Legal framework and processes Flashcards

1
Q

What is the NPPF and what has it replaced?

A

National planning policy framework

has replaced reams of planning guidance specifically most PPSs and remaining PPGs. LPAs must redraft LPFs to comply. Where LDFs are silent there is a presumption in favour of ‘sustainable development’

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2
Q

What options are available when a planning application is rejected?

A

There is (unintentional) ambiguity here. Taken at face value if the application is rejected before being accepted - then investigate reasons (normally insufficient information of procedural error) and re-submit.

If read as ‘refused’ then: consult with LPA re. reasons, amend and resubmit or appeal

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3
Q

How are buildings of architectural and / or historic interest and their setting protected?

A

Listed Building and Conservation Area legislation

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4
Q

What regulations apply to health and safety and what are the main statutory duties of the architect?

A

HSAW Act 1974; CDM regulations 2015

The architect is classified as a designer. Designer duties include notifying the employer of his/ her duties under the regs. Including the appointment of a CDM co-ordinator, designing with H&S in mind, designing out hazards, managing - reducing risks arising out of the design and including construction, maintenance and demolition

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5
Q

What are the different ways that you can apply for Building Regulations approval?

A

Building notice and full plans

The term is BCBs - Building Control Bodies: Local authority building control, Approved inspectors, Local Authorities acting as consultants

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6
Q

Name the three essential elements of a tortious claim of negligence?

A
  • A professional duty of care that is relevant to the event
  • Loss or damage incurred because of the negligence
  • Absence of a contract
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7
Q

How would a Certificate of Immunity be used?

A

This would be used to write out/disclaim, the responsibilities of one party out of a Contract.

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8
Q

If a Client chooses not to appoint a Principal Designer under the CDM Regulations how are these duties dealt with?

A

If it is a commercial client who chooses not to appoint a Principal Designer then the duties automatically fall to them. However it is the responsibility of the architect to inform them of these. If it is a domestic client, the duties automatically fall with the architect.

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9
Q

Explain the difference between ‘fitness for purpose’ and ‘reasonable skill and care.

A

Fitness for purpose is a performance spec which means that the work carried out must fulfil a pre-determined criteria and the architect or contractor is liable if this does not meet what the client requires and expects. However an architect cannot be seen to be negligent if what was required is ‘reasonable skill and care’ if it is believed that they acted in the same way as would an ‘average professional in the same circumstance’. See Friern Hospital case.

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10
Q

In planning law how is ‘development’ defined?

A

Development is the carrying out of building operations on land or making any material changes in the building or land.

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11
Q

1) How do CDM Regulations improve health and safety in the construction industry?
2) What is the name given to the person responsible for preparing the Health and Safety Plan?
3) Does a commercial client carry the same duties and responsibilities as a domestic client?

A

1) It provides regulations and guidance for identifying, recording risks and provisions for addressing health and safety during pre-construction and construction. It assigns duties and responsibilities.
2) Principal Designer.
3) No. Commercial clients are responsible for CDM compliance and for appointing Consultant. The Domestic client has only one duty: to appoint a Principal Designer and a Principal Contractor.

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12
Q

What is a ‘Build-Over Agreement’ and what would be the penalties for not having one in place when required?

A

It is a required approval for building over or near public infrastructure. Not having on in place may lead to an injunction for the removal of the building and associated damages.

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13
Q

What is a Party Wall Award, its purpose and key players. Briefly describe the process.

A

Party Wall Award is granted for the agreement when a dispute is said to exist. Party Wall Surveyor and the two neighbours’ team will be involved. It is different from Party Wall Notice, when there is no dispute.

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14
Q

Name the three essential elements of a tortious claim of negligence?

A

duty of care, breach of the duty and damages

Tortious claim of negligence needs to consist of a duty of care, breach of the duty of care, causation and damages. Stephenson vs Donoghue, the beer provider has a duty of care to his neighbour, client buying the beer and drinking. The breach of duty of care in this case is the beer bottle containing a snail that caused illness and lead to damages claimed. The lack of care with the production of the beer bottle to be sold was negligent.

