Legal Knowledge CLAT Flashcards

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1
Q

Sushil Chandra takes over as the ___ CEC

A

24th

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2
Q

Limitation Act year

A

1963

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3
Q

Arbitration and Conciliation Act year

A

1996

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4
Q

Consensus Ad Idem meaning

A

agreeing to the same thing in the same sense

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5
Q

If a contract isn’t void ab initio, but becomes void later on, it is called

A

frustration of contract

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6
Q

How is fraud related to misrepresentation?

A

Fraud is deliberate misrepresentation

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7
Q

which is void - wager or contingent contract?

A

Wager

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8
Q

Article 12

A

Concept of State

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9
Q

Financial Emergency article

A

360

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10
Q

the first case towards the establishment of the “postal rule” for acceptance of an offer.

A

Adams v Lindsell, an English contract case

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11
Q

Where did we borrow the concept of DPSP from?

A

Ireland

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12
Q

The power of contempt is under which article?

A

Article 129

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13
Q

Article 19, 1 a

A

Freedom of speech and expression

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14
Q

Article 19, 1 g

A

Practise any profession, carry on any occupation, trade

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15
Q

Forest Rights Act (FRA) year?

A

2006

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16
Q

Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act year

A

2016

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17
Q

Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Bill, 2020 seeks to amend the:

A

Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971.

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18
Q

article 165

A

Governor appoints Advocate-General for the State.

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19
Q

Indian Contract Act was passed in ______

A

1872

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20
Q

The offeror is also called ______ and ______

A

promisor and proposer

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21
Q

The case of Donoghue v. Stevenson illustrates ___

A

the law of negligence, foundations of the fault principle

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22
Q

M.C. Mehta v. Shri Ram Foods and Fertilizer Industries

A

The case is related to Principle of absolute liability

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23
Q

The Indian Penal Code came into effect from ______

A

January 1, 1862

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24
Q

the law which created the mechanism for levying GST

A

The Constitution 101st amendment Act 2016

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25
Q

Constitution 26th Amendment Act, 1971

A

the privy purses and other privileges were abolished

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26
Q

Article 129 and 142(2) of the Indian Constitution

A

empowers the Supreme court to punish for its contempt

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27
Q

Coparcener is a term used for a person who:

A

assumes a legal right in parental property by birth only

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28
Q

GST Council is a constitutional body under _________

A

Article 279A

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29
Q

Smt Selvi and others v. State of Karnataka 2010

A

shaped laws relating to Brain Mapping, Narco-analysis

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30
Q

The State List or List-II is a list of ___ items currently

A

59 (101st Constitutional amendment deleted 52 and 55)

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31
Q

The Concurrent List is a list of __ items in ___ schedule

A

Seventh Schedule; a list of 52 items (though the last item is numbered 47)

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32
Q

The Indian Institute of Management Act, 2017 is an Indian legislation. The Act declared:

A

the Indian Institutes of Management as institutions of national importance

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33
Q

Irish Backstop is the draft agreement between the UK and the EU that aims to prevent:

A

a hard border (limited number of authorised crossing points staffed by officers) in Ireland after UK leaves EU.

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34
Q

Under the _________, England is meant to cooperate with ______ on any arrangements for Northern Ireland

A

EU Withdrawal Treaty

cooperate with Brussels (EU’s Headquarter)

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35
Q

The Withdrawal Agreement Bill passed its third and final reading in the House of Commons on _________

A

9 January 2020. (On 21 January 2020, the House of Lords passed the bill after approving five amendments)

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36
Q

The Brexit Financial Settlement (Divorce Bill) is a sum of money UK needs to pay to the EU for:

A

settling all shares of the financial obligations undertaken while being a member of the EU.

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37
Q

_____ was a peace agreement bw the British and Irish govts on how Northern Ireland should be governed.

A

The Good Friday Agreement

or the Belfast Agreement

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38
Q

State List

Entry 14

A

Agriculture, including agricultural education, research; protection against pests, prevention of plant diseases.

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39
Q

___ seeks to bypass middlemen and numerous cesses applicable to farmers selling produce in APMC mandis

A

The Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Ordinance, 2020

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40
Q

___ passed order designating all warehouses of FCI and state warehousing corporation as mandis, thus retaining power to charge mandi fees.

A

Rajasthan; Punjab might also be amending its mandi Act to declare the entire state a Principal Market Yard

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41
Q

______ vests the Supreme Court with original jurisdiction over any dispute arising between the states or between the centre and state

A

Article 131; Kerala has become the first state to move SC challenging CAA

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42
Q

______of the Indian Constitution provides that the trade, commerce and intercourse in the country should be free throughout the country.

A

Article 301 (If A lives in Maharashtra and wants to sell his goods to B who lives in MP, he can’t be restricted)

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43
Q

GIs have been defined under Article ___ of the ___ Agreement on Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement

A
Article 22 (1)
WTO Agreement
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44
Q

The Finance Commission is constituted by the President under ______, mainly to give its recommendations on distribution of tax revenues

A

article 280 of the Constitution

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45
Q

Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is defined in our Constitution under Article ___ of Directive Principles of State Policy

A

Article 44

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46
Q

The KBC petition was heard by a ___ bench, the largest-ever bench in the history of the Supreme Court.

A

13-member

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47
Q

Kesavananda Bharati vs. The State of Kerala is a major decision during _________’s tenure as chief justice

A

Sarv Mittra Sikri (was the 13th Chief Justice)

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48
Q

Election Commission of India operates under the authority of Constitution per which Article?

A

Article 324

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49
Q

Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 has come into force w effect from:

A

15 September 2003.

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50
Q

_________ ended the monopoly of the East India Company in India

A

Charter act of 1813

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51
Q

Section ___ is on punishment for defamation. In India, defamation is both civil and criminal offence.

A

500

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52
Q

Name the high court that has jurisdiction over the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh

A

The Allahabad High Court

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53
Q

Chairperson and members of the NHRC and SHRC will hold office for:

A

five years or till the age of 70 years, whichever is earlier.

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54
Q

_________ is a Somali lawyer and judge who is the current President of the International Court of Justice.

A

Abdulqawi Ahmed Yusuf

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55
Q

Dishonor of cheque was made an offence in the year 1988 under which Act?

A

Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881

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56
Q

The first Law Commission of independent India was established in ______ for a three-year term.

A

1955

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57
Q

The first Law Commission was established during the British Raj era in 1834 and was chaired by:

A

Lord Macaulay.

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58
Q

The ICJ has a total strength of 15 judges who are elected by members of the:

A

UN General Assembly and the Security Council

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59
Q

President of India appoints a person who is qualified for the post of _________ as the Attorney General

A

Supreme Court Judge

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60
Q

When did India enact Disaster Management Act, laying out an institutional framework for managing disasters

A

In 2005

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61
Q

In India, workers won the legal right to form trade unions in 1926, when the _________ was adopted.

