legal current aff pt 1

Question 1

impeachment of judge startes with:
Removal proceedings against a Supreme Court or a High Court judge can be initiated in any of the houses of Parliament. For this:

A minimum of — members of Lok Sabha may give a signed notice to the speaker, or
A minimum of — members of Rajya Sabha may give a signed notice to the Chairman.
The speaker or chairman may consult individuals and examine relevant content related to notice and according to that, he or she may decide to either admit or refuse to admit it.
fter the motion is admitted, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or Chairman of the Rajya Sabha will form an Inquiry Committee as per art —of the Judges (Inquiry) Act, -distinguished jurist, as per the opinion of the Speaker/Chairman.
If such notices have been admitted in both the Houses of Parliament, the Inquiry Committee will be formed together by the Speaker and the Chairman of the respective houses. In this scenario, the notice that has been on a later date will stand rejected. If such notices have been passed by both the Houses of Parliament on the same day, the Inquiry Committee will not be formed.

Answer 1

100- ls
50-rs
Article 3(2) of judges inquiry actm 1968

Question 2

fter concluding its investigation, the Inquiry Committee will put down its findings in a formal report and submit it to the Speaker or Chairman. If the report finds misbehaviour or incapacity which makes the judge guilty, the motion for removal has to be put to vote in both The Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. As per Article —of the Constitution, the motion is required to be adopted in each house by:

a)A majority of the total membership of the House, and
b)A majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting.
so MIN IS —-
If the motion is adopted by this majority in one house, the motion will be sent to the other house. a)

Answer 2

124(4)
2/3rd of total present and voting

Question 3

As per Article 124(4), after the motion is adopted in both the houses by the required majority, it is placed before the President of India, who will issue an order for the removal of the judge.
1. In ——, the Supreme Court decided that prior written consent of the Chief Justice of India is mandatory for any proceedings regarding the prosecution of a judge of a High Court or the Supreme Court to be initiated in the Parliament.
2. —- was a judge of the Supreme Court of India and the first judge against whom removal proceedings were initiated in independent India. cj of punjab haryana hc.
3.nother judge to face removal proceedings is —- of Calcutta High Court, proceedings against whom were initiated in Rajya Sabha on 17 August —.
4.Another such motion was initiated against Chief Justice — of Sikkim High Court who then resigned from his post, ALSO in 2011.
5. another judge was —: alleged that Chief Justice of India —– was assigning important cases to junior judges, ignoring senior Supreme Court judges

Answer 3

K Veeraswami v Union of India, , 1991
Veeraswami Ramaswami
Soumitra Sen, calcultta hc, 2011
Dinakaran-sikkim
dipak misra

Question 4

Lok Sabha passed the Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Bill, 2021 on August 2, 2022. Wild Life (Protection) Amendment Bill is aimed at implementing “Convention on
International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) of Wild Fauna and Flora.

Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972 comprised of – schedules for specially protected
plants, specially protected animals and one vermin species. Under the new bill, Schedule
has been reduced to -. . A new schedule has been added for specimens listed under CITES. which scheudle removed?

Answer 4

earlier - 6
now-4
Schedule for vermin species has been removed

Question 5

ITES (shorter name for the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora, also known as the — Convention) is a multilateral treaty to protect endangered plants and animals from the threats of international trade. It was drafted as a result of a resolution adopted in – at a meeting of members of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN). The convention was opened for signature in 1973 and CITES entered into force on 1 July —
sec gen: ????

Answer 5

washingtn convention
1963
1975
Ivonne Higuero.

so, resl adopted -63, opened-73, enforced -75

Question 6

Central Universities (Amendment) Bill 2022 was passed in Lok Sabha on August 3, 2022.
The Bill aims to convert the ‘National Rail and Transportation Institute (NRTI)’ - HWREE IS IT??into Gati
Shakti Vishwavidyalaya (GSV).
NRTI (Vadodara) is currently a Deemed to be University (declared under University
Grants Commission Act, –), while GSV would be a Central University and will be
sponsored & funded by central government through Railways Ministry. bills says existing VC of NRTI will hold office for around 6 monhths.
NRTI is the — transport institute of India. inside 55-
acre campus of National Academy of Indian Railways (NAIR), which is the apex training
institute of Ministry of Railways. Its permanent campus is likely to shift in Waghodiya
taluka of Vadodara in near future. F

Answer 6

VADODARAM gujju
ugc, 1956 act
1st

Question 7

he government on Tuesday appointed — as the acting chairperson of the Competition Commission of India (CCI). est in —

Answer 7

Sangeeta Verma
oct2003

Question 8

The Weapons of Mass Destruction and their Delivery Systems (Prohibition of Unlawful
Activities) Act was passed in —. It only puts ban on manufacturing of weapons of mass
destruction.
Amendment will add a new section – in the existing law. According to this section,
“parson shall not finance any activity, which is prohibited in the ac

Answer 8

2005
section 12a-in new

Question 9

– has been ranked at top slot, in terms of holding State Assembly Session in 2021. In
2020, amid the first wave of covid-19 pandemic, state had slipped to 8th position. There
were House sitting for – days in Kerala in 2021.
The National Commission for Review of Constitution (2000-02), provides that, House of State of Union Territories legislatures like Puducherry, with lower than 70 members shall
meet for at least – days in a year. On the other hand, Houses like in Tamil Nadu shall
meet for at least – days.
States like —-, Punjab, —, and Uttar Pradesh provides
for minimum number of sitting days under Rules of Procedure. MOPU
It prescribes — days
sittings in Punjab while 90 days in Uttar Pradesh

Answer 9

Kerala
61 days
min- 50 days (less than 70 ppl)
90 days - tn
Manipur, odisha - MOPU
40 days - punjab

90 in up+tn basically

Question 10

Ministry has made new amendments to Cigarettes and other Tobacco Products
(Packaging and Labelling) Rules, –.
The norm related to the new display image (“Tobacco causes painful death) on tobacco packs will be in place for
period of one year, starting from —–.
From —-, another display image will be used with warning written as “tobacco users die younger-.

ALSO: Cigarettes and Other Tobacco Products (Prohibition of Advertisement
and Regulation of Trade and Commerce, Production, Supply and Distribution) Act, —.

Answer 10

2008. dec 1, 2022
      dec 1, 2023

2003

Question 11

NADA est in —.
It deals with adoption and implementation of
anti-doping rules and policies, in line with the World Anti-Doping Agency. It was
established by Central Government, under the societies Registration Act.
hq??
chair?
India has contributed $—-, more than double of last year, to UNESCO fund for elimination of doping in sports. As per the resolution of 7COP held at –, 29-31 September, 2019, the State Parties had agreed for —% of the contribution of the regular budget of respective nation to UNESCO towards the Fund for the Elimination of Doping in Sport. so MIN IS –%

NADA India) will break ground on 2nd December 2022 when it hosts an Inclusion Conclave for the first time to sharpen the focus on anti-doping education and processes for athletes with disabilities in –?

Answer 11

2005,n delhi
anurag thankur/sports min
72,124 dollar
Paris cop7
1% - min
n delhi

Question 12

The World Anti-Doping Agency is a foundation initiated by the International Olympic Committee based in Canada to promote, coordinate, and monitor the fight against drugs in sports. Wikipedia
Headquarters: M—
President: —
Founded: 10 November –
Purpose: Anti-doping in sport

Answer 12

montreal, Canada
witoda banka
1999

Question 13

—- Declaration on Anti-Doping in Sport was agreed to by the Government of India in March, –, which was the political document through which Governments signalled their intention to formally recognize and implement the World Anti-Doping Code brought out by the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA).
This was the first step towards the preparation of the UNESCO International Convention against Doping in Sport.
unesco - the first global international treaty against doping in sport, which was unanimously adopted by — governments at the UNESCO General Conference in October 2005 and came into force in February —-. As of April 2020, 189 states had ratified the convention, setting a UNESCO record in terms of speed.
India is a signatory to the International Convention Against Doping in Sport, also known as the “UNESCO Anti-Doping Convention”, which was ratified by India on 07 —

Answer 13

Copenhagen Declaration o
2003
191
feb 2007 - force
November 2007. - us signed it

Question 14

Union government brought the “Anti-Maritime Privacy Bill 2019”, in line with India’s
commitment with the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), —.
India had ratified the UNCLOS in —. Anti-Maritime Piracy Bill 2019 was introduced in the
aftermath of kidnapping of 18 Indians aboard a crude oil carrier, off the coast of Nigeria

Answer 14

1982
1995-inda ratiifed

Question 15

the Supreme Court recognised the ‘right to be forgotten’ as part of ‘right to
privacy’.
It is a part of right to privacy, which
was recognised by Supreme Court in Puttaswamy case, implicitly in Article 21. Right to be
forgotten came to limelight in – in Google Spain Case at Court of Justice of the
—- . In India, this right is also recognised under the Personal Data Protection
Bill 2019.
In India, there is no legal standard for right to be forgotten currently.

Answer 15

in 2014 in Google Spain Case at Court of Justice of the
European Union.

Question 16

n —, Dakshin Gangotri, India’s first scientific base station in Antarctica was established, about 2,500 kilometers from the South Pole. Named after the Gangotri glacier, it was constructed during India’s – expedition to the ice-covered, southernmost continen. his was the first time an Indian team spent a winter in Antarctica to carry out scientific works.

wo active research stations in the Antarctic viz., Maitri at Schirmacher Hills and
Bharti at — Hills. Maitri was commissioned in – . India also built a freshwater lake around Maitri known as Lake Priyadarshini. while Bharti was
commissioned in –.
antartic is -th largest continent on earht.
India successfully launched the —th Scientific Expedition to Antarctica on November 15, 2021.

Answer 16

1983
3rd epxepdition ke time
Larsemann hills - bhartia -LLB
maitri-1989
bharti -2012- so latest-first committed research facility

5th largets.

41st exped

Question 17

he Antarctic Treaty was signed in — on 1 December – by the – countries whose scientists had been active in and around Antarctica.
It entered into force in – and has since been acceded by many other nations.
Antarctica is defined as all of the land and ice shelves south of –°S latitude.
Recently, an enormous iceberg ‘A-76’ has calved from the western side of the Ronne Ice Shelf, lying in the Weddell Sea, in Antarctica.
Members:
Currently it has – parties. India became a member of this treaty in –.
hq??