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15
Q

How would a Certificate of Immunity be used?

A

In England a Certificate of Immunity from Listing, generally known as a Certificate of Immunity (COI), is a document which guarantees that a building will not be statutorily listed (added to the National Heritage List for England (NH;LE) although current COIs can be searched for on the NHLE) or be served with a Building Preservation Notice (BPN) by the local planning authority, for the succeeding five years. Such a certificate may be sought by developers of a building or site in order to establish certainty that the project is viable.

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16
Q

If a Client chooses not to appoint a Principal Designer under the CDM Regulations how are these duties dealt with?

A

1) Commercial Client: It is the client’s duty to appoint a Principal Designer and Principal Contractor.
2) Domestic Client: If the domestic client does not appoint a Principal Designer, the contractor/principal contractor takes on the duties.

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17
Q

Explain the difference between ‘fitness for purpose’ and ‘reasonable skill and care.

A

Reasonable skill and care is defined by a standard of service which is offered where no material judgement can be made on the service. Fitness for purpose is more often defined by a service or product which can be materially judged. These can also be defined as prescriptive vs performance based.

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18
Q

Paragraph 55 of the national planning policy framework states ‘planning conditions should be imposed where they are:

A
1 - necessary 
2 - relevant to planning and 
3 - to the development to be permitted 
4 - enforceable 
5 - precise 
6 - reasonable in all other respects 

The pilicy requirement is reffered to in this guidance as the 6 tests

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19
Q

What is the difference between an express term and an implied term?

A

Express

  • There are the obvious terms as agreed by the parties.
  • Written down – ‘four corners’ rule Be careful to read what is written down for if you have misread or simply not read the contract and have signed it you will be bound by the terms.

Implied
- by the court Contracts often fail to provide for ‘events’.
- A party may try to convince a court that the term(s) are implied saying that the court should ‘read between the lines’.
- Example of implied – Lease of a furnished property it is implied that
the flat is fit for habitation
- ‘Officious bystander’ – “Oh, of course” or “That goes without saying”

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20
Q

What is ‘duty of care’?

A

‘The rule that you are to love your neighbour becomes in law, you must not injure your neighbour: and the lawyer’s question, who is my neighbour?

Lord Atkin:
You must take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions which you can reasonably foresee would be likely to injure your neighbour.

Who, then, in law is my neighbour? The answer seems to be – persons who are so closely affected by my act that I ought reasonably to have them in contemplation as being so affected when I am directing my mind to the acts or commissions which are called in question.’

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21
Q

Give a example of case law for the law of negligence

A

Donoghue v Stevenson 1932
‘The Paisley Snail’ or ‘The snail in the bottle’

Donoghue v. Stevenson, also known as the ‘snail in the bottle case’, is a significant case in Western law. The ruling in this case established the civil law tort of negligence and obliged businesses to observe a duty of care towards their customers. The events of the case took place in Paisley, Scotland in 1928.

‘Mrs Donoghue went to a café with a friend. The friend brought her a bottle of ginger beer and an ice cream. The ginger beer came in an opaque bottle so that the contents could not be seen. Mrs Donoghue poured half the contents of the bottle over her ice cream and also drank some from the bottle. After eating part of the ice cream, she then poured the remaining contents of the bottle over the ice cream and a decomposed snail emerged from the bottle. Mrs Donoghue suffered personal injury as a result. She commenced a claim against the manufacturer of the ginger beer.

Her claim was successful. This case established the modern law of negligence and established the neighbour test.’

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22
Q

Reasonable skill and care - describe the Bolam case

A

Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee [1957] 1 WLR 582

Mr Bolam was a voluntary patient at Friern Hospital, a mental health institution run by the Friern Hospital Management Committee. He agreed to undergo electro-convulsive therapy. He was not given any muscle relaxant, and his body was not restrained during the procedure. He flailed about violently before the procedure was stopped, and he suffered some serious injuries, including fractures of the acetabula. He sued the Committee for compensation. He argued they were negligent for (1) not issuing relaxants (2) not restraining him (3) not warning him about the risks involved.