A

Trade Union Act (TUA)

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62
Q

Under which Act the Company’s territories in India were termed ‘British possessions’?

A

Pitt’s India Act, 1784

Also known as the East India Company Act

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63
Q

_________ was passed by Lord Lytton and came to be nicknamed “the gagging Act”

A

Vernacular Press Act, 1878

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64
Q

Which High Court has quashed the Judicial Services Preliminary exam finding errors in the questions asked?

A

Chattisgarh High Court

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65
Q

Which Court has set aside 57 orders passed by a Foreigners Tribunal finding procedural irregularities?

A

Gauhati High Court

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66
Q

Appellate jurisdiction of the supreme court can be invoked under which Articles?

A

Article 132(1), 133(1) or 134 of the Constitution

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67
Q

Which Article provides that all persons have equal right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion?

A

Article 25

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68
Q

The six religions in India which have been awarded “National minority” status are Muslims, Christians and:

A

Sikhs, Jains, Buddhists, Zoroastrians.

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69
Q

Under Madhya Pradesh law, a person can be sentenced to ___ for converting unlawfully.

A

a jail term between one and five years

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70
Q

Article 356 was used for the first time in ______ on 20 June 1951.

A

Punjab

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71
Q

Proclamation of President’s Rule under Article 356 of the Constitution stands for how much time?

A

six months

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72
Q

MHA declared National Socialist Council of Nagaland (NSCN) as an unlawful association under which act?

A

Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act 1967

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73
Q

_____ was originally called the J&KState Land (Vesting of Ownership Rights to the Occupants) Act 2001

A

Roshni Act

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74
Q

A claim of non est factum means that the contract was signed by mistake, without knowledge of:

A

its meaning, nature of contract

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75
Q

Commission of the act abetted is _________ for the offence of abetment.

A

not necessary

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76
Q

The landmark judgement which decriminalizes adultery in India:

A

Joseph Shine v. Union of India

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77
Q

Under the offence of abduction, the victim can be of which age group?

A

can be both major or minor.

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78
Q

_________ of the Constitution grants the President certain law-making powers to promulgate ordinances

A

Article 123

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79
Q

_________ is a law which was first enacted to tackle bubonic plague in Mumbai in former British India

A

Epidemic Diseases Act, 1897

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80
Q

In 2010, Delhi High Court in ______ granted female SCC officers in the Army and Air Force the right to PC

A

Babita Puniya case

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81
Q

_________ is a landmark decision by the Supreme Court of India, which declared transgender people to be a ‘third gender’

A

National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India

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82
Q

The practice of a separate Railway Budget was started by the British in 1924 under the recommendation of
a 10-member _________ in 1920-21.

A

Acworth Committee

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83
Q

Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology banned Chinese mobile apps under Section 69A of which Act?

A

Information Technology Act (IT Act), 2000

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84
Q

The thermonuclear application makes Lithium as ‘Prescribed substance’ under ___ which permits AMD for exploration of Lithium in various geological domains

A

the Atomic Energy Act, 1962

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85
Q

EIA 2020 reduces opportunities for public participation by reducing the time window for public response to ___ days from the existing 30

A

20

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86
Q

The first constitution in the world which conferred the constitutional status to the environment protection is ______

A

India

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87
Q

The 2006 notification required that the project proponent submit a report every six months. However, the new EIA draft requires the promoter to submit it:

A

only once every year.

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88
Q

_________ is the defence in which the person who has committed a wrong is exempted from liability because the victim of such a wrong gives his consent

A

Volenti non fit injuria

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89
Q

The Constitution listed ___ languages — Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati, Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Malayalam, etc — in Eighth Schedule, in 1950 (originally)

A

14

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90
Q

The Central Information Commission has been constituted with effect from 12-10-2005 under the _________

A

Right to Information Act, 2005

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91
Q

Following severe opposition the issue of OBC reservation reached the SC in ______. This case is known as ‘Indira Sawhney Judgment’ or Mandal Case.

A

1992 (9 judge bench, 6:3 verdict)

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92
Q

Which article allows the Supreme Court of India to pass any order necessary to do “complete justice” in any case?

A

Article 142

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93
Q

Which Schedule contains a list of central and state laws which can’t be challenged in courts? Currently, 284 such laws are shielded from judicial review.

A

Ninth Schedule

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94
Q

From January 26, 1950 until ______, the ECI was a single-member body, with only a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC)

A

1989 (two additional commissioners appointed)

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95
Q

In 1978, the ________ was passed by the then ruling Janata Party, repealing the right to property accorded to every citizen in Article 19(1)(f)

A

Constitution (44th) Amendment Act

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96
Q

The use of force by states can either be lawful or unlawful. Employment of hostile act nevertheless lawful is called:

A

Retortion (called reprisal if it is unlawful)

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97
Q

Part ___ of the Constitution refers to the panchayats. It was inserted in the Constitution by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment.

A

Part IX (Eleventh Schedule)

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98
Q

S.361 IPC provides the definition of Kidnapping. The age of minority defined for the offence is _________ for male and _________ for female.

A

16 years for male; 18 years for female

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99
Q

There are 25 High Courts in India. The union territory of Andaman and Nicobar falls under the jurisdiction of _________ High Court.

A

Calcutta High Court

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100
Q

There shall be a Supreme Court of India consisting of a Chief Justice of India and such number of other judges not being less than seven. Which article states this?

A

Article 124(1)

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101
Q

There are currently 29 judges in the SC (including the Chief Justice of India) and maximum possible strength is ___

A

34 (33+1)

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102
Q

Appointed to the apex Court in 1989, who became the first female judge to be a part of the Supreme court of India?

A

Fathima Beevi

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103
Q

With _________ the Telangana High Court got its first woman Chief Justice. At present she is the only woman Chief Justice in the country.

A

Hima Kohli

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104
Q

_________, the first woman judge to be appointed to the Supreme Court Bench directly from the Bar, retired recently

A

Justice Indu Malhotra

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105
Q

Which Article does, in principle, enable Parliament to provide for domicile-based preferential treatment in public employment?

A

Article 16(3)

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106
Q

There were voices in the Constituent Assembly, most notably ________, who were advocating for residential qualifications as the bedrock of a strong federalism.

A

Mahavir Tyagi

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107
Q

Article 371 (D) safeguards the rights of local people in employment and education and was created after agitation in the state of _________.

A

Andhra Pradesh

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108
Q

Directorate of Enforcement is a specialized financial investigation agency under the _________, Government of India

A

Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

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109
Q

_________ had moved courts in 9 countries to enforce its $1.4 billion arbitral award against India (the company won after a dispute over capital gains tax)

A

Cairn Energy

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110
Q

The Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA) is an intergovernmental organization located at The Hague in _________

A

the Netherlands

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111
Q

On _________ India signed its first BIT (Bilateral Investment Treaty) with its erstwhile colonial ruler, the UK.