Answer 17

Washington
1959
12 countries (indian not)
1961
60 dgeree S
54
1983 - dakshin gangotri
buenos aires, argentina

Question 18

Indian Antarctic Programme:
It is a scientific research and exploration program under the National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Research (NCPOR). It started in – when the first Indian expedition to Antarctica was made.
NCPOR is the nodal agency for planning, promotion, coordination and execution of the entire gamut of polar and southern ocean scientific research in the country as well as for the associated logistics activities. chair?–
It was established in –.

In –, India commissioned the Sagar –, for research.
An ice-class vessel, it can cut through the thin ice of 40 cm depth and is the first Indian vessel to navigate Antarctic waters

Answer 18

1981-1st (1983-3rd)
Ravichandran
1998 est

2008, sagar nidhi

Question 19

Family Courts (Amendment) Bill 2022 includes;
Bill seeks to add a provision in sub-section 3 of section 1, for setting up family courts
in —y– in effect from February 15, 2019 as well as in —x– effective
from September 12, 2008.
It also seeks to add a new section 3A to validate all the action taken by these courts, retrospectively.
It will also validate the actions taken by both state govts under the Family Court Act of –.
In —x–, two family courts were set up in 2008 and in –y– three
family courts were set up in 2019

Answer 19

Himachal Pradesh
nagaland
1984

Question 20

he Supreme Court of India accepted the report of—
Commission. Court also gave direction to – State Election Commission to hold
elections in accordance with the report. This report has paved way for candidates who belong to Other Backward Classes in
Local Bodies’ Elections.
Commission has recommended to provide –%reservation in local bodies. This
recommendation has been accepted by the supreme court. Thus, OBCs will get –%
political reservation in local self-government elections to be held in state.
As per report, reservation should be provided to OBCs in proportion to their
population in each local body. However, this reservation should not affect the
statutory reservation for scheduled castes and scheduled tribes. It is subject to
reservation limit of –%.
As per commission, the backward class of citizens (including OBCs) ) accounts for 37%
of the total population. But it is different in each of the local body.

Answer 20

Jayant Kumar Banthia comm
maha
27% resrv
limit of 50%

Question 21

Chairman of NALSA, Uday Umesh Lalit, launched India’s First AI-powered, end-to-end
digital Lok Adalat in —.
AI-based Lok Adalat was launched during —th All India Legal Services
Authorities’ Meet. It was held in Jaipur, Rajasthan
— is the world’s first Justice Technology company. It has been working with several
quasi-judicial bodies and ADR centres across India, in a bid to transform and reboot
dispute resolution ecosystem, digitally. it has developed the “digital Lok Adala

Answer 21

Chairman of NALSA, Uday Umesh Lalit, launched India’s First AI-powered, end-to-end
digital Lok Adalat in Rajasthan

18th meet
Jupitice is the world’s first Justice Technology company.

Question 22

Presidential and Vice-Presidential Elections Rules, —
prez and vp eletions act, —-

Answer 22

1974
1952

Question 23

Jago Grahak Jago is consumer awareness campaign. Department of — has launched in
—.
Consumer Protection Act 1986 was enacted in 1986, for the protection of consumers’
interests in India. It came into effect on December 24, 1986. Consumer Protection Act,
– has now replaced the 1986 act.

Answer 23

. Department of Food has launched in
2005.

cpa 2019 - new

Question 24

Unparliamentary words are regulated in
accordance with Article — (2) of the Indian constitution. Under it, speech of
an MP in parliament is subject to discipline of Parliamentary rules and good sense of the
members.

this list is merely a compilation of expressions that had been
removed from records in the past. Earlier, the Secretariat used to release a book of such
unparliamentary words in a bid to avoid wastage of papers. Now the government has put
the list on internet. This list has been released in 1954, 1986, 1992, 1999, 2004, 2009, 2010
in the past. In year –, it was started releasing on yearly basis.
However,
chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker of Lok Sabha will have the last word in removing
words and expressions.

Rule 380 and Rule 381 of “Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in
Lok Sabha” deal with “Expunction (removal of unparliamentary words)”

Answer 24

art 105(2)
2010- yrly

Question 25

Ministry of —– and Ministry of Health & Family Welfare (MoH&FW)
inked a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for the elimination of TB.
to eliminating TB
by –. “TB Harega, Desh Jeetega” campaign across rural India.

The TB Free India Campaign was started by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in —- to eliminate
Tb. However, goal of eliminating TB by -, is 5 years ahead of global target of eliminating TB by 2030. sdg – talsk about health.
in 2022: Droupadi Murmu virtually launched the Pradhan Mantri TB Mukt Bharat Abhiyaan and Nikshay 2.0 portal. ndia has the world’s highest burden of tuberculosis (TB). e people and institutions who come forward to take care of the patients will be called —-.
Health Ministry designated Padma Shri, Khel Ratna Arjuna Awardee and the President of the Paralympic Committee of India, —— as Nikshay Mitra.
1. India will introduce a newly approved “made in India” TB infection skin test called ‘c-TB’
2. —– may give India its first adult tuberculosis vaccine. a recombinant Bacille Calmette-Guérin (rBCG) vaccine will be available in India. India already administers BCG vaccine to infants below a year old. However there is no vaccination for adults at the moment.

Answer 25

Panchayati Raj (MoPR)
2025
2018
sdg 3
Nikshay Mitras”. - nikshay 2.0
Dr. Deepa Malik - nikshay mitra
‘c-TB - skin
SII -Serum Institute

Question 26

Draft “Drug, Medical Devices & Cosmetics Bill-2022” was released recently by Union
Health Ministry to eplace the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, —.
bill prohibits clinical trials or clinical investigations related to drugs and medical
devices, if central licensing authority has not permitted. Though, Companies are
required to take permission from the regulator for conducting trials under current
rules as well. But this provision is not mentioned in 1940 act.
3. Under the definition of Medical Device, the draft Bill includes diagnostic equipment &
related software, devices for assistance with disabilities, implants, instruments used
for disinfection, life support, and reagents or kits. On the other hand, 1940 Act
categorises “medical devices” as one among the four categories of “drugs”.

Answer 26

1940

Question 27

four nominations to rs include:
1. —, who is the Music maestro from Tamil Nadu.
2. P T Usha/payoli express, who is a sports icon from –.
3. V Vijayendra Prasad, who is an acclaimed screenwriter from –.
4. Veerendra Heggade, who is the philanthropist and spiritual leader.

n Rajya Sabha, there are a total of — members. Out of them, President of India
nominates – members, on the recommendation of the Government. Nominations are
made in accordance with Article – of the Constitution. Nominated member can join a
political party, within six months of taking the nominated seat.

Answer 27

Ilaiyaraaja - tn - music
kerala - put usha
ktaa - v prasda

245
12 nomi
art 80(3)

Question 28

MoEFCC recently notified Forest (conservation) Rules 2022, under Forest (conservation) Act, –. it says:
1. An advisory committee, a screening committee at State or UT and a regional
empowered committee will be constituted for monitoring purposes.
2. Integrated Regional Office will be set up to examine all the linear projects (Highways and roads) on land up to 40 hectares and those projects using forest land up to 0.7 canopy density. 40 HECTAES
3. These rules provide for a fixed time for reviewing each project quickly.
4. States are going to be responsible for settling forest rights of forest dwellers, under
the Forest Rights Act, —-. They will also allow diversion of forest land.
5. Compensatory afforestation (CA) will now be allowed in other states. If state has
more than two-thirds area under green cover or more than one-third area under orest cover, then CA would be allowed to be taken in other states/UTs where this
cover is below —%.

epa, 1986 and enacted under Article 253 of the Constitution,

Answer 28

1980
forest righst act, 2006
20%

art 253

Question 29

Union Cabinet chaired by Prime Minister has approved to categorize the — as an “International Organization”. The Headquarters Agreement (HQA) was also signed with CDRI. This agreement will
grant it the exemptions, immunities and privileges in accordance with the United
Nations (Privileges & Immunities) Act, —.
CDRI was launched in — at the United Nations Climate Action Summit in —. It is an initiative
of goi. Members of CDRI include 31 countries, 6 international organisations and 2 private sector
organisations. TOTAL = –??
6 International Organisations include(ADB), (UNDP), World Bank Group), EU,, European Investment Bank, United Nations Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNDRR).
2 Private Sector Organisations include Private Sector Alliance for Disaster Resilient
Societies and Coalition for Climate Resilient Investment.

Answer 29

Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI)
un act, 1947
2019, yew york
38 ORGS (31 are country)

Question 30

The Union Government authorised the State Bank of India (SBI) for issue of and encashing
Electoral Bonds through its — Authorised Branches.
Electoral Bonds are valid for — calendar days from the date of issue and no payment is made to any payee Political Party, if the Electoral Bond is deposited after
expiry of the validity period.
The bonds that are not encashed by a party within those days are deposited by the SBI into the Prime Minister’s Relief Fund.
Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible Political Party in its account is credited wehn?
If any party that is registered under section — of the Representation of the Peoples Act,
1951 and has got at least —% of the votes polled in the most recent General elections or
Assembly elections then it can receive electoral bonds.

he bonds can be purchased by any citizen of India. It can be purchased for a period of
— days each in the months of January, April, — and October or as per specified by the
Government. JAJO

Answer 30

29 branch
15 days
credited on same day.
29A of rpa, 1951
1% of votes polled
10 days
july

Question 31

On June 27, 2022, the supreme court asked 16 rebel Shiv Sena MLAs to respond to
disqualification notice issued by Deputy Speaker. 1st: —. last: M. Thambidurai, till 2019
references have been made to landmark — judgment in ‘Kihoto
Hollohan vs Zachillhu And Others’. In this case, Supreme Court upheld sweeping
discretion available with the Speaker in deciding disqualification of MLAs cases.
The Tenth Schedule was added in the Constitution by which amendment in 1985? provides for disqualification of Members of Parliament and state
legislatures in case of defection.

whic art talks about speake and ds of ls and rs?