It is important to note that at this time juries were still being used for tort cases in England and Wales, so the judge’s role would be to sum up the law and then leave it for the jury to hold the defendant liable or not.

English tort law case that lays down the typical rule for assessing the appropriate standard of reasonable care in negligence cases involving skilled professionals (e.g. doctors): the Bolam test. Where the defendant has represented him or herself as having more than average skills and abilities, this test expects standards which must be in accordance with a responsible body of opinion, even if others differ in opinion. In other words, the Bolam test states that ..

“If a doctor reaches the standard of a responsible body of medical opinion, he is not negligent”.

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23
Q

What is the ‘Bolam’ test in tort law?

A

Bolam v Friern Hospital Management Committee [1957] 1 WLR 582

It established the ‘ordinary, competent practitioner standard’ and sets out the defence that ‘the practitioner has acted in
accordance with a practice accepted as proper by a responsible body’.

A practitioner defendant simply needs to produce a report from another expert to say that his course of action was accepted as proper by “responsible body” of professional opinion.

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24
Q

Define tort and give examples

What is the name of the person who commits a ‘tort’?

A

Tort - a breach of a legal duty (other than in contract) entitling the claimant to sue the defendant for damages or, in certain cases, obtain an injunction.

Torts include:

  • Negligence
  • Trespass
  • Nuisance
  • Defamation

Tortious (not tortuous) - the wrong
Tortfeasor - person who commits a wrong

Tort law is largely case law developed in the nineteenth and twentieth centuries and is still evolving.

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25
Q

Tort

Describe Rylands v Fletcher 1868

A

‘Where a person for his own purpose brings on to his land and collects and keep there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, he must keep it at his peril and is prima facie answerable for all damage that is the natural consequence of its escape’.

The defendants employed independent contractors to construct a reservoir on their land. The contractors found disused mines when digging but failed to seal them properly. They filled the reservoir with water. As a result, water flooded through the mineshafts into the plaintiff’s mines on the adjoining property.

The plaintiff secured a verdict at Liverpool Assizes.

The Court of Exchequer Chamber held the defendant liable and the House of Lords affirmed their decision.

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26
Q

Outline the four stages of tort

A
  • Duty of care
  • Breach of duty of care
  • Causation
  • Damage
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27
Q

Describe your understanding of ‘Breach of duty of care’

A

The value of the concept of ‘reasonable care’ lies in its flexibility.
‘Reasonable’ depends on specific facts of a case … and the attitude of a judge.

Assessment of ‘reasonableness’
Degree of the likelihood of harm
The cost and practicality of measure to avoid it
The seriousness of the consequences

28
Q

Breach of duty of care

The Wagon Mound (1961)

A

The defendant’s vessel, The Wagon Mound, leaked furnace oil at a Wharf in Sydney Harbour. Some cotton debris became embroiled in the oil and sparks from some welding works ignited the oil. The fire spread rapidly causing the destruction of some boats and the wharf.

29
Q

Breach of duty of care

Brewer v Delo (1967)

A

A golfer hooked his shot and hit another golfer.
It was found that the risk (of hitting another golfer) was so slight as to be unforeseeable that the golfer was not found to be negligent.

Bolton v Stone a similar case involving a cricket ball.
In this case, the likelihood of the harm was very low, and erecting a fence any higher than the defendant had already done would be impractical. The cricket club was also providing a social useful service to the community. A reasonable cricket club would have, therefore, not behaved any differently.

30
Q

Breach of duty of care

Mullin v Richards (1998)

A

The plaintiff and the defendant, two 15 year old girls, were fencing with plastic rulers in their classroom. One of the rulers shattered and a piece of plastic flew into the plaintiff girl’s eye, partially depriving her of sight.

The Court of Appeal found that the standard to be expected of a 15-year-old child was not the standard of a reasonable person, but that of a reasonable and “ordinarily prudent” 15-year-old. It was held that an ordinary prudent 15-year old could not have foreseen any injury when playing with rulers and the defendant was therefore found not liable in negligence.