A

14 March 1994

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112
Q

_________ refers to the sum of money the law imposes for a breach of some duty or violation of some right.

A

Damages

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113
Q

Qui facit per alium facit per se is a Latin legal term that means, “He who acts through another does the act himself.” It is a fundamental legal maxim of the law:

A

The law of agency

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114
Q

Acc to love jihad law, marriages solemnised for the purpose of conversion will be declared void and the burden of proof shall lie on the _________.

A

accused

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115
Q

Constitution of India guarantees the right to freedom of religion to not only individuals but also religious groups in India. This is enshrined in Articles _________.

A

Articles 25 to 28

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116
Q

6 out of 28 states have a State Legislative Council. These are _________. The latest state to have a council is Telangana. (B-MUTKA)

A

Andhra P, Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra, Bihar, UP

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117
Q

“A Minister who for any period of 6 consecutive months is not a member of the Legislature of the State shall at the expiration of that period cease to be a Minister.”

A

Article 164(4) of the Constitution

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118
Q

Article ______ says that a Minister who is not a member of either House of the Parliament for 6 months shall cease to be a Minister on expiration of such term

A

Article 75(5)

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119
Q

The National Commission for Women (NCW) is a statutory body of the Government of India. When was it formed?

A

1992

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120
Q

_________ legislature passed a government-backed resolution that would allow tribals in the state to identify with a distinct religion.

A

Jharkhand (the Sarna Code)

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121
Q

Minister of State for Home Affairs __________ introduced the Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation (Amendment) Bill, 2021 in the Rajya Sabha

A

G Kishan Reddy

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122
Q

__________ has created two secure and flexible services to facilitate cybercrime related communication among law enforcement agencies

A

The Interpol

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123
Q

The potential seating capacity of the Rajya Sabha is

250 (238 elected, 12 appointed), according to which Article of the Indian Constitution?

A

Article 80

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124
Q

The United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC) is a United Nations body. The UNHRC has ___ members elected for staggered three-year terms

A

47 members

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125
Q

A member of the Democratic Party, Biden served as the 47th Vice President and represented _________ in the United States Senate from 1973 to 2009

A

Delaware

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126
Q

The International Energy Agency (IEA) is a Paris-based autonomous intergovernmental organisation
established in the framework of the OECD in ______

A

1974 (in the wake of the 1973 oil crisis)

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127
Q

Banking Ombudsman Scheme was introduced under the Banking Regulation Act of ______ by RBI with effect from ______

A

1949

1995

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128
Q

_________ mandates that all minorities, whether based on _________, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions

A

Article 30

religion or language

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129
Q

SC allowed the minority educational institutions to admit eligible students of their choice and to set up a reasonable fee structure in the judgement delivered in:

A

the Secretary of Malankara Syrian Catholic College case (2007).

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130
Q

Code on Social Security Bill, 2020 will replace ______ social security laws

A

nine

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131
Q

The State Disaster Response Fund (SDRF) was constituted based on the recommendations of the _________

A

13th Finance Commission.

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132
Q

The _________ High Court heard intervention applications filed by politicians and lawyers against the state government’s vaccination policy

A

Chhattisgarh

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133
Q

SFB (Small Finance Bank) loan to _________ for on-lending to be classified as priority sector lending

A

MFIs (Micro Finance Institutions)

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134
Q

The _________ Government has imposed a total ban on glyphosate, a controversial herbicide that is used in cotton farms to kill weeds

A

Telangana

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135
Q

The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the Governor and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister. which article?

A

164

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136
Q

In ______, the Parliament passed the Prasar Bharati (Broadcasting Corporation of India) Act. It provided for the establishment of a broadcasting corporation

A

1990

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137
Q

The Supreme Court, in 2021, held that which Act removed the power of the states to identify socially and educationally backward classes?

A

102nd Amendment Act 2018

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138
Q

_________ is a landmark decision of the Supreme Court of India. This judgement led to the First Amendment of the Constitution

A

State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan

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139
Q

______ was established by amending the Constitution of India through the 99th Constitution Amendment Act 2014

A

NJAC - National Judicial Appointments Commission

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140
Q

_________ Bill, 2021 prohibits all private cryptocurrencies and provides for an official digital currency to be issued by the Reserve Bank of India

A

Cryptocurrency and regulation of Official digital currency

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141
Q

Who was the first judge in independent India whose removal motion was passed in Rajya Sabha for misappropriation of funds?

A

Soumitra Sen of the Calcutta High Court

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142
Q

The Extradition Treaty between the UK and India was signed on 22 September ______ and was ratified on 15 November the next year

A

1992

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143
Q

Which judgment had found that Section 66A of the IT Act was contrary to both Articles 19 (free speech) and 21 (right to life)?

A

Shreya Singhal v. Union of India judgement 2015

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144
Q

Article ___ deals with National Commission for Scheduled Castes. Article ______ deals with National Commission for Scheduled tribes

A

338 and 338 A

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145
Q

The first Commission for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was set up in 1978 with _________ as Chairman. This commission was later bifurcated.

A

Bhola Paswan Shastri

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146
Q

Some human rights are _________, which means they can be restricted in some circumstances and within limits

A

qualified rights (absolute rights have no restriction)

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147
Q

What is the name of the Commission which has been entrusted with the sub-categorization of Other Backward Classes (OBC)?

A

The Justice Rohini Commission

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148
Q

When an application for recounting of votes is made the ______ shall decide and may allow the application in whole or in part or may reject it in its entirety

A

returning officer

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149
Q

In view of the provisions of Article ______ the Council of Ministers shall all be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State

A

164(2)

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150
Q

Name the famous case in which the Supreme Court declared the resign-and-reappoint bid as “improper, undemocratic, invalid and unconstitutional”

A

S.R. Chaudhuri vs State Of Punjab & Ors case

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151
Q

WhatsApp filed a petition challenging _________ of the Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021.

A

Rule 4(2)

152
Q

Rule 4(2) of the new IT Rules requires significant social media intermediaries (those with more than ___ users in India) to enable tracing of the originator of info

A

50 lakh

153
Q

Section ___ of the IT Act 2000 empowers the govt to direct “interception or monitoring or decryption” of any information through any computer source if necessary

A

Section 69

154
Q

___ HC had tried looking into the possibility of tracing WhatsApp texts for coordination bw law enforcement agencies and social media companies, back in 2019.

A

The Madras High Court

155
Q

The procedure for amendment of the Indian

Constitution was borrowed from which country’s Constitution?

A

The South African Constitution

156
Q

How many times has the Preamble to the Indian Constitution amended; by which constitutional amendment?

