investor to believe that he has in any way waived any right of action he may have.

305
Q

hedge fund

A

a fund that can use one or more alternative investment strategies, including hedging against market downturns, investing in asset classes such as currencies or distressed securities, and utilizing return-enhancing tools such as leverage, derivatives, and arbitrage. these funds tend to have very high minimum investment requirements.

306
Q

high net worth individual

A

an individual with at least $1 million managed by the IA or whose net worth the firm reasonably believes exceeds $2 million. the net worth of an individual may include assets held jointly with that individual’s spouse. performance-based fees may be charged to these clients.

307
Q

high-yield bond

A

a bond with less than investment grate rating, characterized by a return commensurate with the higher risk;

junk bond

308
Q

holder

A

the owner of a security.

309
Q

holding company

A

a company organized to invest in and manage other corporations. control can occur through the ownership of 50% or more of the voting rights or through the exercise of a dominant influence. it is sometimes referred to as a parent organization.

310
Q

holding period

A

a time period signifying how long the owner possesses a security. it starts the day after a purchase and ends on the day of the sale.

311
Q

home state

A

if an investment adviser is registered with a state Administrator (state-registered adviser), the firm’s home state is the state where it maintains its principal office and place of business.

312
Q

HR-10 plan

A

keogh plan

313
Q

hypothecation

A

pledging to a broker-dealer securities bought on margin as collateral for the margin loan.

314
Q

immediate annuity

A

an annuity contract that provides for monthly payments to begin immediately after deposit of the invested funds. payments usually commence within 30 to 60 days.

315
Q

immediate-or-cancel order (IRC)

A

an order that instructs the floor banker to execute it immediately, in full or in part. any portion of the order that remains unexecuted is canceled.

316
Q

impersonal investment advice

A

investment advisory services that do not purport to meet the objectives or needs of specific individuals or accounts.

317
Q

incentive stock option

A

a type of employee stock option. as long as stock purchased through exercise of an ISO is. held at least twp years after the date of grant and one year after the date of exercise, any profits are reported as long-term capital gains. if these time limits are broached, the ISO is taxed like an NSO.

318
Q

income fund

A

a mutual fund that seeks to provide stable current income by investing in securities that pay interest or dividends.

319
Q

income statement

A

the summary of a corporation’s revenues and expenses for a specific fiscal period.

320
Q

indenture

A

the agreement between a lender and a borrower that details specific terms of the bond issuance. the indenture specifies the legal obligations of the bond issuer and rights of the bondholders. it is sometimes called the deed of trust.

321
Q

index fund

A

investors who wish to invest passively can invest in an index fund, which seeks to replicate the performance of a security market index. there are index mutual funds and index exchange-traded funds.

322
Q

indication of interest

A

an investor’s expression of conditional interest in buying an upcoming securities issue after the investor has reviewed a preliminary prospectus. an indication of interest is not a commitment to buy.

323
Q

individual retirement account (IRA)

A

a retirement investing tool for employed individuals that allows an annual contribution of 100% of earned income up to a maximum of $5,500 ($6,500 for those 50 and older)

324
Q

industrial development bond (IDB)

A

a debt security issued by a municipal authority, which uses the proceeds to finance the construction of purchase or facilities to be leased or purchased by a private company. the bonds are backed by the credit of the private company, which is ultimately responsible for principal and interest payments;

industrial revenue bond

325
Q

inflation

A

a persistent and measurable increase in the general level of prices.

326
Q

initial public offering (IPO)

A

a corporation’s first sale of common stock to the public.

327
Q

information barriers

A

policies and procedures created to prevent misuse of material nonpublic information (MNPI) are commonly referred to as information barriers. formerly referred to as Chinese Walls.

328
Q

inside information

A

material information that has not been disseminated to or is not readily available to the general public.

329
Q

inside market

A

when viewing the quotes of all of the market makers in a security, the inside market, or inside quote, is the best (highest) bid and the best (lowest) offer (or ask).

330
Q

insider

A

any person who possesses or has access to material nonpublic information about a corporation. insiders include directors, officers, and stockholders who own more than 10% of many class of equity security of a corporation.

331
Q

Insider Trading and Securities Fraud Enforcement Act of 1988

A

legislation that defines what constitutes the illicit use of nonpublic information in making securities trades and the liabilities and penalties that apply;

Insider Trading Act

332
Q

institutional investor

A

a person or an organization that trades securities in large enough share quantities or dollar amounts that it qualifies for preferential treatment and lower commissions. an institutional order can be of any size. institutional investors are covered by fewer protective regulations because it is assumed that they are more knowledgeable and better able to protect themselves.

333
Q

intangibele asset

A

a property owned that is not physical, such as formula, a copyright, or goodwill.

334
Q

interactive content

A

social media content that can be added by anyone with access to the link.

example: a chat room

335
Q

interest

A

the charge for the privilege of borrowing money, usually expressed as an annual percentage rate.

336
Q

interest rate risk

A

the risk associated with investments relating to the sensitivity of price or value to fluctuation in the current level of interest rates; also, the risk that involves the competitive cost of money. this term is generally associated with bond prices, but it applies to all investments. in bonds, prices carry interest rate risk because if bond prices rise, outstanding bonds will not remain competitive unless their yields and prices adjust to reflect the current marker internal rate of return. The discount rate that sets the net present value of an investment equal to zero;

337
Q

internal rate of return

A

the discount rate that sets the net present value of an investment equal to zero.

338
Q

internal revenue code (IRC)

A

the legislations that defines tax liabilities and deductions for U.S. tax payers.

339
Q

internal revenue service (IRS)

A

the U.S. government agency responsible for collecting most federal taxes and for administering tax rules and regulations.

340
Q

interstate offering

A

an issue of securities registered with the SEC sold to residents of states other than the state in which the issuer does business.

341
Q

intestate

A

dying with a legal will. usually the probate court will appoint an administrator to handle the deceased’s estate. for purposes of the USA, transactions by the administrator (a fiduciary) are considered exempt transactions.

342
Q

in-the-money

A

the term used to describe an option that has intrinsic value, such as a call option when the stock is selling below the exercise price.

343
Q

intrastate offering

A

an issue of securities exempt from SEC registrations, available to companies that do business in one state and sell their securities only to residents of that same state.

344
Q

intrinsic value

A

the potential profit to be made from exercising an option. a call option is said to have intrinsic value when the underlying stock is trading above the exercise price.

345
Q

inverted yield curve

A

a chart showing long-term debt instruments that have lower yields than short-term debt instruments;

negative yield curve

346
Q

investment adviser

A

(1) any person who makes investment recommendations in return for a flat fee or a percentage of assets managed.
(2) for an investment company, the individual who bears the day-to-day responsibility of investing the cash and securities held in the fund’s portfolio in accordance with objectives stated in the fund’s prospectus.

347
Q

investment adviser representative (IAR)

A

any partner, officer, director, or other individual employed by or associated with an investment adviser whose job function involves the rendering of advice, solicitation for clients, or supervision of those who do.

348
Q

Investmetn Advisers Act of 1940

A

legislation governing who must register with the SEC as an investment adviser.

349
Q

investment banker

A

an institution in the business of raising capital for corporations and municipalities. an investment banker may not accept deposits or make commercial loans;

investment bank

350
Q

investment banking business

A

a broker, dealer, or municipal of government securities dealer that underwrites or distributes new issues of securities as a dealer or that buys and sells securities for the accounts of others as a broker;

investment securities business

351
Q

investment company

A

a company engaged in the business of pooling investors’ money and trading in securities for them;

examples: face-amoutn certificate companies, unit investment trusts, management companies

352
Q

Investment Company Act Amendments of 1970

A

amendments to the Investment Company Act of 1940 requiring, in particular, that sales charges relate to the services a fund provides its shareholders.

353
Q

Investment Company Act of 1940

A

congressional legislation regulating companies that invest and reinvest in securities. the act requires an investment company engaged in interstate commerce to register with the SEC.

354
Q

investment constraints

A

limitations or restrictions that are specific to the adviser’s client.

examples: liquidity needs, time horizon, and personal ethics choices (no tobacco or alcohol stocks).

355
Q

investment-grade security

A

a security to which the rating services (e..g, Standard & Poor’s and Moody’s) have assigned a rating of BBB/Baa or above.

356
Q

investment objective

A

any goal a client hopes to achieve through investing.

examples: current income, capital growth, preservation of capital.

357
Q

investment policy statement

A

used by those administering employee benefit plans to set out the objectives, policies, investment selections, and monitoring procedures for the plan. may also be used by investment advisers to determine policies to be followed with their clients.

358
Q

investor

A

the purchaser of an asset or security with the intent of profiting from the transaction.

359
Q

IRA rollover

A

the reinvestment of assets that an individual receives as a distribution from a qualified tax-deferred retirement plan into an individual retirement account within 60 days of receiving the distribution. the individual may reinvest either the entire sum or a portion of the sun, although any portion not reinvested is taxed as ordinary income.

360
Q

IRA transfer

A

the direct reinvesting of retirement assets from one qualified tax-deferred retirement plan to an individual retirement account. the account owner never takes possession of the assets but directs that they can be transferred directly from the existing plan custodian to the new plan custodian.