Answer 31

M. A. Ayyangar
1992 judgment in ‘Kihoto
Hollohan vs Zachillhu And Others’.
Fifty-SecondAmendment) Act, 1985

art 93 - speaker and ds of ls
art 178- speaker and ds of rs

Question 32

As per 2021 report of Minderoo Foundation of —, single-use plastics accounts for
– -third of all plastic produced worldwide, with —–% are manufactured from fossil fuels.
It also accounts for majority of plastic discarded worldwide in 2019 (130 million metric
tonnes). If this trajectory is followed, single-use plastic could make up 5 to —% of
greenhouse gas emissions by 2050.
India is featured among top 100 countries of
single-use plastic waste generation. It is ranked at rank –. The top three countries are
—- , Australia and —:SAO
Domestic production in India lies at 11.8 million metric
tonnes annually. Net generation of single-use plastic waste in India stands at —– MMT. Polythene bags under 75 microns was already banned in September 2021.
From December 2022, polythene bags under — microns will also be banned.

Answer 32

asutralia
1/3rd of all
98%
5 to 10% of all ghg emissions
94
Singapore, asutralia, oman
5.6 MMT-net SUP generation
120 microns

Question 33

which artckes talk aabt oath to sc and hc judges>
and oath of prez and vp?

Answer 33

sc - art 124(6) - by prez
hc - art 219 by governor
prez- art 60 - by cji
vp- art 69 by prez

Question 34

Under Article —- , a judge of the Supreme Court (and High Court (see Article —) can be removed from his office by an order of the President

Answer 34

124(4) and 124(5) , mainly clause 4
art 217 (1)
(1)(a)-resign volunaril, (b)-impeached, (c)-elevation

Question 35

int day of disbaed persons on —.
e Social Justice and Empowerment Ministry has invited public feedback on the New
Draft National Policy on Disability (PwD).
Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 also increased the number of disabilities
from 7 to –.
Policy called for a comprehensive national programme on prevention. It would also
include the disabilities added in 2016 Act.
According to the draft, how much of most disabilities in children were preventable, if
detected timely and early.

India signed the “UNs Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities” in the year
—. effective from: —- Parties to this convention are
required to protect, promote, and ensure full enjoyment of human rights by PWDs and
ensure that they enjoy full equality under the law. It serves as a major catalyst in global
disability rights movement and enable a shift from viewing PWDs as objects of charity,
social protection, and medical treatment. It was the first U.N. human rights treaty of 21st
century. location?? how many signatories? (same as wto members)

Answer 35

3 dec
21
1/3rd - prvenetable
2007
2008 - effective
ny, usa
164

Question 36

Residents of Puri had moved the High Court alleging that, structural safety of 800-year-old
Jagannath Temple could be in danger, if land surrounding the temple were dug up.
The foundation stone for the Rs 800 crore — Plan (also called Jagannath Temple corridor project) was laid by CM of Odisha in November 2021. Under this project, area within —- -metre perimeter of Jagannath Temple. as been modelled on the
line of Kashi Vishwanath Corridor project of Varanasi. . Its construction also took into consideration a Supreme Court judgement in 2019, that suggested to clear all structure around 75-metre radius for the safety of temple.

Answer 36

Srimandir Parikrama plan/temple corridor project
75 m

Question 37

The Jagannath Temple is a centrally protected monument and — is its custodian. Thus,
100 metre around the perimeter of temple is considered as inviolate, where no
construction can be taken in accordance with the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological
Sites and Remains (Amendment and validation) Act (AMASR Act) —–, unless National
Monuments Authority (NMA) gives nod to it. he Puri Corridor Project came into controversy when government agencies dug huge pits
within — m from the boundary of temple, which is categorised as protected zone,
without getting permission from Archeological Survey of India (ASI).
NMA functions under the Union Ministry of Culture. It was set up in 2011. nma chair??

Answer 37

ASI, est in 1861, under min of culture (DG: V Vidyavathi)
amasr act, 2010
100 m
nma - est in 2011, also under min of cult, under amasr act only.
chair is Kishor K. Basa

Question 38

n the A.G. Perarivalan case, the Supreme Court invoked Article –.
It has two clauses:
According to Article 142(1), the Supreme Court can pass any order for doing
complete justice in any pending before it. Such orders will be enforceable
throughout India as prescribed by any law made by Parliament or order of the
President of India.
According to Article 142(2), the Supreme Court has powers to make any order to
secure the attendance of any person, the production of any documents, or
punishment of any contempt of itself

Answer 38

142(1)

Question 39

rticle 142, originally numbered Article —, was introduced in the Constituent Assembly
on May 27th, — for discussion. But it was adopted on the same day without any debate
because there was a consensus that to ensure the independence of the judiciary

Answer 39

118
1949

Question 40

which other cases Article 142 was used by the Supreme Court?
latest: In —-, the Supreme Court imposed a ban on the sale of alcohol within — meters
from the outer edge of the highway using powers under Article 142.
In 2014, the Supreme Court canceled the allocation of coal blocks using powers
under Article 142.
1st ever: In —, using Article 142 the Supreme Court provided compensation to the victims
of the Bhopal Gas Tragedy.

Answer 40

2016, 500 m
1989- BGT

Question 41

In the year –, sex workers had been recognized by the National
Human Rights Commission (NHRC) as informal workers.
Under Article 142 of the Constitution, the Supreme Court (SC) invoked its special powers, recognizing sex work as a “profession”

Answer 41

2020

Question 42

The Inter-State Council (ISC) will be headed by the P— . It will comprise — union ministers and the Chief Ministers (CMs) of all states and Union Territories (UTs) with a legislature, and administrators of UTs without a legislature. – Union ministers will also be permanent invitees to the council. The standing committee of the Inter-State Council
(ISC) is also reconstituted. — will be the chairman of the standing committee. isc is a recommendatory body.
which art: President may establish Inter-State Council (ISC) if at any time it appears to him that the public interests would be served by it. The council was established in — through a
presidential order based on the recommendation of the Commission on Centre-State
Relations under the Chairmanship of Justice —

Answer 42

pm
6 union ministers
10 - perm
ome Minister
art 263
1990
R. S. Sarkaria. comm

Question 43

The Delhi High Court (HC) recently scrapped a proposed scheme of the Delhi cabinet. The
scheme was to supply rations at the doorstep of beneficiaries through government
empanelled direct-to-home delivery agencies. similar in: —, called —.
In —, the Delhi cabinet approved a scheme called ‘Mukhya Mantri Ghar Ghar Ration
Yojna’. But the scheme was opposed by Delhi’s Lieutenant Governor (LG).
The Delhi Ration Dealers Union moved to the Delhi High Court challenging the scheme,
arguing that the scheme bypasses existing fair price shop (FPS) owners. The Centre also
supported the petitions and held that the scheme is in contravention of the NFSA
(National Food Security Act).
The Delhi High Court held that a Delhi government can offer delivery of food grains at the
doorstep, but with its own resources. The court also held that the Delhi Cabinet should
refer the matter to the President for decision as there is a difference of opinion with the
Lieutenant Governor (LG)

Answer 43

w bengal, duare ration
2018

Question 44

– presides over jt session of parliament. — summons it under art –.
he speaker does not vote in the first instance. But he can exercise a casting vote in the case of a tie. In other words, only when the House is divided equally on any question, the Speaker is entitled to vote. Such vote is called casting vote, and its purpose is to resolve a deadlock.

1st speaker: –, 1952-56
lok sabha created when?

Answer 44

speaker
prez-art 108
gv malavankar
april 1952

Question 45

The Central Government released the new Draft — bill l, 2022. The government has today withdrawn the Personal Data Protection Bill that was formulated in 2018 and re-written by the JCP in 2021. BILL IS OF 2021!!!
It is expected to be introduced in the Indian Parliament in 2023 during the budget session.
The first draft of the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2018 was proposed by Justice —-
Committee, est in —, which was set up to provide recommendations on the new data protection
law in India. The 2018 bill was revised and the Personal Data Protection Bill, 2019 was
tabled at the Lok Sabha. The Lok Sabha passed a notion to refer the 2019 bill to a JPC of both the House of Parliament. Due to pandemic, JPC submitted the report only in December 2021. out of 99 provisons, they made 81 amendments (lol) and – major reccs.
The Data Protection Bill, 2021 was introduced by the government based on the recommendations of the joint committee. However, the bill was withdrawn because of the extensive changes
proposed by the joint committee.
this bill est a data protection auth, after which appeal s in a tribnal, further appeals to sc

Answer 45

Digital Personal Data Protection Bil, DPDP
JUSTICE BN SRIKIRSHNA COMM
2017 - comm est
12 major reccs

Question 46

justice pttuswamy 2017, bench number f judges?
azan:
npise pollution (rregu and control), rules , —- says in commmercial and residential areas, day ad night limit of sound is:

there are also silent zones(40db and 50db) aand indstrial areas (75 db and 70db)

Answer 46

9
2000
ccomm: 65 db and 55 db, d and n
resdiential: 55db and 45 db

Question 47

pdp bill changes to which atc, –

Answer 47

it act 2002

Question 48

pdp bill changes to which atc, –

Answer 48

it act 2002

Question 49

maternity benefit act, —
rceently amneded in –.
says that only women who have worked in estbalishments w/ – or more ppl, and woman has worked for MIN – days in a yr before her delivery.
A woman is entitled to – weeks of maternity leave (earlier:12) not more than six weeks of which may come before the due date. ILO standards mandate a minimum maternity leave period of — weeks and recommend increasing it to at least 18 weeks.

WHAT IF MISARRAIGE??
if miscarriage, woman will get – weeks of paid leave REGARDLESS OF how many days shes worked

art 15 which clause says provisions can be ,ade for women ans children.

Answer 49

1961
2017
10 or more ppl=est
80 days min working
26 weeks
min: 14 weeks and desired: 18 weeks

6 weeks

art 15(3)

Question 50

also central civil services (leave), rules of —.

woman w/ less han – survivng children can be given leave for —- days from date of commencement.
BUT IF MISSCARROAGE?
then woman will get leave of — days EVEN if she has more than 2 suviving kids.

Answer 50

1972

2 surviving kids
180 days (roughly 25 weeks)

45 days

Question 51

also central civil services (leave), rules of —.

woman w/ less han – survivng children can be given leave for —- days from date of commencement.
BUT IF MISSCARROAGE?
then woman will get leave of — days EVEN if she has more than 2 suviving kids.