A

Once only; by 42nd amendment

157
Q

The Judges of the Supreme Court have to take an oath before entering upon their office, which is conducted to them by -

A

The President

158
Q

In which case it was held that Article 14, 19 and 21 are not mutually exclusive and they jointly aim at reasonableness and fairness -

A

Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India

159
Q

There are five types of Writs which are Habeas Corpus, (name the other 4) and these writs are an effective method of enforcing the rights of the people

A

Mandamus, Certiorari, Quo Warranto and Prohibition

160
Q
Article 56(1)(b) provides that the President may be
removed from office for \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ by following the procedure of impeachment under Article 61
A

violation of the Constitution

161
Q

Article ___ vests the Supreme Court w a special power to grant special leave, to appeal against any judgment or order or decree made by any Court/tribunal in India.

A

136

162
Q
Article 148(1) provides that CAG would be appointed
by the President and can be removed by following the same impeachment process as is there for a \_\_\_\_\_\_
A

Supreme Court judge

163
Q

Article 151(1) provides that Audit Report of Union Accounts is submitted by the CAG to ___ and it is the duty of them to cause it to be laid before both Houses

A

the President

164
Q

Article 76(1) provides for appointment by the President, of a person qualified to be appointed _________, to be Attorney General for India.

A

a judge of the Supreme Court

165
Q

Who is the only constitutional officer who has the right to address either House of the Parliament without being a member of such House?

A

The Attorney General for India

166
Q

Article ___ - “The SC shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the CJI may, with the approval of the President, from time to time, appoint.”

A

130

167
Q

The law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on which all courts in India and under which Article of the Constitution?

A

All Courts within the territory of India; under Article 141

168
Q
The AGI is bound to give advice to the President under
Article 76(2). Similarly, Supreme Court must opine on any question sent by a Presidential Reference under:
A

Article 143(1).

169
Q

Article 165 - “The Governor of each State shall appoint a person who is qualified to be appointed a Judge of a High Court to be _________”

A

Advocate General for the State

170
Q

Article ______ directly mentions that an arrested person shall have a right to be defended by ‘a legal practitioner of his choice’

A

22(1)

171
Q

In __________, SC ruled that India was already a secular state, what actually was done through 42nd amendment is state explicitly what was earlier implicit

A

S.R Bommai v. Union of India {SC tried to curb the blatant misuse of Article 356 (regarding the imposition of President’s Rule on states)}

172
Q

In _________, SC held that the fundamental right to “propagate” religion doesnt include the right to convert a person to another religion.

A

Rev Stanislaus vs Madhya Pradesh, 1977

173
Q

Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution allows for the formation of autonomous administrative divisions in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura?

A

The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution

174
Q

Presently, ___ Autonomous Councils in Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Tripura are formed by virtue of the Sixth Schedule

A

10

175
Q

The President can grant pardon in cases where the punishment or sentence is by a Court Martial but ____ does not provide any such power to the Governor.

A

Article 161

176
Q

FATF president _________ said, “Pakistan will remain under increased monitoring as serious deficiencies remain related to terror financing”

A

Marcus Pleyer

177
Q

The Monetary Policy committee is answerable to the Government of India if the inflation exceeds the range prescribed for ______ consecutive quarters.

A

three

178
Q

_________ of the RBI Act, 1934 empowers the Central Govt to consult and give instructions to the Governor of RBI to act on issues, that the govt considers serious

A

Section 7

179
Q

Mahesh Jethmalani is Indian ______ and a politician. He is currently a nominated Member of Parliament in the Rajya Sabha

A

lawyer

180
Q

New Zealand signed the Artemis Accords, making it the ______ nation to join the accord and the second to do so under the Biden administration.

A

11th

181
Q

China has announced it will now allow three children per married couple — ______ years after it first relaxed its controversial one-child policy to two.

A

five

182
Q

MoHUA had introduced the Model Tenancy Act as a step towards fulfilling Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s ‘Housing for All’ by ______ vision.

A

2022

183
Q

Land falls under the State List, and acc to Article ___ of the Constitution, the state govts have exclusive power to make laws on subjects in the State List.

A

Article 246

184
Q

The first Chief Justice of India was _________. Originally, the Constitution of India envisaged a supreme court with a chief justice and seven judges

A

Sir H J Kania

185
Q

Article ______ allows for creation of an ‘autonomous state’ within Assam in certain tribal areas. It was inserted into the Constitution in 1969

A

Article 244(A)

186
Q

Delhi is a Union Territory w a legislature, and it came into being in 1991 under Article ______, inserted by the 69th Amendment Act, 1991.

A

Article 239AA

187
Q

The Supreme Court-appointed committee on farm laws comprised of agricultural economists - _________. Bhupinder Singh Mann resigned.

A

Anil Ghanvat, Ashok Gulati, and Pramod Joshi.

188
Q

Personal Data Protection (PDP) Bill, 2019 derives its inspiration from a previous draft version prepared by a committee headed by:

A

retired Justice B N Srikrishna

189
Q

A nine-judge bench of the Supreme Court in _________ unanimously held that Indians have a constitutionally protected fundamental right to privacy

A

Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd) Vs Union of India

190
Q

In _________, the Court added two features to the list of basic structure features. They were: judicial review and balance between Fundamental Rights and DPSP.

A

Minerva Mills case (1980)

191
Q

In an interim order, Delhi HC recognised the ‘______’ while directing Google and Indian Kanoon to remove a judgment pertaining to an Indian American

A

right to be forgotten

192
Q

Under which Article of the Constitution the President nominates 12 persons to Rajya Sabha, having special knowledge or practical experience?

A

article 80

193
Q

Recently, the Union Cabinet has approved the creation of the ______ Law Commission, with a term of three years.

A

22nd

194
Q

In ___ the SC has held that the Governor is expected to discharge role of a Constitutional Stateman and can call for floor test if he feels State Government is shaky.

A

Shivraj Singh Chouhan vs Speaker Madhya Pradesh

195
Q

India and Pakistan have issued a joint statement to strictly observe the _________ along the Line of Control (LoC).

A

2003 Ceasefire agreement

196
Q

Acc to Article ___, each state of India shall have a High Court. However, Article 231 mentions that there can be a common High Court for two or more States

A

Article 214

197
Q

_________ has disputed a Rs 54.5 crore service tax claim by the Directorate General of GST Intelligence (DGGI) in response to a showcause notice

A

Cloudtail India

198
Q

The newest High Courts are the Telangana Court and Andhra Pradesh High Court, both established in the year ______

A

2019

199
Q

_________ is a standard of liability under which a person is legally responsible for the consequences flowing from an activity even in the absence of fault

A

strict liability

200
Q

Minister for Law & Justice, Communications, Electronics and Information Technology ___ flogged Twitter for having deliberately chosen non-compliance

A

Ravi Shankar Prasad

201
Q

Section ___ of IT Act says that any intermediary shall not be held legally liable for any third party info, data, or communication link made available on its platform.