361
Q

irrevocable trust

A

a trust that cannot be altered or canceled by the grantor at any time.

362
Q

issuer

A

the entity, such as a corporation, or municipality, that offers or proposes to offers its securities for sale.

363
Q

joint account

A

an account in which two or more individuals possess some form of control over the account and may transact business in the account. the account must be designated as either joint tenants in common or joint tenants with right of survivorship.

364
Q

joint life with last survivor

A

an annuity payout option that covers two or more people, with annuity payments continuing as long as one of the annuitants remains alive.

365
Q

joint tenants with right of survivorship (JTWROS)

A

a form of joint ownership of an account whereby a deceased tenant’s fractional interest in the account passes to the surviving tenant(s). used almost exclusively by husbands and wives.

366
Q

Keogh plan

A

a qualified tax-deferred retirement plan for persons who are self-employed and unincorporated or who earn extra income through personal services aside from their regular employment;

HR-10 plan

367
Q

Keynesian economics

A

the theory that active government intervention in the marketplace is the best method of ensuring economic growth and stability.

368
Q

lagging indicator

A

a measurable economic factor that changes after the economy has started to follow a particular pattern or trend. lagging indicators are believed to confirm long-term trends.

examples: average duration of unemployment, corporate profits, and labor cost per unit of output

369
Q

large-cap

A

stocks with a market capitalization of $10 billion or more

370
Q

last in, first out (LIFO)

A

an accounting method used to assess a corporation’s inventory in which it is assumed that the last goods acquired are the first to be sold. the method is used to determine cost basis for tax purposes; the IRS designates last in, first out as the order in which sales or withdrawals fro an investment are made. it is the system used for random withdrawals from a nonqualified annuity where the earnings are taxed first before receiving back a return of original principal.

371
Q

leading indicator

A

a measurable economic factor that changes before the economy starts to follow a particular pattern or trend. leading indicators are believed to predict changes in the economy.

examples: new orders for durable goods, slowdowns in deliveries by vendors, numbers of building permits issued

372
Q

legal list

A

the selection of securities a state agency (usually a state banking or insurance commission) determines to be appropriate investments for fiduciary accounts such as mutual savings banks, pension funds, and insurance companies. this is used in states that do not have the prudent investor rule.

373
Q

legislative risk

A

the potential for an investor to be adversely affected by changes in investment or tax laws.

374
Q

letter of intent (LOI)

A

a signed agreement allowing an investor to buy mutual fund shares at a lower overall sales charge based on the total dollar amount of the intended investment. a letter of intent is valid only if the investor completes the terms of the agreement within 13 months of signing the agreement. a letter of intent may be backdated 90 days;

statement of intention

375
Q

level load

A

a mutual fund ales fee charged annually and based on the net asset value of a share.

376
Q

leverage

A

using borrowed capital to increase investment return;

trading on the quity

377
Q

liability

A

a legal obligation to pay a debt owed. current liabilities are debts payable within 12 months. long-term liabilities are debts payable over a period of more than 12 months.

378
Q

LIBOR

A

a benchmark interest rate based on the rates at which banks lend unsecured funds to each other on the London interbank market. published daily, the rate was previously administered by the British Bankers’ Association (BBA). but in the aftermath of a scandal in 2012, Britain’s primary financial regulator, the Financial Conduct Authority (FCA), shifted supervision of LIBOR to a new entity, the ICE Benchmark Administrator, an independent subsidiary of the private exchange operator Intercontinental Exchange, or ICE.

379
Q

limited liability

A

an investor’s right to limit potential losses to no more than the amount invested. equity shareholders, such as corporate stockholders and limited partners, have limited liability.

380
Q

limited liability company (LLC)

A

a hybrid between a partnership and a corporation in that it combines the pass-through treatment of a paternship with the limited liability accorded to corporate shareholders.

381
Q

limited partnership (LP)

A

an association of two or more partners formed to conduct a business jointly and in which one or more of the partners is liable only to the extent of the amount of money they have invested. limited partners do not receive dividends but enjoy direct flow-through of income and expenses.

382
Q

limited power of attorney

A

a written authorization for someone other than an account’s beneficial owner to make certain investment decisions regarding transactions in the account.

383
Q

limited trading authorization

A

an authorization, usually provided by a limited power of attorney, for someone other than the customer to have trading privileges in an account. these privileges are limited to purchases and sales; withdrawal of assets is not authorized.

384
Q

limit order

A

an order that instructs the broker-dealer to buy a specified security below a certain price or to sell a specified seucirty above a certain price. these orders are entered either for the day or good-til-canceled (GTC).

385
Q

liquidation priority

A

in the case of a corporation’s liquidated, the order that is strictly followed for paying off creditors and stockholders;

(1) secured claims like mortgage bonds, equipment trust certificates, and collateral trust bonds;
(2) unpaid wages;
(3) taxes;
(4) unsecured liabilities; (debentures) and general creditors;
(5) subordinated debt;
(6) preferred stockholders;
(7) common stockholders

386
Q

liquidity

A

the ease at which an asset can be converted to cash at its fair market value;
a large number of buyers and sellers and a high volume of trading activity provide high liquidity.

387
Q

liquidity risk

A

the potential that an investor might not be able to sell an investment when desired without adverse price disruption;

marketability risk

388
Q

listed option

A

an option contract that can be bought and sold on a national securities exchange in a continuous secondary market. listed options carry standardized strike prices and expiration dates;

standardized option

389
Q

listed security

A

a stock, a bond, or another security that satisfies certain minimum requirements and is traded on a regional or national securities exchange such as the New York Stock Exchange.

390
Q

living trust

A

a trust created during the lifetime of the grantor; also known as an inter vivos trust.

391
Q

long

A

the term used to describe the owning of a security, contract, or commodity.

392
Q

longevity annuity

A

a deferred income annuity that generally does not begin payout until the age of 85. if a QLAC (qualified longevity annuity contract), it is exempt from RMDs for up to 15 years in a qualified retirement plans.

393
Q

Long-term Equity Anticipation Securities (LEAPS)

A

LEAPS options have the same characteristics as standard options, but with expiration dates up to three years in the future.

394
Q

long-term gain

A

the profit earned on the sale of a capital asset that has been owned for more than 12 months.

395
Q

long-term loss

A

the loss realized on the sale of a capital asset that has been owned for more than 12 months.

396
Q

loss carryover

A

a capital loss incurred in one tax year that is carried over to the next year or later years for use as a capital loss deduction.

397
Q

make a market

A

to stand ready to buy or sell a particular security as a dealer for its own account. a market maker accepts the risk of holding the position in the security.

398
Q

Maloney Act

A

an amendment enacted in 1938 to broaden Section 15 of the Securities Exchange Act or 1934. Named for its sponsor, the late Sen. Francis Maloney of Conneticut, the amendment provided for the creation of a self-regulatory organization for the specific purpose of supervising the over-the-counter securities market.

399
Q

management compnay

A

an investment company that trades various types of securities in a portfolio in accordance with specific objectives stated in the prospectus.

400
Q

margin

A

the amount of equity contributed by a customer as a percentage of the current market value of the securities held in a margin account.

401
Q

marginal tax rate

A

the rate of taxation of any additional taxable income received. it is sometimes referred to as the tax on the “next” dollar or the “last” dollar of income.

402
Q

margin of profit ratio

A

a measure of a corporation’s relative profitability. it is calculated by dividing the operating profit by the net sales;

operating profit ratio; profit margin.

403
Q

marital trust

A

a trust that seeks to pass property to a survivor spouse while taking advantage of the marital deduction; also known as an A trust.

404
Q

market capitalization

A

the number of outstanding shares multiplied by the current market price. classed as large-cap, mid-cap, small-cap, and micro-cap.

405
Q

market maker

A

a dealer willing to accept the risk of holding a particular security in its own account to facilitate trading in that security.

406
Q

market order

A

an order to be executed immediately at the best available price.
is the only order that guarantees execution;

unrestricted order

407
Q

market risk

A

the potential for an investor to experience losses owing to day-to-day fluctuations in the prices at which securities can be bought or sold.

408
Q

market value

A

the price at which investors buy or sell a share of common stock or a bond at a given time.
determined by buyers’ and sellers’ interaction.

409
Q

markup

A

the difference between the lowest current offering price among dealers and the higher price a dealer charges a customer.

410
Q

matched orders

A

simultaneously entering identical (or nearly identical) buy and sell orders for a security to create the appearance of active trading in that security. this violates the antifraud provisions of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 and the USA.

411
Q

material information

A

any fact that could affect an investor’s decision to trade a security.

412
Q

maturity date

A

the date on which a bond’s principal is repaid to the investor and interest payments cease.

413
Q

mean

A

when referring to a series of values, such as portfolio returns, the average. a measure of central tendency known as the arithmetic mean. could also refer to the geometric mean.

414
Q

median

A

when viewing a series of values, such as portfolio returns, the number that has as many occurrences above as below. a measure of central tendency.

415
Q

mid-cap

A

stocks with a market capitalization of $2 billion to $10 billion.