A lower standard of care is expected of children. The standard of care expected of a 15-year-old is that of a reasonable and ordinarily prudent 15-year-old.

31
Q

Breach of duty of care

Hilder v Associated Portland Cement (1961)

A

The defendant company allowed children to play football on vacant land that it owned next to a busy road.
Balls frequently went on to the road and one caused a motorcyclist to crash. He was killed.

Victim not wearing a helmet, but not contributory negligence as it was not unlawful at the time, nor was it required by the highway code.

HELD – accident reasonably foreseeable – liable.

32
Q

Tort - Describe your understanding of ‘causation’

A

If we can show that:
there is a duty of care
and there has been a breach of the standard of care
then we need to link the breach with any consequences.

This link between breach and damage is called causation

Can the claimant prove that but for the defendant’s negligence he would not
have suffered damage?
or
Would the damage have occurred but for the actions or omissions of the defender or defendant?

33
Q

Tort - Describe your understanding of ‘damage’

A

There must be damage (whether actual or prospective).

In the absence of physical damage to land the damage must be substantial – not sentimental, trifling or temporary.

In the absence of physical damage, the damage is amenity damage – annoyance, discomfort, inconvenience etc.

  • Unreasonable behaviour is likely to be a nuisance.
  • It follows that the locality of the alleged nuisance is relevant in determining the reasonableness of the act or omission causing it.
  • So one must put up with more in urban and industrial areas than in residential areas.
  • In principle, damages are intended to put the claimant into the same position as he would have been if the tort had not occurred. - Damages are recoverable only in respect of losses actually sustained and the claimant is under a duty to mitigate his/her losses actually sustained by taking all reasonable steps to limit them.
34
Q

Define a non-material amendment

A

There is no statutory definition of non-material, but the LPA must be satisfied that the amendment sought is non-material in order to grant an application. If you are uncertain, you may wish to seek pre-application advice from your local planning authority.

Text from planning portal:
‘ It may be possible for you to make minor changes as you proceed but you should check the position with the LPA first. Any significant variation would require a further planning application. If, following a grant of planning permission, you need to make minor amendments to the application; this can be achieved by submitting a non-material amendment application (which can be applied for online).’

35
Q

NPPF

What are the three dimensions of sustainable development?

A

National Planning Policy Framework

  1. Economic role: contributing to building a strong economy
    Development areas – right type and location
  2. Social role: supporting communities and housing
    Access to supporting facilities and services
  3. Environmental role: contributing to protection and biodiversity
    Low carbon economy, minimisation of waste and pollution
36
Q

What work does NOT need Listed Building Consent?

A

Like-for-like repair and maintenance using like-for-like materials and techniques

Heritage Partnership Agreements/Local and National Consent Orders for repeat works

Ecclesiastical Exemption
• The Church of England
• The Roman Catholic Church
• The Methodist Church
• The United Reform Church
• The Baptist Union of Great Britain

Procedures and systems in place which provide the same protection as LPA…but other statutory consents may still be required - — Planning Permission for works affecting the exterior

Only the Local Planning Authority and a Court can decide work that does not require Listed Building Consent. Other people and organisations have an opinion.

37
Q

What is CIL?

Define

A
  • Community Infrastructure Levy
  • The Community Infrastructure Levy (CIL) is a planning charge.
  • The CIL was introduced by the Planning Act 2008 and acts as a tool for local authorities in England and Wales to use to help them to deliver infrastructure to support the development of their region.
  • Self-builders can claim for exemption from the CIL.
38
Q

What happens if you do NOT have Listed Building Consent?

A

Not having LBC for work carried out to a listed building is a criminal offence

  • All involved in organising or executing the work can be prosecuted
  • Usually full restitution of the historic fabric is sufficient
  • In some incidents the LPA Enforcement Team will take the case to the courts
39
Q

What is a Section 106 agreement and how is its name derived?

A

Planning obligations, also known as Section 106 agreements (based on that section of The 1990 Town & Country Planning Act) are private agreements made between local authorities and developers and can be attached to a planning permission to make acceptable development which would otherwise be unacceptable in planning terms.