A

Section 79 (safe harbour provisions)

202
Q

In 2019, the foreign direct investment (FDI) limit for the digital media sector was restricted to ___%. Earlier, 100% FDI was allowed through the automatic route

A

26%

203
Q

The GST council is devised in such a way that the centre will have 1/3rd voting power and the states have 2/3rd. The decisions are taken by ______ majority.

A

3/4th

204
Q

Under the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017, states are guaranteed compensation for loss of revenue on account of implementation of GST for ___

A

transition period of 5 years between 2017 and 22.

205
Q

Article ___ deals with the power of the Parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the State List in the national interest

A

Article 249

206
Q

The fundamental right to reside or settle in any part of India guaranteed under Article ______ of the Constitution

A

Article 19(1)(e)

207
Q

Which judgement declared that the freedom of speech and to practice any profession over the medium of Internet enjoys constitutional protection?

A

Anuradha Bhasin vs Union of India (2020)

208
Q

In _________, SC held that an offense that does not provide a minimum sentence of 7 years cannot be treated as a heinous offense

A

Shilpa Mittal Vs State Of NCT Od Delhi

209
Q

Supreme Court in _________ case made a significant suggestion regarding disqualification powers of the Speaker.

A

Keisham Meghachandra Singh vs. the Hon’ble Speaker Manipur Legislative Assembly & Ors. (2020). Court suggested that an independent tribunal can be set up.

210
Q

SC in _________, said provisions of anticipatory Bail shall not apply to the cases under Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act ‘18.

A

Prathvi Raj Chauhan vs Union of India (2020)

211
Q

In _________, SC held that a child alleged to be in conflict with law should be released on bail with or without surety

A

RE exploitation of children in orphanages in the state of Tamil Nadu vs UOI & ors

212
Q

In _________, SC directed political parties to disclose the reasons for selection of candidates wrt their merit and qualifications, and not merely their “winnability”

A

Rambabu Singh Thakur vs Sunil Arora and others

213
Q

______ sued Google for copying its API code to create the Android mobile OS. Courts ruled in favor of Google.

A

Oracle

214
Q

Sedition is a crime under Section ______ of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)

A

Section 124A

215
Q

_________ High Court initiates criminal contempt case against 72-year-old man who threatened to kill Supreme Court, High Court judges

A

Karnataka HC

216
Q

SC said that criticism of courts is ‘growing, everyone is doing it’, while giving time to cartoonist _________ to file her reply on the plea seeking contempt action

A

Rachit Taneja

217
Q

SC in the case of _________, makes it mandatory, that all the cinema halls in India shall play the National Anthem before the feature film starts.

A

Shyam Narayan Chouksey v. Union of India

218
Q

Article ___ of the Constitution mandates the courts not to inquire into proceedings of Parliament.

A

Article 122

219
Q

Article ___: State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive

A

Article 50

220
Q

_________ effect is not allowed in criminal law

A

Retrospective effect

221
Q

Article ______ contains the rule against double jeopardy which says “no person shall be prosecuted or punished for the same offence more than once.”

A

Article 20(2)

222
Q

Article 20 guarantees to all persons, whether citizens or non-citizens, the three rights. They are as follows:

A

Protection against ex-post facto laws.
Protection against double jeopardy.
Protection against self-incrimination.

223
Q

“_________” are existing laws in some states of India that allow citizens to remove or replace public servants holding posts of Sarpanch etc in the govt.

A

Right To Recall (RTR)

224
Q

Government has brought Over The Top (OTT) platforms, or digital video streaming service providers,, under the ambit of which ministry?

A

Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

225
Q

______ had filed a contempt plea against Andhra Pradesh for alleged violation of status quo in the disputed Kotia region of Koraput district

A

Odisha

226
Q

Visakhapatnam is the executive capital of Andhra Pradesh while _________ serve as legislative and judicial capitals respectively.

A

Amaravati (legislative) and Kurnool (judicial)

227
Q

“Remark Smacks Of Very Patriarchal Way Of Looking At Things”: Justice _________ on CJI Bobde asking Rape Accused if He Would Marry Victim

A

Justice Deepak Gupta

228
Q

The Magistrates and trial Judges have as much, if not more, responsibility in safeguarding FRs of the citizens of India as the highest court of this land, said SC in:

A

Krishna Lal Chawla Vs. State Of U.P.

229
Q

In _________, the bench suggested that gender sensitization training should be imparted to Judges and public prosecutors

A

Aparna Bhat vs. State of Madhya Pradesh

230
Q

A division Bench of the SC said that the evaluation criteria adopted by the Army to consider the grant of permanent commission for women officers to be:

A

“arbitrary and irrational”

231
Q

The impeachment charges against the President can be initiated by _________. (Article 61 : Procedure for impeachment of the President)

A

either House of Parliament - Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha.

232
Q

_____ is a legal principle that prevents someone from arguing something or asserting a right that contradicts what they previously said or agreed to by law

A

Estoppel

233
Q

The _________ empowers both Centre and the states to provide 10% reservation to the EWS category of society in government jobs and education institutions

A

103rd Constitution Amendment Act, 2019

234
Q

Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules 2021 are in supersession of the earlier _________

A

IT (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2011

235
Q

Article ___ of the constitution of India provides for a National Commission for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

A

Article 338

236
Q

Which Amendment replaced the one-member system with a multi-member National Commission for Scheduled Castes (SC) and Scheduled Tribes (ST)?

A

65th Amendment, 1990

237
Q

By which amendment, the erstwhile National Commission for SC and ST was replaced by two separate Commissions from the year 2004?

A

89th Amendment, 2003

238
Q

In the case _____, SC held that the concept of an Open Court requires that info relating to a Court proceeding must be available in the public domain.

A

Election Commission of India v MR Vijaya Bhaskar

239
Q

The Bench headed by Chief Justice NV Ramana has issued a slew of directions to decongest prisons in the matter _________

A

In Re: Contagion of Covid-19 Virus in Prisons.

240
Q

____ is a landmark judgment, which was pronounced by the Apex Court as it imposed further checks and balances on the powers of the police before an arrest

A

Arnesh Kumar v. the State of Bihar

241
Q

Article 226 is the constitutional right which empowers High court to issue a direction, order, and writs for enforcement of _________

A

fundamental rights and other legal rights.

242
Q

In the _________ judgement, SC had said 50% shall be the rule, only in certain exceptional and extraordinary situations, 50% rule can be relaxed.

A

Indira Sawhney judgment 1992

243
Q

A separate reservation for the Maratha community violates Articles 14 (right to equality) and ___ (due process of law).

A

Article 21

244
Q

In 2017, a 11-member commission headed by _______ recommended Marathas should be given reservation under Socially and Educationally Backward Class

A

Retired Justice N G Gaikwad

245
Q

In 2018, the Bombay High Court while upholding Maratha reservation said that instead of ___% it should be reduced to 12% in education and 13% in jobs.