Answer 51

1972

2 surviving kids
180 days (roughly 25 weeks)

45 days

Question 52

President is empowered to address both the houses of the Parliament under Article — of the Indian Constitution. The President’s address to both the houses is mandatory for the first session of every year and is given prior to any transaction in the session.
President Ram Nath Kovind addressed both the houses of the Parliament at the time of Union Budget 2022.
This address to the session by the President is also called a —- and it is an annual feature.

Answer 52

87
special Address

Question 53

Central Government is to clear the appointment of Senior Advocate — as judge of Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh High Court.
 He would be the first Muslim Judge from Jammu to the Jammu and Kashmir and Ladakh HC.

Answer 53

Sadiq Wasim Nargal

Question 54

Anti-NEET Bill was based on the recommendations of Justice —Committee which suggests
undermining the effect of NEET on diversified social representations in State’s medical and dental field.
 The Bill is sent for President’s consideration. Article —- of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor to give assent to the Bills passed by the State Legislatures and further reserve for the President’s assent if required.
art – also states that The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.

Answer 54

A.K. Ranjan commitee, in tamil nadu
art 200
art 361

Question 55

The Central Government gave —– which provides for recognition to
media representatives by Government of India. These accreditation guidelines would be applicable to digital news publishers as well.
 However, such status is subject to suspension and withdrawal if the media houses behave in manner causing
prejudice to National Security, Integrity and Sovereignty, public order, foreign affairs etc.
will accreditation be given to freelance journalists working for foreign media organisations???

Answer 55

Central Media Accreditation Guidelines 2022
no, wont be given to freelancers

Question 56

— High Court held that females outside the State cannot take benefit of reservations in public
employment, though being a member of SC/ST/OBC Class of that State, after they have been migrated to the State after marriage.
 However, they can avail of other benefits as being an member of a reserved category, if the scheme envisages domicile or residence as entitlement

Answer 56

ajasthan

Question 57

 The Central Government has passed the draft Bill for National Air Sports Policy 2022 in order to promote air sport activities in India and make India a global hub for air sports.
 Minister of Civil Aviation – Shri —-
 Minister of State for civil aviation- Gen. Dr. V.K. Singh
 Aim is to provide an accessible, affordable and sustainable air sports ecosystem by –
—- has been established as a governing body to manage and control the affairs related to Air Sports in India.
 ASFI will be accountable to Federation Aeronautique Internationale (FAI), the world governing body for air
sports. Headquarters of FAI – –

Answer 57

Jyotiraditya M. Scindia
2030
Air Sports Federation of India (ASFI)
Lausanne, Switzerland.

Question 58

ustice — former Supreme Court judge, reappointed as a Judge of non-resident panel of the Supreme Court of —.
 he was the first Indian judge to be appointed as judge in the Apex court of another country.
 He was first sworn to Fiji’s Apex Court in the year 2019.
 President of Fiji – —
capital? currency is fijian dollar

Answer 58

Madan B. Lokur,
fiji sc
Wiliame Katonivere
suva city

Question 59

— Assembly was prorogued by the Governor by exercising his power under Article —1– of the Indian Constitution. However, the Governor can exercise power to prorogue, dissolve or suspend the session only on the advice of Chief Minister of the State or the Council of Ministers as per Article –2– of the Indian Constitution. this art also est a COM.
 Then Governor of West Bengal – Jagdeep Dhankhar
 Proroguing means to discontinue the Parliamentary session or the session of the State Legislative Assembly.
 Article —2— limits the discretionary power of the Governor and he can only act independently only when the chief Minister loses his/her support from the legislative assembly

Answer 59

West Bengal
ART 174 (2)
art 163 - COM

Question 60

Power of the High Court under Section — of Code of Criminal Procedure is wider to include power to quash FIR and other subsequent proceedings for offenses which are non-compoundable in nature, observed Punjab and Haryana High Court.
 Power of High Courts under Section 482 is not limited by embargo of Section 320 of Cr.P.C which covers compounding of offence only and thus includes non-compoundable offences too

Answer 60

srction 482 crpc,: inherent powers of hc

Question 61

 – Police (Amendment) Bill 2021 banned online games in all formats including wagering, gambling and betting of all natures. Games of Skills and chance, any electronic transfer of funds or use of virtual currencies is also considered to be gambling by this act.
 The Online gaming companies challenged these provisions as they are a barrier to Karnataka being hub of online games.
 — was the first company to hold back its operations in the State.
 The Bench of Karnataka HC held the provisions of the Act to be unconstitutional and not the Act in entirety. It strikes down portion of Karnataka Police (Amendment) Act 2021 introduced by State Government to bannline gambling and skill-based gaming platform like rummy, poker, fantasy sports. That involved any
wagering or risking of money on uncertain events.
The Division Bench deciding on the case consisted of - Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi, Chief Justice of Karnataka HC and
Justice Krishna S. Dixit

Answer 61

ktaka
Mobile Premiere League

Question 62

— High Court observed that no decision or agreement of settlement given by Lok Adalat can be challenged by an appeal as it is deemed to be a decree of a Civil Court.
 However, the award can be challenged only by way of petition filed under Article 226 and 227 of the Indian Constitution.

Answer 62

Guahati High Court

Question 63

National Consumer
Helpline’s toll-free number is :
Cabinet Minister for Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution: –

Answer 63

Piyush Goyal
(1915)

Question 64

One member tribunal was formed by the Central Government to adjudicate upon —’s Islamic Research Foundation as ‘Unlawful Association’ under UAPA.
 The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) banned PFI for — years under the provisions of the Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act (UAPA). The ban on PFI is ‘temporary’ subject to confirmation by the UAPA tribunal.
 The tribunal was led by Justice —-, Chief Justice of Delhi High Court

Answer 64

Zakir Naik
5 yrs ’
D.N. Patel - also chair of tdsat

Question 65

One member tribunal was formed by the Central Government to adjudicate upon —’s Islamic Research Foundation as ‘Unlawful Association’ under UAPA.
 The Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) banned PFI for — years under the provisions of the Unlawful Activities
(Prevention) Act (UAPA). The ban on PFI is ‘temporary’ subject to confirmation by the UAPA tribunal.
 The tribunal was led by Justice —-, Chief Justice of Delhi High Court

Answer 65

Zakir Naik
5 yrs ’
D.N. Patel - also chair of tdsat

Question 66

Centre appointed Justic – as the presiding officer of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) tribunal which will adjudicate if there is “sufficient cause” for declaring the Popular Front of India (PFI) and its affiliate organisations as unlawful.
he was also the chairperson of the vulnerable witness program committee, formed in light of the — Supreme Court judgement which directed the setting up of vulnerable witness deposition complexes in all district court

Answer 66

e Dinesh Kumar Sharma
2018

Question 67

State of — moved SC in order to set up a Bench to hear plea on dispute of Krishna Water allocation which flows majorly in State of Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana and Karnataka.-MATK
 The Karnataka Water Dispute Tribunal II in its decision of – has allocated river water to Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka which was later challenged before SC when AP was bifurcated into Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.
 Article –(1) of Indian Constitution provides Parliament may be law provide for adjudication of any dispute orcomplain or complaint with respect to the distribution or control of water of or in any inter-state river or river valley.
 Article —(2) of Indian Constitution empowers Parliament, provided by law, that neither the Supreme Court nor any other Court shall exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such dispute or complaint.
 Earlier in January 2022, Justice D.Y Chandrachud and Justice A.S. Bopanna has rescued themselves from the decision of the Inter State Water Tribunal on account of indecent remarks over mails and letters.
 Recusal of Judges- It is the act of abstaining from participation in an official action such as a legal proceeding due to a conflict of interest of the presiding court official or administrative officer.

krishnva river has — trib. major are: The principal tributaries joining Krishna are the Ghataprabha, the Malaprabha, the Bhima, the Tungabhadra and the Musi. krishna river originates oin mahablaeshwar in —-

Answer 67

ktaka
2010
art 262(1)
art 262(2)

13 trib
maharashtra

Question 68

President, Ram Nath Kovind, conducted a fleet review of the Indian Naval Force on his 3-day visit to — Naval Command. This review aims to assure high morale, preparedness and discipline of the Indian Navy.
 The review was done in —, Andhra Pradesh. This was the second review to be conducted in the
city. First fleet review was done by the then President APJ Abdul Kalam in —.
 It was the –ndh fleet review till date. First fleet review was conducted by President Dr. Rajendra Prasad in —.

 Of all 12 reviews, there were two international reviews conducted in— and —-
 President is considered to be the Supreme Commander of Naval Force and other Armed Forces of India - WHICH ART?

Answer 68

eatsren naval command
vishakhaptanm - 2nd fleet review here
1st - 2006 - vshkhatapatnam - by kalam

12th reviw - 2022

1953-rajendra prasad-1st

2001 and 2016.

art 53(2)

Question 69

he Indian Naval Ship (INS) — has been awarded the prestigious President’s Colour by President Ram Nath Kovind. this ship n the aftermath of the devastating earthquake in Gujarat, Valsura performed a remarkable ‘Outreach’ activity.

it was commissioned as a torpedo training school during World War II to enhance the capability of the Indian Royal Navy.
The establishment was commissioned on 15th December, 1942 by then —-. After Independence, HMIS Valsura was renamed as INS Valsura on 1st July, —.

Answer 69

valsura
Maharani Gulab Kunverba Sahiba of Nawanagar
1950- renamed

Question 70

presdients colours/nishaan:
It is the highest award bestowed on a military unit in India in recognition of its exceptional services to the nation.
Out of the three defence forces, the Indian — was the first Indian Armed Force to be awarded the President Colour by Dr. Rajendra Prasad in —.
The Tradition: In ancient India, the armies of various Kings carried the ‘Dhwaj’ or the flag into a battle. also true for the military traditions of ancient Egypt or Rome where the armies carried flags and the ‘Roman Eagle’ into battle.
In India, as well as many Commonwealth nations, the tradition of Colours has been drawn from the British Army.
Traditionally, there have been four kinds of symbols associated with Colours —Standards, Guidons, Colours and Banners.

The Infantry regiments, army establishments, and Naval and Air Force units are all awarded Colours by the President while the Armoured Regiments are awarded the —.
The battle honours of the regiments are displayed on the Colours and therefore serve as a link to the regiment’s past.
The only exception is the Regiment of —. In it, the guns are considered to be the Colours and losing a gun in battle is similar to losing the Colour of the entire regiment.