The land itself, rather than the person or organisation that develops the land, is bound by a Section 106 Agreement, something any future owners will need to take into account.

The Government’s policy on the use of planning obligations is set out on the Planning Practice Guidance website. Local planning authorities must take this guidance into account in their decisions on planning applications and must have good reasons for departing from it.

S106 contributions remain the primary means for boroughs to ensure that developments pay for infrastructure that supports them.

S106 contributions are negotiated between boroughs and developers, and can pay for anything from new schools or clinics to roads and affordable housing.

40
Q

Section 106 agreement – define ‘affordable housing ‘?

A

Affordable housing

  • Social rented, affordable rented and intermediate housing, provided to eligible households whose needs are not met by the market.
  • Affordable housing should include provisions to remain at an affordable price for future eligible households or for the subsidy to be recycled for alternative affordable housing provision.

Social rented housing
- is owned by local authorities and private registered providers. Affordable rented housing is let by local authorities or private registered providers.

Intermediate housing

  • is homes for sale and rent provided at a cost above social rent, but below market levels
  • Homes that do not meet the above definition of affordable housing, such as “low cost market” housing, may not be considered as affordable housing for planning purposes
41
Q

Houses in multiple occupation – HMO

Define

A

Your home is a house in multiple occupation (HMO) if both of the following apply:
• at least 3 tenants live there, forming more than 1 household
• you share toilet, bathroom or kitchen facilities with other tenants

Your home is a large HMO if both of the following apply:
• at least 5 tenants live there, forming more than 1 household
• you share toilet, bathroom or kitchen facilities with other tenants

A household is either a single person or members of the same family who live
together. A family includes people who are:
• married or living together - including people in same-sex relationships
• relatives or half-relatives, for example grandparents, aunts, uncles, siblings
• step-parents and step-children

42
Q

What is the purpose of an Environmental Impact Assessment?

A

The aim of Environmental Impact Assessment is to protect the environment by ensuring that a local planning authority when deciding whether to grant planning permission for a project, which is likely to have significant effects on the environment, does so in the full knowledge of the likely significant effects, and takes this into account in the decision making process.

43
Q

Define LDF

Local Development Framework

A

The local development framework should contain within its documents, an integrated set of policies which are based on a clear understanding of the economic, social and environmental needs of the area and any constraints on meeting those needs.

The Development Plan: Core Strategy, Site Specific Allocations, Adopted Proposals Map, Action Area Plans, Other Development Plan Documents; (Development Management Policies)

Other LDF Documents: Local Development Scheme (Project Plan), Statement of Community Involvement, Annual Monitoring Report, Supplementary Planning Documents, Local Development Orders, Simplified Planning Zones

44
Q

Listed buildings what are the three categories?

A

Grade I
buildings are of exceptional interest, only 2.5% of listed buildings are Grade I

Grade II*
buildings are particularly important buildings of more than special interest; 5.8% of listed buildings are Grade II*

Grade II
buildings are of special interest; 91.7% of all listed buildings are in this class and it is the most likely grade of listing for
a home owner.

45
Q

Listed buildings

Elaborate on the statutory criteria for listing

A

The criteria for listing include:

  • architectural interest,
  • historic interest
  • close historical associations (with significant people or events.)

‘Group value’ buildings - not individually noteworthy but all the buildings in a square.

Sometimes large areas comprising many buildings may not justify listing but receive the looser protection of designation as a
conservation area.

46
Q

What do you understand by the term ‘competent person’?

A

Competent person schemes are a way for tradespeople to prove their ability to carry out certain work to required standards, instead of you applying for building regulations approval.

An installer who’s registered with a scheme can self-certify that their work complies with buildings standards and can deal with building control issues, like objections.

If needed, they’ll tell your local authority about work on your behalf. They’ll also give you a certificate within 8 weeks of completion which can be used as evidence of compliance - it will also show up in solicitors’ searches if you come
to sell your home.

Competent person schemes have insurance-backed warranties and complaints procedures if there’s a problem with the work.

47
Q

What are the possible outcomes of a full plans submission?