A

16%

246
Q

Article ______ empowers the President to specify the socially and educationally backward communities in a State. Which Amendment introduced it?

A

Article 342A (introduced by 102nd Amendment Act 2018)

247
Q

In 1962, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutionality of sedition (Section 124A) in which case?

A

Kedar Nath Singh v State of Bihar.

248
Q

In 1995, the Supreme Court, in _________, held that mere sloganeering which evoked no public response did not amount to sedition.

A

Balwant Singh v State of Punjab

249
Q

In case _________ is not followed by the intermediary, safe harbour provisions will not apply to them.

A

due diligence

250
Q

Acc to new IT Rules, Grievance Officer shall acknowledge the complaint within twenty four hours and resolve it within _________ days from its receipt.

A

fifteen days

251
Q

Intermediaries shall remove or disable access within _________ of receipt of complaints of contents that show individuals in full or partial nudity

A

24 hours

252
Q

Significant Social Media Intermediaries need to appoint __________ and a Resident Grievance Officer, all of whom should be resident in India.

A

Chief Compliance Officer, a Nodal Contact Person

253
Q

OTT platforms, called as the publishers of online curated content in the rules, would self-classify the content into five age based categories:

A

U (Universal), U/A 7+, U/A 13+, U/A 16+, and A (Adult).

254
Q

During the Question Hour, the questions can also be asked to the __________ members (MPs who are not ministers).

A

private members

255
Q

Starred question (distinguished by an asterisk): This requires an ______ answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.

A

oral answer

256
Q

Unstarred questions: These require a _________ answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow.

A

written answer

257
Q

Short notice question: It is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than _________. It is to be answered orally.

A

ten days

258
Q

Question Hour in both Houses is held on all days of the session. But there are two days when an exception is made:

A

When President addresses, when FM presents Budget

259
Q

The summoning of Parliament is specified in Article ___ of the Constitution. The power to convene a session of Parliament rests with the government.

A

Article 85

260
Q

The gap between two sessions of the Parliament cannot exceed _________, which means the Parliament meets at least two times in one year.

A

6 months

261
Q

By convention (i.e. not provided by the Constitution), Parliament meets for three sessions in a year: Budget Session, _________, and _________

A

Monsoon Session and Winter Session

262
Q

The longest, _________ (1st session), starts towards the end of January, and concludes by the end of April or first week of May.

A

Budget Session

263
Q

The second session is the three-week _________ Session, which usually begins in July and finishes in August.

A

Monsoon Session

264
Q

Under _____, President has power to grant pardons or to suspend or commute the sentence of a person convicted of offence where sentence is of death.

A

Article 72

265
Q

Name 2 cases where the Supreme Court (SC) has ruled that the President has to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers while deciding mercy pleas.

A

Maru Ram vs UOI 1980; Dhananjoy Chatterjee vs WB ‘94.

266
Q

President can grant pardon in all cases where the sentence given is the sentence of death but the pardoning power of the Governor -

A

does not extend to death sentence cases.

267
Q

______: It removes both the sentence and the conviction and completely absolves the convict from all sentences, punishments and disqualifications.

A

Pardon

268
Q

_________: It denotes the substitution of one form of punishment for a lighter form. For example, a death sentence may be commuted to rigorous imprisonment

A

Commutation

269
Q

_________: It implies reducing the period of sentence without changing its character. For example, rigorous imprisonment for two years may be remitted to 1 year.

A

Remission

270
Q

_________: It denotes awarding a lesser sentence in place of one originally awarded due to some special fact, such as the physical disability of a convict

A

Respite

271
Q

_________: It implies a stay of the execution of a sentence (especially that of death) for a temporary period.

A

Reprieve

272
Q

Recently (Nov 2020), the President of the United States of America (USA) has exercised his powers under the constitution to pardon his former _________

A

National Security Advisor (Michael Flynn)

273
Q

Who is the current Minister of Coal of India, with additional portofolio Parliamentary Affairs and Mines in the central cabinet?

A

Pralhad Joshi

274
Q

The Constitution provides for an Address by the President to either House or both Houses assembled together [Article ______]

A

Article 86(1)

275
Q

The matters referred to in the Address by the President to the Houses are discussed on a Motion of Thanks moved by a Member and seconded by _____

A

another Member.

276
Q

President is elected by the electoral college of elected members of both house of the parliament, elected members of state legislatures and _________

A

elected MLAs of Delhi, Puducherry, Jammu & Kashmir.

277
Q

GST Council is the governing body of GST having ___ members, out of which 2 members are of centre and 31 members are from 28 state and 3 Union territories

A

33 total members

278
Q

The Scheduled Castes and Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 is an Act of the Parliament of India which came into force on:

A

31 March 1995.

279
Q

The Union Cabinet had approved the ________ (ART) Regulation Bill, 2020 to monitor medical procedures used to assist people to achieve pregnancy.

A

Assisted Reproductive Technology Regulation Bill 2020

280
Q

The draft Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill, 2021, which proposes to bring back the govt’s “_________” over the Central Board of Film Certification.

A

revisionary powers

281
Q

SC in 2000 had upheld a _________ order which struck down the Centre’s “revisional powers in respect of films that are already certified by the Board”

A

Karnataka Hight Court order

282
Q

Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) is a statutory body, regulating the public exhibition of films under the provisions of the _________

A

Cinematograph Act 1952.

283
Q

Under Section ___ of Cinematograph Act, 1952, Centre is already empowered to call for record of proceedings in relation to certification of a film and pass any order

A

Section 6

284
Q

The draft Cinematograph (Amendment) Bill, 2021 seeks to sub-divide the existing UA category into age-based categories like:

A

U/A 7+, U/A 13+ and U/A 16+

285
Q

Who became the 28th chairperson of Central Board of Film Certification (CBFC) on 11 August 2017, after Pahlaj Nihalani was fired?

A

Prasoon Joshi

286
Q

The recruitment of children below age of ___ as soldiers is prohibited by UN Convention on the Rights of the Child (CRC) and Geneva Conventions protocols

A

15 years

287
Q

_________ requires the publication in the annual Trafficking in Persons (TIP) report a list of foreign govts that have recruited child soldiers during previous year

A

The US Child Soldiers Prevention Act (CSPA)

288
Q

The 14 countries which have been added to the annual Trafficking in Persons (TIP) list of the US State Department this year include: (not exhaustive)

A

Pakistan, Turkey, Afghanistan, Myanmar, Iran, Iraq, Mali

289
Q

USA adopted the CSPA in ______, as an amendment to the William Wilberforce Trafficking Victims Protection and Reauthorization Act of 2008.