Answer 70

Navy, 1951
Standards-amoured regiments
regiment of artillery

Question 71

Shri V. Narasingh, Shri Biraja Prasanna Satapathy and Shri Murahari Sri Raman has been appointed as new
Judges to — High Court by the President of India

Answer 71

orissa

Question 72

Mr. – has been appointed as Judge for — High Court. He became the first Union
law secretary to be appointed as serving judge of– HC.
 He was a former judge at District and Sessions Court of Karkardooma.
 Article — of Indian Constitution empowers President to appoint Judges to High Courts and Supreme Court on recommendations of Collegium.
 Along with Mr. Mendiratta, Dinesh Kumar Sharma and Sudhir Kumar has also been appointed as Delhi HC Judges which makes the present strength of HC to 34 from sanctioned strength of 62 Judges

Answer 72

Anoop Kumar Mendiratta
delhi hc
art 217

Question 73

 National Commission for Protection of Child Rights marked its —nd Foundation Day on 01st March 2022. 0 1 MARCH=NCPCR
 NCPCR collaborates with Border Security Force in order to provide psycho-social counseling and allied support to children of BSF Jawans. This initiative was termed as —- initiative.
Chief Guest of the Event – Union Minister for Women and Child Development, Mrs—
 Chairperson of NCPCR – –.
 NCPCR is a statutory body established under Commission for Protection of Child Rights Act – to ensure laws, policies and programmes in line with Child rights enshrined under UN Convention on Child Rights and
Indian Constitution.
 New Motto of NCPCR launched by WCD Minister Smriti Irani - ‘भविष्यो रक्षवि रवक्षि:’.

Answer 73

17th found day!
SAHARA inittiave
. Smriti Zubin Irani.
Mr. Priyank Kanoongo
2005 act

Question 74

 The Apex Court asked the HCs to notify and adopt VWDC/Y VULNERABLE WITNESS
DEPOSITION CENTRE at their respective Courts.
 Vulnerable witnesses will not be limited to mean only child witnesses. Also expanded meaning vulnerable witness to also include sexual assault victims, those with mental illness and people with speech or hearing impairment.
 Supreme Court urged former Chief Justice of Jammu and Kashmir HC, Justice —, to act as chairperson of a committee for designing and implementing of all India VWDC training Program.
 In —, SC approved Witness Protection Scheme 2018, which aimed to enabling a witness to depose fearlessly and truthfully. Under the judgment, Supreme Court held that Right of witness to testify freely in courts is part
of Article 21 i.e Right to life.

Answer 74

Gita Mittal - chair f commitee
2018 witness scheem

Question 75

Domestic violence for the first time has been defined in the Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act
—. It includes all forms of violence i.e physical, sexual, emotional, economical and verbal.
 Magistrate, under Section 19 of the Act, can pass a residence order in cases where there is proof of domestic violence.
 The Delhi HC opined that right of residence under the 2005 Act is indefeasible right of residence in a shared household and she cannot be evicted from the house unless she has been provided with an alternative
accommodation.

Answer 75

2005

Question 76

Flag Code — has been amended by the Central Government on account of manufacturing and importing of
polyester machine made flags.
 Before the amendment, — flags were not allowed to be manufactured. Also, machine-made flags were banned in the year –.
 The Flag Code 2002 deals with laws and rules with respect to the display of the National flag of India. It has
been divided into three parts. It also defines the National Flag.

Recently, the Government of India has announced that the national flag can now remain hoisted through the night, if it is in the open and hoisted by a member of the public.

Earlier, the tricolour could be hoisted only between sunrise and sunset.

Answer 76

2002
polyester flags
2019

Question 77

Justice to be the
Chairperson of Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT) confirms the Ministry of
Communication.
 Justice Patel will be serving for the tenure of 0– years
TDSAT also undertakes within its jurisdiction the disputes of Cyber Appellate Tribunal and Airport Economic Regulatory Authority Appellate Tribunal.
 Appeal from TDSAT’s decisions lies with—.
 The TDSA Tribunal comprises Chairperson and two members appointed by the Central Government where the chairperson should be a judge of Supreme Court or the Chief Justice of High Court.

Answer 77

D.N. Patel
4 yrs
supreme court

Question 78

The University Grants Commission (UGC) submitted draft guidelines for transformation of Higher Education Institutions into Multidisciplinary Institutions. The draft has also been opened to public feedback.
 UGC undertakes 3 approaches i.e academic collaborations among institutions, merger of single stream institutions and additions of various subject departments in these institutions.
 UGC is under the Ministry of—and it provides recognition to the universities in India. The New
Education Policy 2020 aims to have at least one multidisciplinary higher education institution in every district
of India.
 Earlier a Bill was passed to replace UGC with —- which was opposed by a large majority.

Answer 78

Education ministry
Higher Education Commission of India (HECI)

Question 79

Jagdeep Dhankhar became the 14th Vice President of India after defeating Margaret Alva, an NDA candidate.
 He is the second person from Rajasthan to attain the position of Vice President of India. 1st was: ???
 The Vice President is the second-highest Constitutional office in India chosen for tenure of five years.
 Article — of Indian Constitution talks about the Vice President of India. He is the ex-officio chairman of the Council of States or the Rajya Sabha.
 The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college made up of LokSabha and RajyaSabha members + nominated members too. The
election is conducted using a proportional representation system with transferable votes. Voting is conducted
by secret ballot

Answer 79

bhairon singh shekhawat
article 63- establishes (64-ex officio chair)

Question 80

Ministry of — submitted the assessed documents in sealed cover against Malayalam News Channel, Media One. The Ban on the channel was upheld by the Kerala High Court.
 “Sealed Cover” jurisprudence states accepting information by means of Government Agencies or instruments in sealed envelopes which can only be accessed by Judges of the Court of Law unless otherwise permitted. Such information should not be published in the public domain.
 Legal backing to Sealed Cover jurisprudence – Section – of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 and Supreme Court Rules, Order XIII Rule 7.
 Examples where SC used “Sealed Cover” Jurisprudence – Rafale Fighter Jet dealings, Ramjanambhoomi Case,
Coal Scam Case, etc

Answer 80

Home Affairs
section 123 of contract act

Question 81

1st time, Indian Constitution has been translated into — Script.
 It is the official writing system for —, an Austroasiatic language which is recognized as an official regional language in India.
 This translation has been useful in understanding laws, powers and the community’s fundamental rights for readers from Santhal and other tribes in India.
 Santhali language was added to the VIIIth Schedule of Indian Constitution by which constitutional AMENDMENT? which lists out the official languages of India. It also added Maithili, Dogri and Bodo languages to the list.
 The Eighth Schedule to the Constitution consists of 22 languages out of which —languages were added later by Amendments of 1967, 1992 and 2003

Answer 81

OlChiki script
santhali
92nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003- added santhali, maithili, dogri and bodo
8 languages added later in 1967, 1992 and 2003

Question 82

Arjun Munda, Union Minister of Tribal Affairs, moved the Constitution (Scheduled Tribes) Order
(Amendment) Bill in order to include certain STs of State of — in the Order of 1950.
 Earlier in February, — Community was removed from the list of Scheduled Castes (SCs) in State of Jharkhand.
 Constitution of India empowers the President to specify the list of Scheduled Tribes (STs) and Scheduled Castes (SCs) in various States and Union Territories. Parliament can modify such a list timely by amendment which art for STs?

Answer 82

Tripura
bhogta in jharkhand
art 342

Question 83

The — High Court has invoked the “parens patriae jurisdiction” to declare Mother Nature as a Living
Being with all corresponding rights, duties.
 Earlier instances of such decision were of – which was the 1st Country to grant the legal Right of Nature in its Constitution.
 In —, Uttarakhand High Court granted a Living entity status to river Yamuna and Ganga.
 In 2020, Punjab and Haryana High Court has declared —- Lake as a living entity.

Answer 83

madras - mother nature
ecuador
2017- uk-ganga, yamuna
2020-punjab _haryana - sukhna lake

Question 84

– judge Bench of Karnataka HC upheld provisions of Karnataka Education Act— which prescribes wearing of school uniforms.
 The petition was filed by 9 Muslim Girls of Udupi district.
 High Court held that wearing of hijab as part of school uniform is not part of eERP in
Islam and hence cannot be given protection under Article – of the Indian Constitution i.e right to freedom of religion.
 Ban on hijab in educational institutions is a valid reasonable restriction and not violative of Article 19(1)(a) and Article 21 of the Indian Constitution.
 Appeal against this order was filed in SC contending wearing of hijab as right to conscience under Article 25 of
Constitution of India.

Answer 84

3 judge becnch
1983 act
art 25

Question 85

SC Collegium recommends elevation of Justice — as Chief Justice of Allahabad High Court. He is
presently working as the Acting Chief Justice of Allahabad HC

Answer 85

sanjay Yadav

Question 86

ndia will ban manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of identified single use plastic items, which have low utility and high littering potential, all across the country from July 1, 2022. ban PVC banners less than — microns. Single use plastic include Polysterene and
expandable Polysterene/——.
In the 4th United Nations Environment Assembly held in 2019 (5th held in —-, in 2022, w theme: Strengthening Actions for Nature to Achieve the SDGs) India had piloted a resolution on addressing single-use plastic products pollution, recognizing the urgent need for the global community to focus on this very important issue.
Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, –, also prohibit manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of plastic carry bags having thickness less than —- microns with effect from 30th September, 2021, and having thickness less than thickness of —-y microns with effect from the 31st December, 202

Answer 86

banners less than 100 microns
thermocol
2019 - 4th UNEA - nairobi
5th- 2022- nairobi, kenya (both held there)
2021 rules
75 mic- sept ‘21
120 mic - dec ‘22

Question 86

ndia will ban manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of identified single use plastic items, which have low utility and high littering potential, all across the country from July 1, 2022. ban PVC banners less than — microns. Single use plastic include Polysterene and
expandable Polysterene/——.
In the 4th United Nations Environment Assembly held in 2019 (5th held in —-, in 2022, w theme: Strengthening Actions for Nature to Achieve the SDGs) India had piloted a resolution on addressing single-use plastic products pollution, recognizing the urgent need for the global community to focus on this very important issue.
Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, –, also prohibit manufacture, import, stocking, distribution, sale and use of plastic carry bags having thickness less than —- microns with effect from 30th September, 2021, and having thickness less than thickness of —-y microns with effect from the 31st December, 202

Answer 86

banners less than 100 microns
thermocol
2019 - 4th UNEA - nairobi
5th- 2022- nairobi, kenya (both held there)
2021 rules
75 mic- sept ‘21
120 mic - dec ‘22

Question 87

Article 51(—-) of the Directive Principled of State Policy states “It shall be the duty of every citizen to protect and
improve natural environment”.