416
Q

mode

A

when viewing a series of values, the one that occurs the most frequently. a measure of central tendency.

417
Q

modern portfolio theory (MPT)

A

a method of choosing investments that focuses on the importance of the relationships among all of the investments in a portfolio rather than the individual merits of each investment. the method allows investors to quantify and control the amount of risk they accept and return they achieve.

418
Q

monetarist theory

A

an economic theory holding that the money supply is the major determinant of price levels and that therefore a well-controlled money supply will have the most beneficial impact on the economy.

419
Q

monetary policy

A

the Federal Reserve Board’s actions that determine the size and rate of the money supply’s growth, which in turn affect interest rates.

420
Q

money market

A

the securities market that deals in high quality, short-term debt. money market instruments ar every liquid forms of debt that mature in one year or less.

examples: treasury bills, commercial paper, jumbo CDs.

421
Q

money market fund

A

a mutual fund that invests in short-term debt instruments. the fund’s objective is to earn interest while maintaining a stable net asset value of $1 per share. always sold with no load, the fund may also offer check-writing privileges and a low initial minimum investment.

422
Q

Monte Carlo simulation

A

a statistical method to determine. thereturn profile of a security or portfolio that recreates potential outcomes by generating random values on the basis of the risk and return characteristics. of the securities themselves.

423
Q

Moody’s Investors Service

A

one of the best known investment rating agencies in the US. a subsidiary of Dun & Bradstreet, Moody’s rates bonds, commercial paper, preferred and common stocks, and municipal short-term issues.

424
Q

mortgage bond

A

a debt obligation secured by a property pledge. it represents a lien or mortgage against the issuing corporation’s properties and real estate assets.

425
Q

moving average chart

A

a tool used by technical analysts to track the price movements of a commodity. it plots average daily settlement prices over a defined period of time (for example, over three days for a three-day moving average).

426
Q

MRD

A

minimum required distribution

427
Q

municipal bond

A

a debt security issued by a state, a municipality, or another subdivision (such as a school, a park, a sanitation, or another local taxing district) to finance its capital expenditures. such expenditures might include the construction of highways, public works, or school buildings.

428
Q

municipal bond fund

A

a mutual fund that invests in municipal bonds and operates either as a unit investment trust or as an open-end fund. the fund’s objective is to maximize federally tax-exempt income.

429
Q

municipal note

A

a short-term municipal security issued in anticipation of funds from another source.

430
Q

Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board (MSRB)

A

a self-regulatory organization that regulates the issuance and trading of municipal securities. the Board functions under the SEC’s supervision; it has no enforcement powers

431
Q

mutual fund

A

an investment company that continuously offers new equity shares in an actively managed portfolio of securities. all shareholders participate in the fund’s gains or losses. the shares are redeemable on any business day at the net asset value. each mutual fund’s portfolio is invested to match the objective stated in the prospectus;

open-end investment company;
open-end management company

432
Q

NASAA

A

North American Securities Administrators Association

433
Q

Nasdaq

A

National Association of Securities Dealers Automated Quotation System

434
Q

NASD 5% markup policy

A

a guideline for reasonable markups, markdowns, and commissions for secondary over-the-counter transactions. according to the policy, all commissions on broker transactions and all markups or markdowns on principal transactions should equal 5% or should be fair and reasonable for a particular transaction;
markup policy

435
Q

National Association of Securities Dealers, Inc. (NASD)

A

the self-regulatory organization for the over-the-counter market. NASD was organized under the provisions of the 1938 Maloney Act

436
Q

National Association of Securities Dealers Automatied Quotation System (NASDAQ)

A

the nationwise electronic quotation system for up-to-the-second on approximately 3,100 over-the-counter stocks trade information. sometimes referred to as the Nasdaq Stock Market. all securities traded here are federal covered as defined in the NSMIA of 1996.

437
Q

NAV per share

A

the value of a mutual fund share, calculated by dividing the fund’s total net asset value bu the number of shares outstanding.

438
Q

negotiability

A

a characteristic of a security that permits the owner to assign, give, transfer, or sell it to another person without a third party’s permission.

439
Q

negotiable certificate of deposit (CD)

A

an unsecured promissory note issued with a minimum face value of $100,000. it evidences a time deposit of funds with the issuing bank and is guaranteed by the bank.

440
Q

net asset value (NAV)

A

a mutual fund share’s value, as calculated once a day on the basis of the closing market price for each security in the fund’s portfolio. it is computed by deducting the fund’s liabilities from the portfolio’s total assets and dividing this amount by the number of shares outstanding.

441
Q

net investment income

A

the source of an investment company’s dividend payments. it is calculated by subtracting the company’s operating expense from the total dividends and interest the company receives from the securities in its portfolio.

442
Q

net present value

A

the difference between the present value of the future cash flows from an investment and the current market price;

NPV

443
Q

net worth

A

the amount by which assets exceed liabilites.

444
Q

new account form

A

the form that must be filled out for each new account opened with a brokerage firm. the form specifies, at a minimum, the account owner, trading authorization, payment method, and types of securities appropriate for the customer.

445
Q

new issue market

A

the securities market for shares in privately owned businesses that are raising capital by selling common stock to the public for the first time;

primary market

446
Q

no-load fund

A

a mutual fund whose shares are sold without a commission or sales charge. the investment company distributes the shares directly.

447
Q

nominal yield

A

the interest rate stated on the face of a bond that represents the percentage of interest the issuer pays on the bond’s face value;

coupon rate; stated yield

448
Q

nominee

A

a person or company whose name is given as having title to a stock, real estate, and so forth, but who is not the actual owner.

449
Q

nonaccredited investor

A

an investor not meeting the net worth requirements of Regulation D. nonaccredited investors are counted for purposes of the 35-investor limitation for Rule 506(b) Regulation D private placements.

450
Q

noncontributory plan

A

a retirement plan to which only the employer makes contributions.

451
Q

noncumulatibe preferred stock

A

an equity security that des not have to pay any dividends in arrears to the holder.

452
Q

nondiversification

A

a portfolio management strategy that seeks to concentrate investments in a particular industry or geographic area in hopes of achieving higher returns.

453
Q

nonqualified retirement plan

A

a corporate retirement plan that does not meet the standards set by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974. contributions to a nonqualified plan are not tax deductible.

454
Q

nonqualified stock option

A

a type of employee stock option. when NSOs are exercised, the difference between the current market price at the time of the exercise and the strike price is reported as wages on the tax return of the employer and employee.

455
Q

nonrecourse financing

A

debt incurred for the purchase of an asset that pledges the asset as security for the debt but that does not hold the borrower personally liable.

456
Q

nonsystematic risk

A

the potential for an unforseen event ot affect the value of a specific investment.

this risk is diversifiable;

Examples: strikes, natural disasters, poor management decisions, introductions of new product lines, attempted takeovers;

unsystematic risk

457
Q

no-par stock

A

an equity security issued without a stated value.

458
Q

normal yield curve

A

a chart showing long-term debt instruments having higher yields that short-term debt instruments;

positive yield curve

459
Q

North American Securities Administrators Association

A

organized in 1919, NASAA is the oldest international organization devoted to investor protection.

NASAA is a voluntary association whose membership consists of 67 state, provincial, and territorial securities Administrators in the 50 states, DC, Puerto Rico, the U.S. Virgin Islands, Canada, and Mexico.

460
Q

note

A

a short-term debt security usually maturing in five years or less.

461
Q

notice filing

A

(1) method by which a registered investment company and certain other federal covered securities file records with state securities Administrators.
(2) SEC-registered advisers (federal covered) may have to provide state securities authorities (the Administrator) with copies of documents that are filed with the SEC and pay a filing fee.

462
Q

offer

A

(1) under the USA, any attempt to solicit a purchase or sale in a security for value.
(2) an indication by an investor, a trader, or a dealer of a willingness to sell a security; the price at which an investor can buy from a broker-dealer.

463
Q

opening purchase

A

entering the options market by buying calls or puts.

464
Q

opening sale

A

entering the options market by selling calls or puts.

465
Q

open-market operations

A

the buying and selling of securities (primarily government or agency debt) by the Federal Open Market Comittee to effect control of the money supply. these transactions increase or decrease the level of bank reserves available for lending.

466
Q

operating income

A

the profit realized from one year of operation of a business.

467
Q

operating ratio

A

the ratio of operating expenses to net sales; the complement to the margin of profit ratio.

468
Q

optimal portfolio

A

the optimal portfolio under modern portfolio theory assumes that investors seek a portfolio of assets that minimizes risks while offering the highest possible return.

469
Q

ordinary income

A

earnings other than capital gain.

470
Q

OTC Bulletin Board (OTCBB)

A

an electronic quotation system for equity securities that are not listed on a national exchange or included in the Nasdaq system. these are not federal covered securities and generally require registration with both the SEC and the states.

471
Q

OTC Link

A

an electronic inter-dealer quotation system that displays quotes from broker-dealers fro many over-the-counter securities. formerly known as the Pink Sheets, OTC Link does not require companies whose securities are quoted on its systems to meet any listing requirements.