A

Child Soldiers Prevention Act (CSPA) adopted in 2008

290
Q

Supreme Court, in _________, rejected Rohingya refugees’ constitutional right to remain in India and allowed their deportation, following legal procedure

A

Mohammad Salimullah v. Union of India (UoI)

291
Q

Kerala union of Working Journalists (KUWJ) Moves Supreme Court For Interim Bail For _________ Citing Critical Health Condition Of His 90-Yrs Old Mother

A

Siddique Kappan

292
Q

“It is not seditious to have views different from the Govt,” observed Supreme Court while dismissing a PIL seeking action against Farooq Abdullah. Which case?

A

Rajat Sharma vs. Union of India

293
Q

In _________, the SC held that any constitutional court has the power to grant bail to people accused of offences under UAPA irrespective of Section 43-D (5), so as to enforce the right to speedy trial

A

Union of India v KA Najeeb

294
Q

Which High Court has held that under the Contempt of Court Act, 1971, affecting of personal service on the alleged contemner is an essential requirement?

A

Allahabad High Court

295
Q

The Code on Social Security 2020 defines “___” as a person who works and earns from such activities outside of traditional employer-employee relationship

A

gig worker

296
Q

Acc to the Code on Social Security 2020 “_________” means a home-based worker, self-employed worker or a wage worker in the unorganised sector

A

Unorganised worker

297
Q

Every unorganised worker, gig worker or platform worker shall be required to be registered under the Code on Social Security 2020 provided that:

A

the person has completed 16 years of age

298
Q

In, in GNCT of Delhi v. Union of India & Anr., SC had held that the LG is bound by the aid and advise of the Council of Ministers of Delhi Govt, except in matters of:

A

land, police and public order.

299
Q

Which High Court has held that a Single Judge Bench can take cognizance and decide civil contempt petition?

A

Kerala HC

300
Q

Section 2(c)(i) defines _______ as publication or doing of any act that “scandalises or tends to scandalise, or lowers or tends to lower the authority of, any court”.

A

criminal contempt

301
Q

Section ___ of the IT Act, 2000 made it a punishable offence for any person to send ‘grossly offensive’ or ‘menacing’ information using a computer resource

A

66A (struck down in Shreya Singhal v. UOI 2015)

302
Q

The Gujarat Prohibition Act, ______ is being challenged before the Gujarat High Court, more than seven decades after it came into effect

A

1949

303
Q

The first hint at the prohibition of liquor was through the _________. This Act dealt with levying of duties on intoxicants, among other things

A

Bombay Abkari Act, 1878

304
Q

Nuthalapati Venkata Ramana is an Indian judge who is serving as the ______ and current Chief Justice of India.

A

48th

305
Q

E9 Partnership was first established in ______, formed to achieve the goals of UNESCO’s Education For All (EFA).

A

1993

306
Q

IBC (Amendment) Ordinance, 2021 introduces a _________ for corporate persons classified as MSMEs under the MSME Development Act, 2006.

A

Pre-packaged Insolvency Resolution process (PIRP)

307
Q

_________, a distinguished public servant, currently serves as Chairperson of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India.

A

Dr. M. S. Sahoo

308
Q

_________ is an Afghan-American diplomat, who has served as the Special Representative for Afghanistan Reconciliation since 2018

A

Zalmay Mamozy Khalilzad

309
Q

In ______, the RBI had set up a Regulations Review Authority (RRA) for reviewing the regulations, circulars, reporting systems, based on feedback

A

1999 (now it has set up RRA 2.0)

310
Q

NITI Aayog has recommended reducing the rural and urban coverage under the National Food Security Act (NFSA), ______, to 60% and 40%, respectively.

A

2013

311
Q

The EU–UK Trade and Cooperation Agreement (TCA) is a free trade agreement signed in December 2020, between:

A

EU, European Atomic Energy Community (Euratom), UK

312
Q

_________ is mainly a civil law principle whereby an employer is made liable for the negligence or breach of duty of his employees.

A

vicarious liability

313
Q

A says-“Z is an honest man; he never stole B’s watch”; intending to cause it to be believed that Z did steal B’s watch. Is this defamation?

A

This is defamation, unless it fall within some exception

314
Q

A is asked who stole B’s watch. A points to Z, intending to cause it to be believed that Z stole B’s watch. Is this defamation?

A

This is defamation unless it fall within some exception

315
Q

A draws a picture of Z running away with B’s watch, intending it to be believed that Z stole B’s watch. Is this defamation?

A

This is defamation unless it fall within some exception

316
Q

Section ______ of the UAPA prohibits bail if reasonable grounds exist showing the accusation is prima facie true

A

Section 43D(5)

317
Q

In the early years of Independence, the Supreme Court conceded absolute power to Parliament in amending the Constitution, as was seen in the cases:

A

Shankari Prasad case (1951), Sajjan Singh case (1965).

318
Q

The basic structure theory was first introduced by _________ in the Sajjan Singh case (1965) by referring to a 1963 decision of the SC of Pakistan.

A

Justice Mudholkar

319
Q

_________ was a 1975 case heard by the Allahabad High Court that found the Prime Minister of India Indira Gandhi guilty of electoral malpractices

A

The State of Uttar Pradesh v. Raj Narain

320
Q

In Indian law, both slander and libel (defamation ka basically) are recognized as criminal offenses under Section ___ of IPC

A

Section 499

321
Q

_______ is a legal doctrine which states that a plaintiff will be unable to pursue legal relief and damages if it arises in connection with their own tortious act

A

Ex turpi causa non oritur actio

322
Q

_________ is a Latin term that means “superior force” and describes an irresistible natural occurrence that causes damage or disruption and that is neither caused by nor preventable by humans

A

Vis major

323
Q

In the case of _____, the defendant was held liable for sending a defamatory letter to plaintiff written in Urdu knowing that the plaintiff did not know Urdu and the letter will very likely be read over by another person.

A

Mahendra Ram v. Harnandan Prasad

324
Q

“The right to protest is not outlawed and cannot be termed as a ‘terrorist act’ within the meaning of the UAPA” - Delhi High Court said in which case?

A

Asif Iqbal Tanha vs State Of Nct Of Delhi

325
Q

The Collegium, consisting of _________ was devised to ensure that the opinion of the Chief Justice of India is not merely his individual opinion

A

CJI and 4 senior-most judges of the SC and high courts

326
Q

The current Collegium in the SC comprises Chief Justice N V Ramana, Justice R F Nariman, _________, _________ and Justice D Y Chandrachud

A

Justice U U Lalit, Justice A M Khanwilkar

327
Q

Supreme Court rejected the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act and the ______ Constitutional Amendment

A

99th Constitutional Amendment

328
Q

_________, the great judge who stood with the citizens during the Emergency, had written the book Neither Roses nor Thorns

A

Justice H R Khanna

329
Q

M C Setalvad, the first and the greatest attorney general, in his book ________, criticised appointments made by former chief justice S R Das as “unfortunate”

A

My Life — Law and Other Things

330
Q

The sedition law which is enshrined in Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code was introduced by the British government in ______ to tackle dissent against colonial rule.