Answer 87

art 51 clause g - environemnt

Question 88

A G Perarivalan alias Arivu, 50, was 19 when he was arrested on June 11, —. He was accused of having bought two 9-volt ‘—-’ battery cells for Sivarasan, the LTTE man who masterminded the conspiracy. The batteries were used in the bomb that killed Rajiv Gandhi on May 21 that year.
Over — years of jail, seven long years of wait

Answer 88

1991
golden power cells
31 yrs in jail

Question 89

, — has been appointed as additional judge to Kerala High Court by the
Central Government. He was working as registrar of Kerala HC

Answer 89

Karunakaran Nair Haripal
kn haripal

Question 90

— High Court initiated new project called the Virtual Office. The project enrolls the features of e-filing, eoffice and paperless courts which means electronic mode will be the medium of filing of cases in the High
Court.

Answer 90

kereala hc
virtual office

Question 91

Parliamentary Standing Committee on home affairs in its —nd Report recommended review of the country’s criminal justice system and machinery comprehensively.
 Under the Chairpersonship of , Vice-chance—llor National Law University Delhi, a committee has
been formed in order to recommend suggestions in reforming criminal laws including Indian Evidence Act, Criminal Procedure Code and Indian Penal Code

Answer 91

146th report
Ranbir Singh

Question 92

SC to relook and re-examine the Sedition laws and ordered pending trials to be at hold till the process. Also, the
Court asked the Government to stop usage of the provisions till completion of the process.
 Earlier the Union Ministry of Home Affairs was to examine the Sedition laws.
 Sedition has been defined under Section — of the Indian Penal Code. The offence was inserted in the year —.
 In the landmark judgment of 1962 in case of —, the SC upheld the validity of
Section 124A of IPC.

Answer 92

124A
1890 by james stephen
Kedar Nath Singh vs. Union of India

Question 93

IMPORTANT: Justice —– and Justice —- of – HC gave split verdict on petition challenging marital rape under exception – to Section – of IPC to be unconstitutional on the grounds of infringement of Article 14, 15 and 21 of India Constitution.
 Petition was filed by NGO RIT Foundation, All India Democratic Women’s Association and opposed by NGO Men Welfare Trust.
 The Bench issued a certificate of leave in order to appeal to SC as the petitions involve substantial questions of law to be decided by the Apex Court.
 No statute or legislation defines Marital Rape in India. However, the same has been criminalized in — Countries by explicit legislation.
—— was the first country to explicitly criminalise marital rape in —-.
—, under the influence of the second wave of feminism in 1976 was the first common law country(india too) to pass reforms and criminalise marital rape.

Answer 93

C.Hari Shankar, rajiv shakdher of DELHI HC
exceotion 2 of sec 375
77 countries
poland - 1932
australia - 197

spptd by rit found+india demo womens assoc
opposed by ngo men welfare trust

Question 94

Family Courts Act of – established family courts in every district.
 Under the Act, State Governments are required to establish family courts in all cities and towns with a
population of —- or more

Answer 94

1984
1 million

Question 94

generally sc collegium has – members (cji +4 senior most). w/ dy chndrachud cji, -4 most senior-most judges – Justices Sanjay Kishan Kaul, S. Abdul Nazeer, K.M. Joseph and M.R. Shah - mc=2h
now when dy reties, justice sanjiv khanna is successor cji.
BUT,
\“If the successor Chief Justice of India is not one of the four seniormost puisne Judges, he would be made part of the collegium as he should have a hand in the selection of Judges who will function during his term as Chief Justice of India.”
On May 15, 2023, when Justice M.R. Shah will retire, the Collegium will revert to its usual strength of five. TILL then, collegium will have — ppl.
Currently, Justice Khanna is the seventh puisne (a judge of a superior court inferior in rank to the chief justice) judge in the top court. after chadrachud retires, will become cji. fter CJI Chandrachud’s retirement, his place in the collegium will be taken by Justice —.

The last time when the collegium had a strength greater than five was during the tenure of the 37th CJI, —-

Answer 94

5 ppl
6 ppl
Abhay S. Oka
K.G. Balakrishnan - 37th cji

Question 95

 Justice – and justice – have been appointed as Judges to the SupremeCourt as per the recommendations of SC Collegium headed by Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana.
 Other Four members in the Collegium were Justice U.U. Lalit, D.Y. Chandrachud, L. Nageshwar Rao and A.M.Khanwilkar.
 Justice Sudhanshu became the Chief Justice of Guahati High Court in 2021.
 Justice Pardiwala is the -th Parsi to be elevated as Supreme Court Judge. His father Burjor Cawasji Pardiwala served as Speaker of – Legislative Assembly.
1st parsi sc judge was: — , 30th cji. also is exec chair of nalsa

Answer 95

Sudhanshu Dhulia and Justice Jamshed Burjor Pardiwala
4h parsi
gujarat legslistaive
sp bharucha

Question 96

National Crime Record Bureau - NCRB comes under the preview of the Ministry of—
 It has the duty to maintain a repository of criminal records by collecting and analysing different data from the accused persons under Indian penal code or any special or local laws. It helps to create the link for the investigators. - CRIMINLA Bill
Indian government agency responsible for collecting and analyzing crime data as defined by the Indian Penal Code (IPC) and Special and Local Laws (SLL). set up based on the recommendation of the Task force, 1985 and National Police Commission, 1977 by merging the Directorate of Coordination and Police Computer (DCPC), Inter State Criminals Data Branch of CBI and Central Finger Print Bureau of CBI. Earlier Statistical Branch of Bureau of Police Research and Development (BPR&D) was also merged with NCRB, but was later de-merged.

est in —–, head??

Answer 96

home affairs.
1986
vivek gogia

Question 97

Cabinet Minister for Ministry of Health and Family Welfare – Dr –

Answer 97

Bharati Pravin Pawar

Question 98

Bigamy, under the section — of IPCis defined as ‘whoever having a husband or wife living, marries in any case in which such marriage is void by reason of its taking place during the life of such husband or wife shall be punished’.
 — HC held wife’s consent to be immaterial for such offence of Bigamy committed by the Husband.
in the case of State of Bihar vs. Deokaran Nenshi and Others , WHEN????, interpreted ‘Continuing offence’ as one which is
susceptible to the continuance & its distinguishable from the one which is committed once and for all and
arising out of the failure to obey or comply with the rule or its requirements and which involves penalty, the
liability for which continues until the rule or its requirement is obeyed or compiled with.

Answer 98

sec 494
karnatak hc
1972 - bihar v deokaran nenshi - cointuing offence

Question 99

he –nd constitutional amendment in — act gave a constitutional status and
protection to cooperative societies and made the following changes in the constitution: It made the
right to form co-operative societies a fundamental right (Article 19). It included a new Directive Principle of State Policy on promotion of co-operative societies (Article — ). It added a new Part IX-B in the Constitution which is entitled “The Co-operative Societies”. art 243ZH-243ZT
The Union Ministry of Cooperation was
formed in July –. The ministry provides a separate administrative, legal and policy framework for
strengthening the cooperative movement in the country. The ministry’s creation was announced on 6 July 2021 along with its vision statement of “Sahkar se samriddhi” (Prosperity through cooperation).
Before the creation of this ministry, the objectives of this ministry were looked after by the Ministry of
—. Amit Shah is currently serving as the Minister of Home Affairs since 2019 and the first
Minister of Co-operation of India since 2021.

Answer 99

97th, 2011
art 43-B - dpsp (19-fr)
2021
min of agriculture

Question 100

Expression ‘minority’ appears in some articles of Indian Constitution but is not defined anywhere.
 Central Government informed Supreme Court that State Governments are now authorised to grant minority status to any community based on religious or linguistic criteria including Hindus.
 Article — of Indian Constitution provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of the country has a distinct script or culture of its own shall have the Right to Conserve the same.
 It grants protection to both religious and linguistic minorities.
 Article – of the Indian Constitution says that all minorities shall have the Right to Establish and Administer Educational Institutes of their choice.

Answer 100

art 29
30

Question 101

orest Conservation Rules 2022 has been notified by the Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change under Forest Conservation Act —.
 Cabinet Minister for Environment, Forest and Climate Change – Shri —-
 The rules set up an advisory committee at National level, screening committee at State or Union Territories and regional empowerment committee.
 Also, an integrated regional office to examine all linear project involving forest upto — hectares will also be
established under these rule

Answer 101

1980
Ashwini Kumar Choubey. - CABINET MIN
40 hectares - IRO

Question 102

Chief Justices of – High Courts have been appointed and notified by the Minister of Law and Justice – Mr. Kiren Rijiju.
 In the High Courts of Uttarakhand, Telangana, Rajasthan, Himanchal Pradesh and Guwahati such
appointments have been made.
 Article 217 of Indian Constitution states for appointments of Chief Justices of High Courts and other Judges of
High Courts.
 Such appointment has to be made by the President of India in consultation with the – and —

Answer 102

5 hcs
Chief Justice of India and
Governor of such state.

Question 103

Justice U.U Lalit, Chief Justice of India, there will be at least – Constitutional Bench functioning throughout the year.
 Constitutional Bench means a Bench of Supreme Court that has – or more Judges sitting on it to decide the dispute.
 As per Article — of Indian Constitution, the President of India has the power to address question to Supreme
Courts which is important to public welfare.
 Article — read with Article —– of Indian Constitution states about Constitutional Bench that the minimum
number of Judges who are to sit for purpose for deciding any case involving a substantial question of law to the
interpretation of this constitution or the purpose of hearing any references under article 143 shall be 5 .

Answer 103

1 bench
5 or more (usually odd)
131- og jurisid
145(3), 143-advisory

Question 104

The Department of Consumer Affairs under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution, notified new rules for Consumer Protection (—–) Rules 2021 deriving such power from Consumer
Protection Act, 2019.
 As per the new rules, direct selling entity and direct sellers are prohibited from promoting scheme or enroll any
person to such scheme or participate in such agreement.
 Minister of Consumer Affairs –- —–

Answer 104

Direct Selling, rules , 2021
Piyush Goyal

Question 105

OCT’22: The Central Government has extended for another six months the application of the disturbed area under the
Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act, AFSPA in — districts of —- and –.