472
Q

OTC Market

A

the security trading system in which broker-dealers negotiate directly with one another rather than through an auction on an exchange floor. the trading takes place over computer and telephone networks that link brokers and dealers around the world. both listed and OTC securities, as well as municipal and U.S. government securities, trade in the OTC market.

473
Q

out-of-the-money

A

the term used to describe an option that has no intrinsic value, such as a call option when the stock is selling below the exercise price or a put option when the stock is above the exercise price.

474
Q

over the counter (OTC)

A

the term used to describe a security traded through the telephone-linked and computer-connected OTC market rather than though a stock exchange.

475
Q

oversubscribed

A

the term used to describe a new security issue where the demand for the shares greatly exceeds the available supply. the issues usually appreciate rapidly on the first day of trading and failure to properly allocate them is a prohibited practice.

476
Q

par

A

the dollar amount the issuer assigns to a security. for an equity security, par is usually a small dollar amount that ears no relationship to the security’s market price. for a debt security, par is the amount repaid to the investor when the bond matures, usually $1,000;

face value; principal; stated value

477
Q

partiy price of common

A

the dollar amount at which a common stock is equal in value to its corresponding convertible security. it is calculated by dividing the convertible security’s market by its conversion ratio.

478
Q

partiy price of convertible

A

the dollar amount at which a convertible security is equal in value to its corresponding common stock. it is calculated by multiplying the market price of the common stock by its conversion ratio.

479
Q

participation

A

the provision of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 requiring that all employees in a qualified retirement plan be covered within a reasonable time of their dates of hire.

480
Q

partnership

A

a form of business organization in which two or more individuals manage the business and are equally and personally liable for its debts.

481
Q

partnership account

A

an account that empowers the individual members of a partnership. toact on the behalf of the partnership as a whole.

482
Q

partnership management fee

A

the amount payable to the general partners of a limited partnership, or to other persons, for managing the day-to-day partnership operations;

program management fee; property management fee

483
Q

par value

A

the dollar amount assigned to a security by the issuer. for an equity security, par value is usually a small dollar amount that bears no relationship to the security’s market price. for a debt security, par value is the amount repaid to the investor when the bond matures, usually $1,000;

face value; principal; stated value

484
Q

passive income

A

earnings derived from a rental property, limited partnership, or other enterprise in which the individual is not actively involved. passive income therefore does not include earnings from wages or active business participation, nor does it include income fro dividends, interest, and capital gains.

485
Q

passive loss

A

a loss incurred through a rental property, limited partnership, or other enterprise in which the individual is not actively involved. passive losses can be used to offset passive income only, not wage or portfolio income.

486
Q

passive management style

A

in a perfectly efficient market, investors should use a passive investment strategy (i.e., buying a broad market index of stocks and holding it) because active investment strategies will underperform due to transactions costs and management fees. however, to the extent that market prices are inefficient, active investment strategies can generate positive risk-adjusted returns.

487
Q

pass-through certificate

A

a security representing an interest in a pool of conventional, Veterans Administration, Farmers Home Administration, or other agency mortgages. the pool receives the principal and interest payments, which it passes through to each certificate holder. payments may or may not be guaranteed.

488
Q

pattern

A

a repetitive series of price movements on. achart used by a technical analyst to predict future movement of the market.

489
Q

payment date

A

the day on which a declared dividend is paid to all stockholders owning shares on the record date.

490
Q

peak

A

the end of a period of increasing business activity throughout the economy, one of the four stages of the business cycle;

prosperity

491
Q

pecuniary

A

of or relating to money, such as operating or pecuniary profit

492
Q

pegging

A

an illegal form of market manipulation that attempts to keep the price of a subject security from falling. it is used by those with a long position.

493
Q

pension plan

A

a contract between an individual and an employer, a labor union, a government entity, or another institution that provides for the distribution of pension benefits for retirement.

494
Q

peformance-based fee

A

an investment advisory fee based on a share of capital gains on, or capital appreciation of, client assets. a fee that is based upon a percentage of assets that the IA manages is not performance-based fee. this fee may only be charged to certain high net worth clients.

495
Q

person

A

as defined in securities law, an individual, corporation, partnership, association, fund, joint stock company, unincorporated organization, trust, government, or political subdivision of a government.

496
Q

personal income (PI)

A

an individual’s total earnings dervied from wages, passive business enterprises, and investments.

497
Q

point

A

a measure of a bond’s price; $10 or 1% of the par value of $1,000.

498
Q

political risk

A

the risk that an investment’s returns could suffer as a result of political changes or instability in a country such as from change in government, orderly or note, nationalization of industries, or military control.

499
Q

portfolio income

A

earnings from interest, dividends, and all nonbusiness investments.

500
Q

porotfolio manager

A

the entity responsible for investing a mutual fund’s assets, implementing its investment strategy, and managing day-to-day portfolio trading;

fund manager

501
Q

position

A

the amount of a security either owned (a long position) or owed (a short position) by an individual or a dealer. dealers take long positions in specific securities to maintain inventories thereby facilitate trading.

502
Q

preferred stock

A

an equity security that represents ownership in a corporation. it is issued with a stated dividend, which must be paid before dividends are paid to common stockholders. it generally carries no voting rights.

503
Q

preferred stock fund

A

a mutual fund whose investment objective is to provide stable income with minimal capital risk. it invests in income-producing instruments such as preferred stock.

504
Q

preliminary prospectus

A

an abbreviated prospectus that is distributed while the SEC is reviewing an issuer’s registration statement. it contains all of the essential facts about the forthcoming offering except the underwriting spread, final public offering price, and date on which shares will be delivered;

red herring

505
Q

premium

A

(1) the amoun of cash that an option buyer pays to an option seller.
(2) the difference between the higher price paid for a security and the security’s face amount at issue.

506
Q

premium bond

A

a bond that sells at a higher price than its face value.

507
Q

premium mode

A

insurance companies give policyowners the choice to pay premiums annually, semiannually, quarterly, or monthly.

508
Q

present value

A

the sum of money needed to invest now at a given rate of compound interest to reach a specified amount at a specified future date.

509
Q

price-earnings ratio (PE)

A

a tool for comparing the prices of different common stocks by assessing how much the market is willing to pay for a share of each corporation’s earnings. it is calculated by dividing the current market price of a stock by the earnings per share;

earnings multiplier

510
Q

primary offer

A

an offering in which the proceeds of the underwriting go to the issuing corporation, agency, or municipality. the issuer seeks to increase its capitalization either by selling shares of stock, representing ownership, or by selling bonds, representing loans to the issuer;

primary distribution

511
Q

prime rate

A

the interest rate that commercial banks charge their prime or most creditworthy customers, generally large corporations

512
Q

principal

A

(1) every business transaction has two principals–the buyer and the seller. when a broker-dealer trades for its own account, it is acting in the capacity of a principal;
(2) dealer;
(3) par

513
Q

principal office and place of business

A

the firm’s executive office from which the firm’s officers, partners, or managers direct, control, and coordinate the activities of the firm.

514
Q

principal transacrion

A

a transaction in which. abroker-dealer either buys securities from customers and takes them into its own inventory or sells securities to customers from its inventory

515
Q

private placement

A

an offering of new securities that complies with Regulation D of the Securities Act of 1933. according to Regulation D, a security generally is not required to be registered with the SEC if it is offered to no more than 35 nonaccredited investors or to an unlimited number of accredited investors.

516
Q

profitability

A

the ability to generate a level of income and gain in excess of expenses.

517
Q

profitability ratio

A

one of several measures of a corporation’s relative profit or income in relation to its sales.

518
Q

profit-sharing plan

A

an employee benefit plan established and maintained by an employer whereby the employees receive a share of the business’s profits. the money many be paid directly to the employees or deferred until retirement. a combination of both approaches is also possible.

519
Q

progressive tax

A

a tax that takes a larger percentage of the income of high-income earner than that of low-income earners. an example is the graduated income tax.

520
Q

proscribed

A

a term commonly used in legal situations to describe a prohibited action.

521
Q

prospectus

A

any notice, circular, advertisement, letter, or communication, in written form or by radio or television, which offers any security for sale.

522
Q

proxy

A

a limited power of attorney from a stockholder authorizing another person to vote on stockholder issues according to the first stockholer’s instructions. to vote on corporate. matters, a stockholder must either attend the annual meeting or vote by proxy.

523
Q

prudent expert rule

A

a modern application of the prudent man rule to those with fiduciary responsibility over qualified plans coming under the jurisdiction of ERISA.

524
Q

prudent investor rule

A

legally known as the Uniform Prudent Investors Act (UPIA). a modern adaption of the prudent man rule, which, as a result of the development of modern portfolio theory, applies the standard of prudence to the entire portfolio rather than to individual investments. it requires the fiduciary to measure risk with respect to return.

525
Q

public offering

A

the sale of an issue of common stock, either by a corporation going public or by an offering of additional shares.

526
Q

public offering price (POP)

A

(1) the price of new shares that is established in. the issuing corporation’s prospectus.
(2) the price to investors for mutual fund shares, equal to the net asset value plus the sales charge.