A

Approved

  • If your plans comply with the Building Regulations you will receive a notice stating that they have been approved.
  • Approval notice is valid for three years from the date the plans were deposited
  • LA will carry out inspections of the building work once it is in progress.

Not satisfied/conditional approval
- make amendments or provide more details.

Rejected
- the reasons will be stated in the notice.

Completion Certificate
- LA will issue provided they are content that the completed work complies with the Building Regulations.

48
Q

Give a description of ‘regularisation’

A

Where works are carried out without Building Regulations approval being sought the owner may be prosecuted.

Regularisation is when a retrospective application relating to previously unauthorised works is submitted.

Regularise the unauthorised works and obtain a certificate of regularisation.

49
Q

Building Regulations - Are Historic and Listed Buildings exempt?
Expand on a ‘yes’ or ‘no’ answer

A

Historic and Listed Buildings are not exempt from the Building Regulations but it is recognised that:
• The special character and architectural qualities should be conserved
• It may be neither viable nor appropriate for a historic building to reach the performance standards expected for other buildings

50
Q

Give your definition of ‘approved document’

A
  • The Secretary of State has approved a series of documents that give practical guidance about how to meet the requirements of the Building Regulations 2010 for England.
  • Approved documents give guidance on each of the technical parts of the regulations and on regulation 7.
  • ADs set out what may be accepted as reasonable provision for compliance with the relevant requirements of the Building Regulations to which they refer.
  • Note that there may be other ways to comply with the requirements – there is no obligation to adopt any particular solution contained in an approved document.
51
Q

Other than Building Regulations state other legislation affecting building work

A
  • Health & Safety at Work Act 1974
  • CDM Regulations 2015
  • Party Wall Act 1996
52
Q

Approved inspectors - elaborate

A

Are authorised under the Building Act 1984 to provide building control service

Register of approved companies is maintained by CIC (Construction Industry Council)

Must be independent, no professional interest in the project and be insured Have no power to enforce the Building Regulations but can issue written notices confirming contravention

53
Q

CDM - Define

A

Whatever your role in construction, CDM aims to improve health and safety in the industry by helping you to:
• sensibly plan the work so the risks involved are managed from start to finish
• have the right people for the right job at the right time
• cooperate and coordinate your work with others
• have the right information about the risks and how they are being managed
• communicate this information effectively to those who need to know
• consult and engage with workers about the risks and how they are being managed

54
Q

Name the two, key pieces of legislation covering H&S

A

Health and Safety at Work etc Act 1974.

  1. It shall be the duty of any person who designs, manufactures, imports or supplies any article for use at work:(a) to ensure, so far as is reasonably practicable, that the manufacturers article is so designed and constructed as to be safe and without risks to health when properly used

The Construction (Design and Management) Regulations 2015.

55
Q

A construction project is notifiable if the construction work is expected to:

A
  • last longer than 30 working days and have more than 20 workers working at the same time at any point on the project or
  • exceed 500 person days
56
Q
The Construction (Design and Management) Regulations 2015
Who should notify a project?
A

The client has the duty to notify a construction project.
- In practice, however, the client may ask someone else to notify on their behalf.

The client for the construction work is required to send the notification.

  • The only exception to this is where the client is a domestic client, the responsibility for notification automatically passes to the contractor (or Principal Contractor where there is more than one).
  • The Principal Designer can assume the responsibility for notification of a domestic project, but only where there is written agreement between the domestic client and the Principal Designer that they will carry out the client’s duties.
57
Q

CDM

Give the definition of ‘work’. Who is a ‘designer’?

A

Regulations define design work as,
• Preparation of a design
• Modification of a design
• Instructing others to prepare or modify designs

Designers can include
• Architects, Consulting Engineers
• Technicians, CAD Engineers
• Clients and others who become involved in the design

58
Q

CDM

Designers’ duties?