 The law was first introduced by British to suppress the Quit India Moment in —.
 Power given to armed force to maintain public order in the disturbed areas.
 It is effective in whole of Jammu-Kashmir and some parts of Nagaland, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh.
 In —, Jeevan Reddy Commission was formed and it submitted its report in 2005. Commission recommended
to repeal AFSPA as, the act is a symbol of hate, oppression and instrument of high handedness.
 In 1997, Supreme Court advocated: Caution and use of minimum force against our own people. In AFSPA,
regions have validity to the act.
now, in: 5 states, name them: 2a+nmk

Answer 105

12 DISTTS
Nagaland and Arunachal Pradesh.
1942
2004-jeevan reddy comm

Jammu and Kashmir
3.2 Nagaland
3.3 Assam
3.4 Arunachal Pradesh
manipur

Question 106

Supreme Court verdict in—- (2022) states that the victims of crime should be heard at
all stages of a trial.
 The court noted that international instruments and trend as well as the recommendation of Law Reform Reports all supported allowing victim of crime to participate more fully. This had become a cause for
excitement for victim rights activists.
 As per Section 2(wa) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, victim is defined and recognised only after an accused
has been charged with offence. This results in the denial of basic rights to the victim of the case of crime.

Answer 106

Jagjit Singh vs. Aashish Mishra

Question 107

President advocated for the concept of meditation in the Judicial Conference on Mediation and Information Technology.
 Mediation is voluntary and binding process in which a neutral and impartial mediator asset disputing parties in reaching settlements.
 Mediator doesn’t impose a solution rather it creates a conducive environment in which disputing parties can
resolved all of their disputes.
 In January —, the Supreme Court in MR Krishna Murthi vs. New India Assurance Co. Ltd. emphasized the
urgent need for India to implement uniform legislation for mediation.

Answer 107

2020 jan

Question 108

OVER – LAKHS CASES DISPOSED IN 1ST LOK ADALAT OF 2022 ORGANIZED BY NATIONAL LEGAL
SERVICE AUTHORITY UNDER LEADERSHIP OF CJI U.U. LALIT
 National Lok Adalatis one of the ADR mechanisms. It is a form where disputes cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled compromised amicably.
 Lok Adalat has Statutory Status under Legal Services Authority Act, —.
 Award of Lok Adalat is deemed to be equivalent to the decree of the – Court and is enforceable in similar manner.
 Person deciding the case is called member of Lok Adalat and his role is statutory and conciliatory (not Judicial Member)
National Legal Services Authority (Lok Adalat) Regulations, –

Answer 108

40 lakh
1987
cicl court
2009

Question 109

A new amendment of the Environment Protection Act was introduced by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change.
 As per the amendment —-% of fly ash is to be utilised by coal and lignite based thermal power plants.
 The Ministry has proposed the decriminalisation of the existing provisions of the EPA,– in order to weed
out fear of imprisonment for simple violations.It involves removal of imprisonment as a penalty for the “less
severe’’ contraventions
 Cabinet Environment Minister - Shri 00

Answer 109

100% of fly ash
1986
Bhupendra Yadav

Question 110

Supreme Court criticizes Central Government’s failure to settle mercy plea of —-, who was convicted for assassination of the former — Chief Minister Beant Singh.
 He is on death row for nearly 27 years because of the delay on the part of Government to decide on Mercy Petition.
 The plea by Rajoana has sought commutation of his death sentence to life imprisonment on the ground of his long incarceration of 26 years.

 Mercy petition is granted when a person exhausts all the remedies available to him under the prevailing laws and the Constitution, then under Article – of the Indian Constitution, a mercy petition can be filled to the
President of India or to the Governor of the state under Article —.

Answer 110

balwant Singh Rajoana
punjab cm beant s
art 72
art 161

Question 111

A petition was filed against validity of –nd Constitutional Amendment Act — that provides 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Section.
 Supreme Court asked about the logic behind setting – lakh/ year income limit for EWS quota. Panel formed by
the Government said that criteria is not over inclusive.
 A how many?? -judge Constitution Bench headed by —- reserved the verdict on the legal question of whether the EWS quota violated the basic structure of the constitution. in a —- verdict, the Supreme Court upheld EWS Reservations introduced through the Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019. all Judges agreed that the Constitution permits reservations based solely economic criteria, but disagreed on who can avail EWS reservations and how many seats may be reserved

Answer 111

103rd, 2019
8 alkh limit
5 judge bench
Chief Justice Uday Umesh Lalit
3-2 veridct
lalit and Ravindra Bhat dissented,
ces Dinesh Maheshwari, Bela Trivedi and J.B. Pardiwala 0 majority

Question 112

SUPREME COURT EXAMINES ALLEGATIONS OF RAMANT: M
3 Judge Bench is holding back-to-back hearing on petition filled by people from all walks of life and across the country complaining of the alleged subversion of the Prevention of Money Laundry Act (PMLA) by theGovernment and the Enforcement Directorate.
 Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) was enacted in year –.
 — is responsible for investigating offences under PMLA.
 Authority under PMLA exercises power given into them under Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, —

Answer 112

2002
Enforcement Directorate (ED)
2018

Question 113

 A committee constituted by Union Home Ministry in December to study withdrawal of AFSPA from – to submit a report within 45 days as claimed by Chief Minister – is yet to conclude its findings.
 Panel formed in the wake of growing civilian anger against the botched ambush an elite unity of army that led
to killing of civilian in Oting in Nagaland and – district on December 4 2021.
 Act passed in – is applicable to Nagaland since it was part of Assam and created in —-

Answer 113

\Nagaland
Neiphiu Rio cm
mon distt
1958
30 nov, 1963

Question 114

Rajiv Kumar Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) has written a letter to Union Law Minister Kiren Rijiju
recommending bringing down the amount from — to 2000 for anonymous donation and a cash cap or –% or at a maximum of – Crores. This helps to clean the black money and would provide more
transparency in the donations received by political parties.
 Election Commission of Indiais a Constitutional Body formed under Article 324 of Indian Constitution.
 It was established in accordance with the Constitution on —-, – (celebrated as national voters’ day).
The election commission is established to conduct and regulate the Union and state election of India.
 The Election Commission consist of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the President may from time-to-time fix. Presently it has a Chief election commission and two election commissioners.
The Election Commissioner Amendment Act, ——” was adopted on 1 January 1990 which turned the commission into a multi-member body: a 3-member Commission has been in operation since then and the decisions by the commission are made by a majority vot

Answer 114

20,000
20%
20 cr
25th January 1950
1989 act - turned it into multippl grp

Question 115

 Bill seeks to amend Delhi Municipal Corporation Act —. it was amended in —.
Municipal Corporation of Delhi was divided into separate North, South, East Delhi and Municipal Corporation.
 Bill will replace – Municipal Corporations under the act with one corporation named M—. which ones? east, north and south mcs.

Answer 115

1957
2011
3 corps
unicipal Corporation of
Delh

Question 116

Irretrievable Break Down of Marriage means the situation that exists when either or both spouses are no longer
able or willing to live with each other thereby destroying their husband-and-wife relationship with no hope of
resumption of spousal duties.
 In the case of —, —–, Supreme Court of India held that if a marriage has broken down
beyond repairs, it would be unrealistic for the law not to take notice of the fact and it would be harmful to
society and injurious to the interest of the parties.

Answer 116

Naveen Kohli vs. Neelu Kohli, 2006

Question 117

 Supreme Court of India allowed an unmarried woman to end her pregnancy at 24th week after Delhi High ourt refused to allow it citing the provisions of Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 1971.
 Section — of Indian Penal Code, 1860 criminalize act of voluntary causing a woman to miscarry and prescribes punishment of - years for that offense.
 Medical Termination Pregnancy (Amendment) Act 2021 brought key changes to the MTP Act of 1971. It was allowed for pregnant married woman and her husband to terminate child earlier but under the Amendment
Act 2021, it was replaced by “any women and her partner” can terminate pregnancy now which means both married and unmarried women are allowed to terminate their pregnancy.
 Supreme Court in its decision on 29th September 2022 held that marital rape is also covered under the definition of rape under the MTP Act.

Answer 117

312/causing misscarroage
3 years

Question 118

idniann majority act, —
muslim age of puberty at –

Answer 118

1875
15 yrs

Question 119

idniann majority act, —
muslim age of puberty at –
pensions regularions pf army, regulatons, —
entitlement rules for casual pensionary awards, —

Answer 119

1875
15 yrs
1961
1982

Question 120

to figure out body is under art 12, then meet even just 1 out of 5 of the tests in —- v — case of 1981.
also in —–, prdip kumar biswas vs uoi

Answer 120

ajay hasia v khalid mujeeb, 1981
2002

Question 121

e Supreme Court (SC) agreed to see PIL challenging changes made to the right to freedom of speech and expression by the – amendment to the Constitution in —.

Petitioner’s Arguments?
Section 3(1) of the amending Act substituted original Clause (2) of Article 19 with a new Clause (2), which contained two objectionable insertions.
Original Clause (2) of Article 19 was dealing with reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expression guaranteed under Article 19(1)(a).
New Clause (2), contained “two objectionable insertions” allowing restrictions also “in the interest of —-” and “in relation to incitement to an offence”.
Section 3 (2) of the amending Act effected validation of certain laws even if they abridged the right to freedom of speech and expression.
The amendment also neglects national security by dropping the expression ‘tends to overthrow the State’ which raises grave concern in the context of the dangers posed to the concept of secular democratic republic by radicalism, terrorism and religious fundamentalism.
Insertions Protect Sections of the IPC from the vice of Unconstitutionality:
124A: Sedition
153A: Promoting enmity between different groups on grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc., and doing acts prejudicial to maintenance of harmony.
295A: Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs)
505: Statements conducing to public mischief) of the Indian Penal Code from the vice of unconstitutionality.
Section 3 (1)(a)- 3 (2) Void:
The plea urged the court to declare Section 3 (1)(a) and 3 (2) of the First Amendment “beyond the amending power of Parliament” and void since the “same damage the basic or essential features of the Constitution and destroy its basic structure”.