527
Q

purchasing power risk

A

the potential that, because of inflation, a certain amount of money will not purchase as much in the future as it does today;
inflation risk

528
Q

put

A

(1) an option contract giving the owner the right to sell a certain amount of an underlying security at a specified price within a specified time.
(2) the act of exercising a put option.

529
Q

QLAC

A

a qualified longevity annuity contract. if certain limits prescribed by the IRS are met, RMDs do not have to include the value of these contracts until age 85.

530
Q

QTIP trust

A

a trust that is funded with qualified terminable interest property, meaning that the spouse’s interest in the property terminates upon his death; also known as a Q trust, C trust, or current income trust.

531
Q

Qualified Domestic Relations Orders (QDROs)

A

premature distributions that are taken pursuant to a qualified domestic relations order, or QDRO, are exempt from the 10% penalty. a QDRO is a court-issued order that gives someone the right to an individual’s qualified plan assets, typically an ex- (or soon-to-be-ex-) spouse, and the QDRO is usually issued in the course of divorce proceedings or to satisfy child support obligations. a QDRO applies only to assets in a qualified employer plan; it would not be applicable to an IRA or a SEP.

532
Q

qualified person

A

under both state and federal law, a client for whom an investment adviser may charge performance-based fees. currently, the requirements are a minimum net worth of $2.1 million or at least $1 million in AUM with that adviser.

533
Q

qualified retirement plan

A

a corporate retirement plan that meets the standards set by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974. contributions to a qualified plan are tax deductible;

approved plan

534
Q

qualified tuition program

A

the technical name for 529 plans;

QTP

535
Q

quick asset ratio

A

a more stringent test of liquidity than the current ratio. it is computed. bytaking the current assets, less the inventory, and dividing by the current liabilities;

acid test ratio

536
Q

quick ratio

A

acid test ratio; quick asset ratio

537
Q

quotation

A

the price or bid a market maker or broker-dealer offers for a particular security;

quote

538
Q

quote machine

A

a computer that provides representatives and market makers with the information that appears on the Consolidated Tape. the information on the screen is condensed into symbols and numbers.

539
Q

rating

A

an evaluation of a corporate or municipal bond’s relative safety, according to the issuer’s ability to repay principal and make interest payments. bonds are rated by various organizations, such as Standard & Poor’s and Moody’s. Ratings range from AAA or Aaa (the highest) to C or D, which represents a company in default.

540
Q

rating service

A

a company, such as Moody’s or Standard & Poor’s, that rates various debt and preferred stock issues for safety of payment of principal, interest, or divided. the issuing company or municipality pays a fee for the rating.

541
Q

real estate investment trust (REIT)

A

a corporation or trust that uses teh pooled capital of many investors to invest in direct ownership or either income property or mortageg loans. these investments offer tax benefits in addition to interest and capital gains distributions. however, unlike DPP’s, these are not “flow-through” vehicles.

542
Q

realized gain

A

the amount a taxpayer earns when he sells an asset.

543
Q

recession

A

a general economic decline lasting from 6 to 18 months (at least two consecutive quarters of declining or negative GDP growth).

544
Q

record date

A

the date a corporation’s board of directors establishes that determines which of its stockholders are entitled to receive dividend distributions or be eligible to vote.

545
Q

redeemable security

A

a security that the issuer redeems upon the holder’s request.

examples: shares in an open-investment company; Treasury notes.

546
Q

redemption

A

the return of an investor’s principal in a security, such as a bond, preferred stock, or mutual fund shares. by law, redemption of mutual fund shares must occur within seven days of receiving the investor’s request for redemption.

547
Q

refunding

A

retiring an outstanding bond issue before maturity by using money from the sale of a new debt offering.

548
Q

regional exchange

A

a stock exchange that services the financial community in a particular region of the country. these exchanges tend to focus on securities issued within their regions, but also offer trading in NYSE and Nasdaq-listed securities.

549
Q

registration by coordination

A

a process that allows a security to be sold in a state. it is available to an issuer that files for the security’s registration under the Securities Act of 1033 and files duplicates of the registration documents with the state Administrator. the state registration becomes effective at the same time the federal registration statement becomes effective as long as paperwork is on file with the Administrator for the required period, which ranges from 10 to 20 days depending on the state.

550
Q

registration by qualification

A

a process that allows a security to be sold in a state. it is available to an issuer who files for the security’s registration with the state Administrator, meets minimum bet worth, disclosure, and other requirements, and files appropriate registration fees. the state registration becomes effective when the Administrator so orders.

551
Q

registration statement

A

the legal document that discloses all pertinent information concerning an offering of a security and its issuer. it is submitted to the SEC (and/or the Administrator) in accordance with the requirements of the Securities Act of 1933 and/or the USA, and it forms the basis of the final prospectus distributed to investors.

552
Q

regnant

A

considered to be the ruling or general position, such as the pregnant view on registration requirements.

553
Q

regressive tax

A

a tax that takes a larger percentage of the income of low-income earners than that of high-income earners;
examples: gasoline and cigarette tax

554
Q

regulated investment company

A

an investment company to which Subchapter M of the Internal Revenue Code grants special status that allows the flow-through of tax consequences on a distribution to shareholders. if 90% of its income is passed through to the shareholders, the company is not subject to tax on this income.

555
Q

Regularion D

A

the provision of the Securities Act of 1033 that exempts from registration offerings sold in private placements. Rule 506(b) liomits the sale to a minimum of 35 nonaccredited investors during a 12-month period with no advertising permitted. while Rule 506(c) permits advertising but requires that all purchasers be accredited investors.

556
Q

Regulation T

A

the Federal Reserve Board regulation that governs customer cash accounts and the amount of credit that brokerage firms and dealers may extend to customers for the purchase of securities. Regulation T currently sets the loan value of marginable securities at 50% and the payment deadline at two days beyond regular way settlement;

Reg T

557
Q

regulatory risk

A

the risk that changes in regulations may negatively affect the operations of a company.

558
Q

reinstatement privilege

A

a benefit offered by some mutual funds, allowing an investor to withdraw money from a fund account and then redeposit the money without paying a second sales charge.

559
Q

remainderman

A

the person who inherits or is entitled under law to inherit property upon termination of the estate of the former owner. usually, this occurs due to the death or termination of the former owner’s life estate.

560
Q

remuneration

A

money paid for work performed or a service provided.

561
Q

repurchase agreement

A

sometimes just referred to as a REPO, this is widely used in the money market where the seller of a security agrees to buy it back (repurchase it) at a higher price (the imputed interest rate).

562
Q

required minimum distribution (RMD)

A

the amount that traditional and SEP IRA owners and qualified plan participants must begin withdrawing from their retirement accounts by April 1, following the year they reach are 70 1/2. exceptions apply to those covered under a qualified plan who are still employed. RMD amounts must then be distributed by December 31 that year and each subsequent year.

563
Q

reserve requirement

A

the percentage of depositors’ money that the Federal Reserve Board requires a commercial bank to keep on deposit in the form of cash or in its vault;

reserves

564
Q

residual claim

A

the right of a common stockholder to corporate assets in the event that the corporation ceases to exist. a common stockholder may claim assets only after the claims of all creditors and other security holders have been satisfied.

565
Q

resistance level

A

a technical analysis term describing. thetop of a stock’s historical trading range.

566
Q

restricted security

A

an unregistered, nonexempt security acquired either directly or indirectly from the issuer, or an affiliate of the issuer, in a transaction that does not involve a public offering.

567
Q

retained earnings

A

the amount of a corporation’s net income that remains after all dividends have been paid to preferred and common stockholders;

earned surplus; reinvested earnings

568
Q

retiring bonds

A

ending an issuer’s debt obligation by calling the outstanding bonds, by purchasing bonds in the open market, or by repaying bondholders the principal amount at maturity

569
Q

return on common equity

A

a measure of. acorporation’s profitability, calculated by dividing after-tax income by common shareholders’ equity.

570
Q

return on equity

A

a measure of a corporation’s profitability, specifically in return on assets, calculated by dividing after-tax income by tangible assets.

571
Q

return on investment (ROI)

A

the profit or loss resulting from a security transaction, often expressed as an annual percentage rate.

572
Q

revenue bond

A

a municipal debt issue whose interest and principal are payable only from the specific earnings of an income-producing public project.

573
Q

reverse churning

A

the prohibited practice of parking assets that will only by traded infrequently in a fee-based advisory account.

574
Q

reverse split

A

a reduction in the number of a corporation’s shares outstanding that increases the par value of its stock or its earnings per share. the market value of the total number of shares remains the same.

575
Q

revocable trust

A

a trust that can be altered or canceled by. the grantor. during the life of the trust, income earned is distributed to the grantor, and only after death does property transfer to the beneficiaries.

576
Q

right

A

a security representing a stockholder’s entitelement to the first opportunity to purchase new shares issued by the corporation at a predetermined price (normally less than the current market price) in proportion to the number of shares already owned. rights are issued for a short time only, after which they expire;

subscription right; subscription right certificate

577
Q

right of accumulation

A

a benefit offered by a mutual fund that allows the investor to qualify for reduced sales loads on additional purchases according to the fund account’s total dollar value.

578
Q

risk-adjusted return

A

return from a security adjusted for the market risk associated with it. usually measured by the Sharpe ratio.