A
  • Confirm client understands duties
  • Must not start work unless the client is aware
  • Eliminate or reduce hazards
  • Consider buildability
  • Compliance with Workplace Regs.
  • Provide information, Pre-Construction Information
  • Significant residual risks
  • Health & Safety File
59
Q

CDM

Applying the ‘principles of prevention’ using ERIC

A

ELIMINATE hazard
REDUCE hazard - substitute with less dangerous
ISOLATE hazard –prevent access or exposure design in
CONTROL measures, and give priority to ‘collective measures’ above ‘individual measures’ prevention measures above those that minimise

60
Q

CDM

Define ‘Principal Designer’

A

Principal designer
is a designer who is an organisation or individual (on smaller projects) appointed by the client to take control of the pre-construction phase of any project involving more than one contractor.

Principal designers have an important role in influencing how risks to health and safety are managed throughout a project. Design decisions made during the pre-construction phase have a significant influence in ensuring the project is delivered in a way that secures the health and safety of everyone affected by the work

61
Q

CDM

Define the duties of a ‘principal designer’

A

Principal designers must:
plan, manage, monitor and coordinate health and safety in the pre-construction phase. In doing so they must take account of relevant information (such as an existing health and safety file) that might affect design work carried out both before and after the construction phase has started

help and advise the client in bringing together pre-construction information, and provide the information designers and contractors need to carry out their duties

work with any other designers on the project to eliminate foreseeable health and safety risks to anyone affected by the work and, where that is not possible, take steps to reduce or control those risks

ensure that everyone involved in the pre-construction phase communicates and cooperates, coordinating their work wherever required

liaise with the principal contractor, keeping them informed of any risks that need to be controlled during the construction phase

62
Q

Building Safety Bill
introduced in the House of Commons on 5 July 2021
explain

A

‘The next step in ground-breaking reforms to give residents and homeowners more rights, powers and protections – making homes across the country safer.

This will overhaul regulations, creating lasting generational change, setting out a clear pathway on how residential buildings should be constructed, maintained and made safe.

It also sets out the framework to improve compliance, with tougher penalties for those who break the rules and mandates developers to belong to a New Homes Ombudsman scheme’

63
Q

Fire Safety Act 2021

explain

A

The Fire Safety Bill was introduced in March 2020 following the Grenfell Tower tragedy in June 2017. The Bill was made law on 29 April 2021.

The Fire Safety Act 2021 amends the Regulatory Reform (Fire Safety) Order 2005 (the “FSO”) with the intention of improving fire safety in multi-occupancy domestic premises. Crucially, the external walls of a building and the fire doors to individual flats must now be assessed as part of the requirement for a fire risk assessment.

The Act requires the owners and managers of multi-occupied residential buildings to ensure that the fire risk assessments for such buildings are reviewed and updated to encompass the structure, external walls and flat entrance doors

64
Q

As a minimum what should be included in a pre-construction document?

A
  1. DESCRIPTION/OVERVIEW OF THE PROJECT – Include any key dates and the contact details of the project team.
  2. CLIENTS’ CONDITIONS AND MANAGEMENT REQUIREMENTS – Management arrangements for the project and any specific Client goals and restrictions. Arrangements for the monitoring and review of the project/workforce, site inductions, security and welfare provisions.
  3. REQUIREMENTS RELATING TO THE HEALTH & SAFETY OF CLIENTS’ EMPLOYEES, CUSTOMERS OR THOSE INVOLVED IN THE PROJECT – Arrangements regarding site segregation, vehicular/pedestrian movements, fire and emergency procedures and Site Rules, especially those highlighted by the Client.
  4. ENVIRONMENTAL RESTRICTIONS AND EXISTING ON-SITE RISKS – Arrangements required to control specific Safety Hazards and Health Hazards identified.
  5. SIGNIFICANT DESIGN AND CONSTRUCTION HAZARDS – Arrangements to control and manage the significant design risks identified as part of the design process as well as particular materials where precautions may need to be assessed.
  6. CONSTRUCTION PHASE PLAN – Construction Phase Plan guidelines.
  7. HEALTH & SAFETY FILE- Identified requirement, the format and content.
65
Q

CDM

What is meant by notification and who is responsible?

A

Notify the HSE of the project
Done using the HSE online F10 form
Principle designer should notify, but also the duty of all designers and parties of the project to ensure this has been done