A

1870

331
Q

The first known instance of the application of the sedition law was the trial of newspaper editor _________ in 1891

A

Jogendra Chandra Bose

332
Q

In ______, Gandhi was arrested on charges of sedition in Bombay for taking part in protests against the colonial government.

A

1922

333
Q

In 2015, a bench of Justices _________, in Shreya Singhal v. Union of India declared Section 66A of IT Act unconstitutional

A

J. Chelameswar and R.F. Nariman

334
Q

The test for denying bail under the UAPA is that the court must be satisfied that _________ against the accused.

A

a “prima facie” case exists against the accused

335
Q

In the case of _________, the Supreme Court in 2019 confirmed that courts must accept the state’s case without examining its merits while granting bail

A

Zahoor Ahmed Shah Watali

336
Q

Section 2(1) of Cr. P.C. defines _________ as an offence for which a police officer has no authority to arrest without a warrant.

A

Non-cognizable Offence

337
Q

The fundamental right guaranteed under _________ of the Constitution to carry on occupation, business or trade

A

Article 19(1)(g)

338
Q

The SC came down hard on the ___ government’s decision of giving an additional charge of State Election Commissioner to the state’s Law Secretary

A

Goa

339
Q

The apex court bench headed by _________ stated that denying women officers permanent commission in the navy will be a serious miscarriage of justice.

A

Justice DY Chandrachud

340
Q

A fundamental constitutional principle, the freedom of political information, which is an integral element of _________ of the Constitution.

A

Article 19(1) (a)

341
Q

Article ______ deals with the structure, duties, and powers of the National Commission for Backward Classes.

A

Article 334B

342
Q

Centre has extended the tenure of the _________ until 31st July, 2021 to submit its report on Sub-categorisation of Other Backward Classes (OBCs).

A

Rohini Commission

343
Q

The Rohini Commission was constituted in October 2017 under Article 340 of the Constitution. Article 340 deals with the appointment of a commission to:

A

investigate the conditions of backward classes.

344
Q

In 2015, the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC) had recommended that OBCs should be categorised into _________ classes

A

extremely backward, more backward, and backward

345
Q

______ has the authority to examine complaints and welfare measures regarding socially and educationally backward classes.

A

National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC)

346
Q

It was decided in Census 2021, data of OBCs will also be collected, but no consensus has been reached regarding _________ of OBCs in the Census.

A

enumeration of OBCs

347
Q

In mid- 2019, the Rohini Commission informed that it is ready with the draft report (on sub-categorisation). Why has it not been released yet?

A

could have political consequences, face judicial review

348
Q

NCBC also found out that a number of posts reserved for OBCs were being filled by people of general category as OBC candidates were declared “NFS” (_).

A

None Found Suitable

349
Q

SC has reopened a similar legal debate on sub-categorisation of SCs and STs for reservations, what is commonly referred to as “________” for SCs and STs.

A

quota within quota

350
Q

______ Constitution Amendment Act, 2018 provides constitutional status to the National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC).

A

102nd Constitution Amendment Act, 2018

351
Q

The parliament had passed National Commission for Backward Classes Act in ______ and constituted the NCBC.

A

1993

352
Q

The National Commission for Backward Classes consists of ______ members including a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson and ______ other Members

A

five members (Chairperson + VC + 3 other members)

353
Q

Article ___ deals with the need to identify SEBCs, understand the conditions of their backwardness, and make recommendations

A

Article 340

354
Q

The NCBC presents to the President, annually and at such other times as the Commission may deem fit. __ laid such reports before each House of Parliament.

A

The President

355
Q

_______ introduces greater transparency as its made mandatory to take the concurrence of Parliament for adding or deleting any community in the backward list.

A

Article 342(A)

356
Q

Which article states that the State shall not make any law that violates the fundamental rights?

A

Article 13 (2)

357
Q

Which case conferred upon the fundamental rights a “transcendental position”?

A

Golaknath case 1967

358
Q

Which amendment placed the elections of the president, Vice President, PM, and the speaker of the Lok sabha, beyond the scrutiny of the judiciary?

A

39th CAA

359
Q

Supreme Court ruled that the senior most judge of the Supreme Court alone should be the CJI, in which case?

A

The second judges case 1993

360
Q

The amended Gujarat freedom of religion act 2003 has added a third category to the allurement clause:

A

Better lifestyle, divine blessings, or otherwise

361
Q

Name China’s top legislative body

A

The national people’s congress (NPC)

362
Q

The number of directly elected seats in Hong Kong’s legislative council will be scrapped from ___ to ___

A

35 to 20 seats

363
Q

In which case did the Supreme Court reaffirm the clean slate theory?

A

Ghanashyam Mishra and sons pvt ltd Vs edelweiss asset reconstruction company ltd

364
Q

The pre pack (IBC) is limited to a maximum of ___ days w only 90 days available for the stakeholders to bring the resolution plan to the NCLT

A

120 days

365
Q

The insolvency and bankruptcy board of India will have how many members?

A

10

366
Q

Which Section of Epidemic Diseases Act 1897 empowers state govts/UTs to take special measures?

A

Section 2

367
Q

In ______, the district collector of Gujarat’s Vadodara issued a notification under the Epidemic Diseases Act

A

2018

368
Q

In 2015, to deal with malaria and dengue in ________, the Epidemic Diseases Act was implemented

A

Chandigarh

369
Q

In ______, to tackle the swine flu outbreak in Pune, Section 2 (Epidemic Diseases Act 1897) powers were used

A

2009

370
Q

104th Amendment Act of 2020 increased the deadline of reservation of SCs and STs seats in Lok Sabha and state assemblies by:

A

10 years (from Seventy years to Eighty)

371
Q

Which High Court expressed its reservation over ‘right to refuse’ Covid-19 vaccine as its administration involves larger interest of ‘public health’?

A

The Madras High Court (M. Karpagam case)

372
Q

A recent decision of which High Court held that mandatory or forceful vaccination impinges on the fundamental right of citizens?

A

Meghalaya High Court

373
Q

The Centrally Sponsored Scheme - National Scheme of Incentives to Girls for Secondary Education was launched in May ______

A

2008

374
Q

The Farmers’ Produce Trade and Commerce (Promotion and Facilitation) Ordinance, 2020 allows ___ trade of farmers’ produce beyond APMC markets.

A

intra-state and inter-state trade

375
Q

The Farmers Agreement Ordinance provides for a three-level dispute settlement mechanism: the conciliation board, _________ and Appellate Authority.

A

Sub-Divisional Magistrate

376
Q

The _________ noted that availability of a transparent, easily accessible, and efficient marketing platform is a pre-requisite to ensure remunerative prices for farmers

A

Standing Committee on Agriculture (2018-19)

377
Q

_________ were set up with the objective of ensuring fair trade between buyers and sellers for effective price discovery of farmers’ produce

A

Agriculture Produce Marketing Committee (APMC)