579
Q

risk-free rate

A

generally refers to the interest rate of 13 week (91-day) U.S. Treasury bills.

580
Q

risk premium

A

the amount in excess of the risk-free rate demanded by investors to compensate for the additional risks inherent in the specific security being described.

581
Q

risk tolerance

A

an investor’s ability and willingness to lose some or all of the original investment in exchange for greater potential returns. an aggressive investor, or one with a high risk tolerance, is more likely to risk losing money in order to get better results. a conservative investor, or one with a low-risk tolerance, tends to favor investments that will preserve the original investment.

582
Q

Roth 401(k)

A

as with a Roth IRA, contributions are not tax deductible, but qualified withdrawals are free from income tax. there are no earnings limits in order to participate, but it is required that distributions begin no later than age 70 1/2.

583
Q

Roth IRA

A

funded with after-tax contributions, but, if qualfiied, withdrawals are tax-free. there are earnings limits but no required distributions at age 70 1/2.

584
Q

Rule 144

A

SEC rule requiring that persons whos hold control or restricted securities may sell them only in limited quantities, and that all sales of restricted stock by control person must be reported to the SEC by filing a Form 144, Notice of Proposed Sale of Securities.

585
Q

Rule 147

A

SEC rule that provides exemption from the registration statement and prospectus requirements of the 1933 Act for securities offered and sold exclusively intrastate.

586
Q

safe harbor

A

a provision in a regulatory scheme that provides protection against legal action if stated procedures are followed. in this exam, it may apply in three different cases:

(1) Section 28(e) of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 describes those research and brokerage activities that may be received by an investment adviser in exchange for directed brokerage transactions;
(2) Section 404c of ERISA which describes what a fiduciary of a qualified plan must do to minimize personal responsibility;
(3) top-heavy 401(k) concerns are minimized if the employer covers all employees with immediate vesting

587
Q

sales load

A

the amount adde to a mutual fund share’s net asset value to arrive at the offering price

588
Q

Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees

A

a form of employer sponsored IRA for businesses that have 100 or fewer employees who earned $5,000 or more during the preceding calendar year. in addition, the employer cannot currently have another retirement plan.

589
Q

S corporation

A

a small business corporation that meets certain requirements and is taxed as a partnership while retaining limited liability;

Subchapter S corporation

590
Q

Schedule K-1

A

the form supplied by a partnership, LLC, or S corporation to owners indicating their proportionate share of income/loss to be reported on their Form 1040 tax returns

591
Q

secondary distribuition

A

a distribition, with a prospectus, that incolves securities owned by major stockholders (typically founders or principal owners of a corporation). the sale proceeds go to the sellers of the stock, not the issuer.

592
Q

secondary market

A

the market in which secuirities are bougth and sold subsequent to their being sold to the public for the first time.

593
Q

secondary offeting

A

a sale of securities in which one or more major stockholders in a company sell all or a large portion of their holdings; the underwriting proceeds are paid to the stockholders rather than to the corporation. typically, such an offering occurs when the founder of a business (and perhaps some of the original financial backers) determine that there is more to be gained by going public rather than staying private. the offering does not increase the number of shares of stock outstanding.

594
Q

Section 457 Plan

A

a deferred compensation plan set up under Section 457 of the tax code that may be used by employees of a state, political subdivision of a state, and any agency or instrumentality of a state. this plan may also be offered to employees of certain tax-exempt organizations (hospitals, charitable organizations, unions, and so forth), but not churches. even independent contractors may be covered under these plans.

595
Q

Section 28(e)

A

a code section of the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 that deals with soft dollar compensation.

596
Q

sector fund

A

a mutual fund whose investment objective is to capitalize on the return potential provided by investing primarily in a particular industry or sector of the economy;

industry fund; specialized fund

597
Q

sector rotation

A

an active portfolio management technique that attempts to take advantage of the fact that different sectors of the economy rise and fall in the business cycle at different times. rotating from one to the other at the right times can lead to investment success;

sector rotating

598
Q

secured bond

A

a debt security backed by identifiable assets set aside as collateral. in the event that the issuer defaults on payment, the bondholders may lay claim to the collateral

599
Q

Securities Act of 1933

A

Federal legislation requiring the full and fair disclosure of all material information about the issuance of new securities;

Act of 1933; Full Disclosure Act; New Issues Act; Prospecus Act; Trust in Securities Act; Truth in Securities Act

600
Q

Securities Amendmentd Act of 1975

A

Federal legislation that established the Municipal Securities Rulemaking Board

601
Q

Securities and Exchange Commision (SECO

A

commission created by Congress to regulate the securities markets and protect investors. it is composed of five commissioners appointed by the President of the US with the advice and consent of the Senate. the SEC enforced, among other acts, the Securities Act of 1933, the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, the Trust Indenture Act of 1939, the Investment Company Act of 1940, and the Investment Advisers Act of 1940.

602
Q

Securities Exchange Act of 1934

A

Federal legislation that established the SEC. the act aims to protect investors by regulating the exchanges, the OTC, the extension of credit by the Federal Reserve Board, broker-dealers, insider transactions, trading activities, client accounts, and net capital;

Act of 1934; Exchange Act

603
Q

Securities Information Processor (SIP)

A

a system that consolidates quote and trade data for U.S. stocks.

604
Q

Securities Investor Protection Corporation (SIPC)

A

a nonprofit membership corporation created by an act of Congress to protect clients of brokerage firms that are forced into bankruptcy. membership is composed of all brokers and dealers registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934, all members of national securities exchanges, and most FINRA members. SIPC provides brokerage firm customers up to $500,000 coverage for cash and securities held by the firms (although cash coverage is limited to $250,000).

605
Q

security

A

other than an insurance policy or a fixed annuity, any piece of securitized paper that can be traded for value.
under the USA this includes any note; stock; treasury stock; bond; debenture; evidence of indebtness; certificate of interest or participation in any profit-sharing agreement; collateral-trust certificate; reorganization certificate or subscription; transferable share; investment contract; voting-trust certificate; certificate of deposit for a security; certificate of interest or participation in an oil, gas, or mining title or lease; or, in general, any interest or instrument commonly known as a security, or any certificate of interest or participation in, temporary or interim certificate for, receipt for, guarantee of, or right to subscribe to or purchase, any of the foregoing.

606
Q

security market index

A

used to represent the performane of an asset class, security market, or segment of a market. they are usually created as portfolios of individual securities, which are referred to as the constituent securities of the index. an index has a numerical value that is calculated from the market prices (actual when available, or estimated) of its constituent securities at a point in time. an index return is the percentage change in the index’s value over a period of time.

popular examples: S&P 500 and the Russell 2000

607
Q

self-regulatory oragnization (SRO)

A

one of eight organizations accountable to the SEC for the enforcement of federal securities laws and the supervision of securities practices within an assigned field of jurisdiction. for example, the National Association of Securities Dealers regulates the over-the-counter market; the Municipal Secureities Rulemaking Board supervises state and municipal securities; and certain stock exchanges, such as the New York Stock Exchange and the Chicago Board Options Exchange, act as self-regulatory bodies to promote ethical conduct and standard trading practices.

608
Q

sell

A

to convey ownership of a security or another asset for money or value. this includes giving or delivering a security with or as a bonus for a purchase of securities, a gift of assessable stock, and selling or offering a warrant or right to purchase or subscribe to another security. not included in the definition is a bona fide pledge or loan or a stock dividend if nothing of value is given by the stockholders for the dividend;

sale

609
Q

selling away

A

an associated person engaged in private securities transactions without the employing broker-dealer’s knowledge and consent. this violates the NASAA Policy on prohibited practices.

610
Q

selling dividends

A

inducing customers to buy mutual fund shares by implying than an upcoming distribution will benefit them. this practice is illegal.

611
Q

sell stop order

A

an order to sell a security that is entered at a price below the current market price and that is triggered when the market price touches or goes through the sell stop price.

612
Q

senior security

A

a security that grants its holder a prior claim to the issuer’s assets over the claims of another security’s holders. for example, a bond is a senior security over common stock.

613
Q

separate account

A

the account that holds funds paid by variable annuity contract holders. the funds are kept separate from the insurer’s general account and are invested in a portfolio of securities that match the contract holders’ objectives.

614
Q

settlor

A

an individual or organization that gifts assets to a beneficiary by transferring fiduciary duty to a third-party trustee that will maintain the assets for the benefit of the beneficiaries;

grantor, trustor

615
Q

Sharpe ratio

A

measures the risk adjusted return of an investment. it is calculated by dividing the excess return of an asset over the 91-day Treasury bill rate by its standard deviation. it measures the reward per unity of risk so the higher the ratiom the better.

616
Q

short

A

teh term used to describe the selling of a security, contract, or commodity that the seller does not own. for example, an investor who borrows shares of stock from a broker-dealer and sells them on the open market is said to have a short position in the stock.

617
Q

short sale

A

the sale of a security that the seller does not own, or any sale consummated by the delivery of a security borrowed by or for the account of the seller.

618
Q

short-term capital gain

A

the profit realized on the sale of an asset that has been owned for 12 months or less.

619
Q

short-term capital loss

A

the loss incurred on the sale of a capital asset that has been owned for 12 months or less.

620
Q

side-by-side management

A

the practice of managing accounts that are charged performance-based fees while at the same time managing accounts that are not charged performance-based fees.

621
Q

SIMPLE plan

A

Savings Incentive Match Plan for Employees

622
Q

simple trust

A

a trust that accumulates income and distributes it to its beneficiaries on an annual basis.

623
Q

small-cap

A

stocks with a market capitalization of $300 million to $2 billion.

624
Q

socially responsible investing (SRI)

A

also known as sustainable, socially conscious, “green” or ethical investing–is an impact investment strategy which seeks to consider both financial return and social good. in general, socially responsible investors encourage corporate practices that promote environmental stewardship, consumer protection, human rights, and diversity.

625
Q

soft dollar compensation

A

noncash compensation received by an investment adviser from a broker-dealer, generally in exchange for directed brokerage transactions. must always be disclosed and should come under the safe harbor provisions of Section 28(e).

626
Q

soliciter

A

a person either contracted or employed by an IA for the purpose of bringing in advisory business. if an employee, registration as an IAR is required. if contracted, the person must not be statutorily disqualified from registration and is subject to the terms of a written agreement between the IA and the solicitor.

627
Q

solvency

A

the ability of a corporation to both meet its long-term fixed expenses and to have adequate money for long-term expansion and growth.

628
Q

specialist

A

stock exchange member who stands ready to quote and trade certain securities either fro his own account or for customer accounts. the specialist’s role is to maintain a fair and orderly market in the stocks for which he is responsible;

designated market maker, DMM

629
Q

special situation fund

A

a mutual fund whose objective is to capitalize on the profit potential of corporations in nonrecurring circumstances, such as those undergoing reorganizations or being considered as takeover candidates.

630
Q

speculation

A

trading a security with a higher than average risk in return for a higher than average profit potential. the trade is effected solely for the purpose of profiting from it and not as a means of hedging or protecting other positions.

631
Q

spousal IRA

A

a separate individual retirement account established for a spouse with little or no earned income. contributions to the account made by the working spouse grow tax deferred until withdrawal.

632
Q

spread

A

in quotation, the difference between a security’s bid and ask prices.

633
Q

Standard & Poor’s Composite Index of 500 Stocks (S&P 500)

A

a value-weighted index that offers broad coverage of the securities market. it is composed of 400 industrial stocks, 40 financial stocks, 40 public utility stocks, and 20 transportation stocks. the index is owned and compiled by Standard & Poor’s Corporation.

634
Q

Standard & Poor’s Corporation (S&P)

A

a company that rates stocks and corporate and municipal bonds according to risk profiles and that produces and tracks the S&P indexes. the company also publishes a variety of financial and investment reports:

  • Moody’s Investors Service;
  • Standard & Poor’s 100 Stock Index;
  • Standard & Poor’s Composite Index of 500 stocks.
635
Q

standard deviation

A

a measurement of a security’s or a portfolio’s total risk. the greater the standard deviation, the more the securtiy’s returns deviate from its average return, hence indicating greater volatility.

636
Q

standardized contract

A

a futures contract in which all the contract terms are set by the exchange except for price.

637
Q

standardized options

A

options contracts trading on a national securities exchange, or an automated quotation system of a registered securities association, which relate to options classes the terms of which are limited to specific expiration dates and exercise prices.

638
Q

static content

A

social mediat content that rarely changes and can only be changed by the author of the content. examples would be an IA’s website.

639
Q

stock certificate

A

printed evidence of ownership in a corporation.

640
Q

stock dividend

A

a dividend paid in additional shares of the issuer’s stock rather than in cash. unlike cash dividends, stock dividends are not taxable when received. they lower the cost basis of the current shareholdings and are only subject to capital gains tax when sold.

641
Q

stock exchange

A

any organization, association, or group of persons that maintains or provides a marketplace in which securities can be bought and sold;

examples:
- New York Stock Exchange (NYSE);
- London Stock Exchange (LSE);
- Tokyo Stock Exchange (TSE)

642
Q

stock split

A

an increase in the number of a corporation’s outstanding shares, which decreases its stock’s par value. the market value of the total number of shares remains the same. the proportional reductions in orders heldon the books for a split stock are calculated by dividing the stock’s market price by the fraction that represents the split.

643
Q

stop limit order

A

a customer order that becomes a limit order when the market price of the security reaches or passes a specific price by the fraction that represents the split.

644
Q

stop order

A

(1) a directive from the SEC or the Administrator that suspends the sale of new issue securities to the public when fraud is suspected or filing materials are deficient;
(2) a customer order that becomes a market order when the market price of the security reaches or passes a specific price

645
Q

street name

A

term used in the industry to refer to customer securities held in the name of the broker-dealer as nominee.

646
Q

subordinated debenture

A

a debt obligation, backed by the general credit of the issuing corporation, that has claims to interest and principal subordinated to ordinary debentures and all other liabilities.

647
Q

successor firm

A

a new entity which takes over (succeeds) an existing one and continues the business, generally under a new name.

648
Q

suitability

A

a determination made by an agent as to whether a particular security matches a customer’s objectives and financial capability. the agent must have enough information about the customer to make this judgment.

649
Q

supply

A

the total amount of a good or service available for purchase by consumers.

650
Q

supply-side theory

A

an economic theory holding that bolstering an economy’s ability to supply more goods is the most effective way to stimulate economic growth. supply-side theorists advocate income tax reduction insofar as this increases private investment corporations, facilities, and equipment.

651
Q

support level

A

a technical analysis term describing the bottom of a stock’s historical trading range.

652
Q

systematic risk

A

the potential for a security to decrease in value owing its inherent tendency to move together with all securities of the same type. neither diversification nor any other investment strategy can eliminate this risk. systematic risks are sometimes referred to as external risk factors because they take place outside of the company being analyzed.

653
Q

taxable gain

A

the portion of a sale or distribution of mutual fund shares subject to taxation.

654
Q

tax credit

A

an amount that can be subtracted from a tax liability, often in connection with real-estate development, energy conservation, and research and development programs. every dollar of tax credit reduces the amount of tax due, dollar for dollar.

655
Q

tax-equivalent yield

A

the rate of return a taxable bond must earn before taxes in order to equal the tax-exempt earnings on a municipal bond. this number varies with the investor’s tax bracket.

656
Q

tax-exempt bond fund

A

a mutual fund whose investment objective is to provide maximum tax-free income. it invests primarily in municipal bonds and short-term debt;

tax-free bond fund

657
Q

tax liability

A

the amount of tax payable on earnings, usually calculated by subtracting standard and itemized deductions and personal exemptions from adjusted gross income, then multiplying by the tax rate.

658
Q

tax preference item

A

an element of income that receives favorable tax treatment. the item must be added to taxable income when computing alternative minimum tax. tax preference items include accelerated depreciation on property, research and development costs, intangible drilling costs, tax-exempt interest on municipal private purpose bonds, and certain incentive stock options.

659
Q

tax-sheltered annuity (TSA)

A

an annuity contract that entitles the holder to exclude all contributions from gross income in the year they are made. taxes payable on the earnings are deferred until the holder withdraws funds at retirement. TSAs are available primarily through a 403(b) plan to employees of public schools, church organizations, and other tax-exempt organizations;

tax-deferred annuity

660
Q

technical analysis

A

a method of evaluating securities by analyzing statistics generated by market activity, such as past prices and volume. technical analysts do no attempt to measure a security’s intrinsic value.

661
Q

Telephone Consumer Protection Act of 1991 (TCPA)

A

federal legislation restricting the use of telephone lines for solicitation purposes. a company soliciting sales via telephone, facsimile, or email must disclose its name and address to the called party and must not call any person who has requested not to be called.

662
Q

tenants in common (TIC)

A

a form of joint ownershiop of an account whereby a deceased tenant’s fractional interest in the account is retained by his estate.

663
Q

tenants by the entirety

A

a form of joint ownership only availble to married couples. unlike other forms, it requires consent of both parties in order to effect transactions.

664
Q

tergiversation

A

the practice of continually changing one’s mind, attitude, or opinion.

665
Q

testamenary trust

A

a trust created as a result of instructions from a deceased’s last will and testament.

666
Q

testator

A

the legal term for a person who makes a will.

667
Q

testimonai

A

an endorsement of an investment service by a celebrity or public opinion influencer. the use of testimonials by IAs is prohibited.

668
Q

theta

A

one of the four Greeks used by options analysts. an option’s theta is a measurement of the option’s time decay. the theta measures the rate at which options lose their value, specifically the time value, as the expiration date draws nearer. generally expressed as a negative number, the theta of an option reflects the amount by which the option’s value will decrease every day.

669
Q

time horizon

A

the expected numebr of months, years, or decades over which the investments will be made to achieve a particular financial goal.

an investor with a longer time horizon may feel more comfortable taking on a riskier, more volatile, investment because that investor can wait out slow economic cycles and the inevitable ups and downs of our markets.

by contrast, an investor saving up for a teenager’s college education would likely take on less risk because of the shorter time horizon.

670
Q

time value

A

the amount an investor pays for an option above its intrinsic value; it reflects the amount of time left until expiration. the amount is calculated by subtracting the intrinsic value from the premium paid.

671
Q

tombstone advertisement

A

a printed advertisement that is used to generate interest in a securities offering. the text is limited to basic information about the offering, such as the name of the issuer, type of security, names of the underwriters, and where a prospectus is available. a tombstone ad is not considered to be an offering of the subject security.

672
Q

top heavy

A

the term used to describe a 401(k) plan that offers a disproportionate benefit to key employees. topheavy testing must be done on an annual basis unless the plan qualifies as a safe harbor 401(k)

673
Q

total capitalization

A

the sum of a corporation’s long-term debt, stock accounts, and capital in excess of par.

674
Q

total risk

A

(as measured by standard deviation) can be broken down into its component parts: unsystemmatic risk and systematic risk. that is,

total risk = systematic risk + unsystematic risk

675
Q

toxic debt

A

debt whose quality has dropped and is now indicating a high likelihood of default. this can be toxic for the investor’s portfolio.

676
Q

tranche

A

a class of bonds. collateralized mortgage obligations are structured with several tranches of bonds that have various maturities. it comes from the French word for slice.

677
Q

transfer agent

A

a person or corporation responsible for recording the names and holdings of registered security owners, seeing that certificates are signed by the appropriate corporate officers, affixing the corporate seal, and delivering securities to the new owners.

678
Q

Treasury bill

A

a marketable U.S. government debt security with a maturity of less than one year. Treasury bills are issued through a competitive bidding process at a discount from par; they have no fixed interest rate;

T-bill

679
Q

Treasury bond

A

a marketable, fixed-interest U.S. government debt security with a maturity of more than 10 years;

T-bond

680
Q

Treasury note

A

a marketable, fixed-interest U.S. government debt security with a maturity of between 2 and 10 years;

T-note

681
Q

trendline

A

a tool used by technical analysts to trace a security’s movement by connecting the reaction lows in an upward trend or the rally highs in a downward trend.

682
Q

trough

A

the end of a period of declining business activity throughout the economy, one of the four stages of the business cycle.

683
Q

trustee

A

a person legally appointed to act on a beneficiary’s behalf.

684
Q

trustor

A

an individual or organization that gifts assets to a beneficiary by transferring fiduciary duty to a third-party trustee that will maintain the assets for the benefit of the beneficiaries;

settlor, grantor

685
Q

12b-1 asset-based fees

A

Investment Company Act of 1940 provision that allows a mutual fund to collect a fee for the promotion or sale of or another activity connected with the distribution of its shares;
this fee will not exceed .75%.

686
Q

underlying securities

A

the securities that are bought or sold when an option, right, or warrant is exercised.

687
Q

underwriter

A

an investment banker that works with an issuer to help bring a security to the market and sell it to the public.

688
Q

underwriting

A

the procedure by which investment bankers channel investment capital from investors to corporations and municipalities that are issuing securities.

689
Q

unearned income

A

income derived from investments and other sources not related to employment services.

examples:

  • interest from a savings account;
  • bond interest;
  • dividends from stock
690
Q

Unifrom Gift to Minors Act (UGMA)

A

legislation that permits a gift of money or securities to be given to a minor and held in a custodial account that an adult manages for the minor’s benefit. income and capital gains transferred to a minor’s name are usually taxed at the minor’s rate. however, if the child is undeer a specified age and has unearned income above a certain level, those earnings are taxed as trust rates.

691
Q

Uniform Securities Act (USA)

A

model legislation for securities industry regulation at the state level. each. state may adopt the legislation in its entirety or may adapt it (within limits) to suit its needs.

692
Q

Uniform Transers to Minors Act (UTMA)

A

legislation adopted in most states that permits a gift of money or securities to be given to a minor and held in a custodial account that an adult manages for the minor’s benefit until the minor reaches a certain age (not necessarily the age of majority). income and capital gains transferred to a minor’s name are usually taxed at the minor’s rate. however, just as with UGMA, if the child is under a specified age and has unearned income above a certain level, those earnings are taxed at trust rates.

693
Q

unit

A

a share in the ownership of a direct participation program that entitles the investor to an interest in the program’s net income, net loss, and distributions.

694
Q

unit investmetn trust (UIT)

A

an investment company that sells redeemable shares in a professionally selected portfolio of securities. it is organized under a trust indenture, not a corporate charter.

695
Q

unit of beneficial interest

A

a redeemable share in a unit investment trust, representing ownership of an undivided interest in the underlying portfolio;

share of beneficial interest

696
Q

unrealized gain

A

the amount by which a security appreciates in value before it is sold. until it is sold, the investor does not actually possess the sale proceeds.

697
Q

unsystematic risk

A

the potential for an unforseen event to affect the value of a specific investment; this risk is diversifiable. sometimes referred to as internal risk factors because they deal with risk arising from events taking place within the company;

nonsytematic risk;

examples:

  • strikes
  • natural disasters
  • poor management decisions
  • introductions of new product lines
  • attempted takeovers
698
Q

U.S. government and agency bond fund

A

a mutual fund whose investment objective is to provide current income while preserving safety of capital through investing in securities backed by the U.S. Treasury or issued by a government agency.

699
Q

value style investing

A

a management style that looks for stocks currently selling at distressed prices that have solid underlying fundamentals. these stocks typically sell at the lower end of their 52-week price range and have low P/E ratios and higher than average dividend payout ratios.

700
Q

vega

A

one of the four Greeks used by options analysts. an option’s vega is a measure of the impact of changes in the underlying volatility on the option price. specifically, the vega of an option expresses the change in the price of the option for every 1% change in underlying volatility.

701
Q

vesting

A

(1) an ERISA guideline stipulating that employees must be entitled to0 their entire retirement benefits within a certain period of time even if no longer employed
(2) the amount of time that an employee must work before retirement or before benefit plan contributions made by the employer become the employee’s property without penatly. the IRS and the Employee Retirement Income Security ct of 1974 set minimum requirements for vesting in a qualified plan.

702
Q

volatility

A

the magnitude and frequency of changes in the price of a security or commodity within a given period.

703
Q

volume of trading theory

A

a technical analysis theory holding that the ratio of the number of shares traded to total outstanding shares indicates whether a market is strong or weak.

704
Q

voting trust certificate

A

a certificate issued by a voting trustee to the beneficial holders of shares held by the voting trust. it is readily transferable and is considered a security.

705
Q

warrant

A

a security that gives the holder the right to purchase securities from the warrant issuer at a stipulated subscription price. warrants are usually long-term instruments, with wash salexpiration dates years in the future.

706
Q

wash sale

A

selling a security at a loss for tax purposes and, within 30 days before or after, purchasing the same or a substantially identical security. the IRS disallows the claimed loss.

707
Q

wash trade

A

occurs when a customer neters a purchase order and a sale order from the same security at the time same time. it is done to create a false appearance of activity in a security. this is a prohibited practice.

708
Q

Wells notice

A

indicates that the regulator intends to bring an enforcement action against an individual or a business. if the notice is against a publicly traded company, it usually has the effect of depressing the current market price.

709
Q

Wilshire 5000

A

the Wilshire 5000 Total Market Index represents the broadest index for the U.S> equity market, measuring the performance of all U.S> equity securities with readily available price data. as of the date of printing, it includes some 3,700 issues.

710
Q

withdrawal plan

A

a benefit offered by a mutual fund whereby a customer receives the proceeds of periodic systematic liquidation of shares in the account. the amounts received may be based on a fixed dollar amount, a fixed number of shares, a fixed percentage, or a fixed period.

711
Q

working capital

A

a measure of a corporation’s liquidty – that is, its ability to transfer assets into cash to meet current short-term obligations. it is calculated by subtracting total current liabilities from total current assets.

712
Q

wrap fee program

A

any advisory program under which a specified fee or fees not based directly upon transactions in a client’s account is charged for investment advisory services (which may include portfolio management or advice concerning the selection of other iAs) and the execution of client transactions. the exclusion from the definition of IA available under both state and federal law to broker-dealers is not in effect for those offering wrap free programs.

713
Q

yield

A

the rate of return on an investment, usually expressed as an annual percentage rate.

714
Q

yield curve

A

a graphic representation of the actual or projected yields of fixed-income securities in relation to their maturities. in most cases, the securities of a single issuer are plotted over varying maturities.

715
Q

yield spread

A

the difference in y ield between two debt securities, usually with similar quality and different maturities or similar maturities and different quality;

credit spread

716
Q

yield to call (YTC)

A

the rate of return on a bond that accounts for the difference between the bond’s acquisition cost and its proceeds, including interest income, calculated to the earliest date that the bond may be called by the issuing corporation.

717
Q

yield to maturity (TYM)

A

the rate of return on a bond that accounts for. the difference between the bond’s acquisition cost and its maturity proceeds, including interest income.

718
Q

zero-coupon bond

A

a debt security usually issued at a deep discount from face value. the bond pays no interest; rather, it may be surrendered at maturity for its full face value. the duration of a zero-coupon bond is equal to its maturity.