Answer 121

1st amendment, 1951 (navy-nishaan award)
public order (1) ; 2-offence incitement

so, declare section 3 (1)(a) and 3 (2) of the First Amendment

Question 121

police offers to ensure sections – and – of crpc complied w during arrest. if not,, bail will be granted

Answer 121

sec 41 and 41a

Question 122

The formal title of the amendment is the Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951. It was moved by the then Prime Minister of India, —, on 10 May 1951 and enacted by Parliament on 18 June 1951. it was passed in 1951 by the Provisional Parliament, members of who had just finished drafting the Constitution as part of the Constitutional Assembly.
The First Amendment Act amended articles 15, 19, 85, 87, 174, 176, 341, 342, 372 and 376.
Provided for the saving of laws providing for the acquisition of estates, etc.
Added — Schedule to protect the land reforms and other laws included in it from the judicial review. After Article 31, Articles – and – were inserted.
The immediate reason for the amendments were a series of Supreme Court and High Court judgments that had struck down provisions of public safety laws, press related laws and criminal provisions that were deemed to be incompatible with the constitutional right to freedom of speech.

Under the provisions of Article 31, laws placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be challenged in a court of law on the ground that they violated the fundamental rights of citizens.
Article 31(A), has vested enormous power to the State with respect to the acquisition of estates or taking over management of any property or corporation in public interest. It sought to exclude such acquisitions or from the scope of judicial review under Articles – and —
The Ninth Schedule was widely misused. Ninth Schedule contains more than 250 legislations receiving protection under Ninth Schedule from judicial scrutiny.

Answer 122

Jawaharlal Nehru
9th scheudle - land reforms (abol of zamindari)
articles 31A and 31B were added.
articles 14 and 19 - scope

Question 123

THE INDIAN ANTARCTIC ACT, 2022 seeks to give effect to the Antarctic Treaty, the Convention on the Conservation of Antarctic Marine
Living Resources, and the Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty.
CCALMR, opened for signature on 1 August — and entered into force on 7 April – by the Commission for the Conservation of Antarctic Marine Living Resources, hqed in?? was established in large part to concerns that an increase in krill catches in the Southern Ocean could have a serious impact on populations of other marine life which are dependent upon krill for food.
—– became a New Member of the Commission, the 26th member of the CCAMLR.

n —-, the Commission agreed by consensus to creating a representative network of MPAs by —. It was the FIRST international body to do this based on recommendations from the United Nations World Summit on Sustainable Development. In 2011, it identified nine planning domains within which to designate these protected areas
PAs were established in the —– in 2009 and the – region in 2016

Answer 123

1980signature
1982-effective
tasmania,hobart, asutralia
ecuador - 26th and latest

2009
by 2012

South Orkney Islands - 2009
Ross Sea region - 2016

Question 124

antartica bill The Bill is applicable to Indian citizens as well as foreign citizens.
The Bill further prohibits drilling, dredging, excavation or collection of mineral resources or even doing anything to identify where such mineral deposits occur.
The only exception is for scientific research with a permit.
aroud – resrarch stations globally. The United States maintains the southernmost base, Amundsen–Scott South Pole Station, and the largest base and research station in Antarctica, —-.

Answer 124

70
mcmurdo station

Question 125

Together with ‘—’ station in Svalbard, above the Arctic circle, India is among an elite group of countries with multiple research in the polar regions. – is the abode of snow’ is India’s first PERMAMNENY research station located at the International Arctic Research base, NyÅlesund, Svalbard, —-. It is located at a distance of 1,200 kilometres from the North Pole

Answer 125

himadri
norway

Question 126

The Protocol on Environmental Protection to the Antarctic Treaty was signed in — on October 4, — and entered into force in —. It designates Antarctica as a “natural reserve, devoted to peace and science” (Art. 2).
— total signatories, — are Consultative Parties to the Antarctic Treaty, and the other 13 are Non-Consultative Parties

Answer 126

madrid
1991
1998

42 signatoes (inclu india)
29 - consultative - india too

Question 127

The Finance Act, 2022 was passed by Parliament to give effect to the Government’s financial proposals for 2022-23 by n sitharaman.
1. no change in income tax rates for individuals and corporation
2. : Currently, the surcharge on LTCG on listed equities and equity mutual funds is capped at –%. The surcharge on other LTCG is –% of the total income is between two crore rupees and five crore rupees, and –%, if it is above Rs five crore rupees. The budget proposes to cap these at ??
3. Income from the transfer of virtual digital assets such as cryptocurrencies and
non-fungible tokens will be taxed at the rate of —%. Any loss incurred from such transfers cannot be set off against any income computed from virtual digital assets or any other income or carried forward to subsequent years.
4. Alternate minimum tax for co-operatives will be reduced from –% to —%. The Surcharge
will be reduced from 12% to —% for co-operatives whose total income is between one crore and ten crore rupees.

Answer 127

CAP: 15%
25% (2 cr-5c)
37% (above 5 cr)

30%-TDS

18.5% to 15% - COOP
12 to 7% (1 -10 cr rs)

Question 127

The Finance Act, 2022 was passed by Parliament to give effect to the Government’s financial proposals for 2022-23 by n sitharaman.
1. no change in income tax rates for individuals and corporation
2. : Currently, the surcharge on LTCG on listed equities and equity mutual funds is capped at –%. The surcharge on other LTCG is –% of the total income is between two crore rupees and five crore rupees, and –%, if it is above Rs five crore rupees. The budget proposes to cap these at ??
3. Income from the transfer of virtual digital assets such as cryptocurrencies and
non-fungible tokens will be taxed at the rate of —%. Any loss incurred from such transfers cannot be set off against any income computed from virtual digital assets or any other income or carried forward to subsequent years.
4. Alternate minimum tax for co-operatives will be reduced from –% to —%. The Surcharge
will be reduced from 12% to —% for co-operatives whose total income is between one crore and ten crore rupees.

Answer 127

CAP: 15%
25% (2 cr-5c)
37% (above 5 cr)

30%-TDS

18.5% to 15% - COOP
12 to 7% (1 -10 cr rs)

Question 128

THE ELECTRICITY (AMENDMENT) BILL, 2022 intrid byrk singh, to amend electricyt act, —.
Important Points: -
 Multiple Discoms in the same area: The Act provides for multiple distribution licensees (discoms) to operate
in the same area of supply. The Act requires discoms to distribute electricity through their own network. The Bill removes this requirement.
 he Bill adds that upon the grant of multiple licenses for the same area, the
State Government will set up a ——— fund.
Cross-subsidy refers to the arrangement of one
consumer category subsidizing the consumption of another consumer category. Any surplus with a
distribution licensee on account of cross-subsidy will be deposited into the fund. The fund will be used to finance deficits in cross-subsidy for other discoms in the same area or any other area.
 License for distribution in multiple states: As per the Bill, the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (hereinafter the CERC) will grant licenses for the distribution of electricity in more than one state.
 Payment Security: The Bill provides that electricity will not be scheduled or dispatched if adequate payment security is not provided by the discom. The Central Government may prescribe rules regarding paymentsecurity.
 Contract enforcement: The Bill empowers the CERC and the State Electricity Regulatory Commission (hereinafter the SERCs) to adjudicate disputes related to the performance of contracts. These refer to contracts
related to the sale, purchase, or transmission of electricity. Further, the Commissions will have the powers of a
Civil Court.
 Composition of Commissions and APTEL: The Bill increases the number of members (including the
chairperson) in SERCs from three to —, and provides that the Appellate Tribunal for Electricity (APTEL) will have — or more members, as may be prescribed by the Central Governmen

Answer 128

2003
Cross-subsidy Balancing Fund.
3 to 4
3 or more - APTEL

Question 129

THE COMPETITION (AMENDMENT) BILL, 2022
Introduced by: —-, Minister of State for Corporate Affairs
It seeks to amend the Competition Act, 2002 to regulate mergers and acquisitions based on the value of transactions.
. The Bill expands the definition of combinations
to include transactions with a value above Rs — crore
- The Bill reduces the time limit for the approval of combinations from 210 days to — days
The Act empowers the Central Government to appoint a Director General
to the Competition Commission of India (hereinafter the CCI). The Bill amends this to empower the CCI to
appoint the Director General, with prior approval of the Government.
dg of cci?

Answer 129

Rao Inderjit Singh,
2000 cr
210 days to 150 days
atul verma

Question 130

THE ENERGY CONSERVATION (AMENDMENT) BILL, 2022
Introduced by: Shri —, Union Ministry of Power & Renewable Energy
The Bill seeks to amend the Energy Conservation Act, — ,
: The Act empowers the Central Government to specify energy
consumption standards. The Bill adds that the Government may require the designated consumers to meet a
minimum share of energy consumption from non-fossil sources. Different consumption threshold may be
specified for different non-fossil sources and consumer categories.
 Carbon credit trading: The Bill empowers the Central Government to specify a carbon credit trading
scheme. Carbon credit implies a tradeable permit to produce a specified amount of carbondioxide and other
greenhouse emissions.
 Energy conservation code for buildings: The Act empowers the Central Government to specify energy
conservation code for buildings. The Bill amends this to provide for an ‘energy conservation and sustainable
building code’.
 Standards for vehicles and vessels: Under the Act, the energy consumption standards may be specified for
equipment and appliances which consume, generate, transmit, or supply energy. The Bill expands the scope to
include vehicles (as defined under the Motor Vehicles Act, ——-), and vessels (includes ships and boats).
 Regulatory Powers of SERCs: The Act empowers the State Electricity Regulatory Commissions (SERCs) to
adjudge penalties under the Act. The Bill adds that SERCs may also make regulations for discharging their
functions.

Answer 130

RK Singh
2001
1988

Question 131

THE PERSONAL DATA PROTECTION BILL, 2019
Introduced in Lok Sabha on: - December 11th, 2019, by: - Shri —-, Union Minister of Electronics and Information Technology
Withdrawn on: August 3rd, 2022
SO, pdp bill, —-. but data protetion bill, —-

Answer 131

Ravi Shankar Prasad (as at 2019)
pdp, 2019 AND data protection bill, 2021

Question 132

pdp Popularly referred as the — bill , the Bill was introduced to provide for the protection of personal data of
individuals, defined as data about or relating to a natural person who is directly or indirectly identifiable.
Hence, the Bill should provide for the protection of all kinds of data. The Bill also seeks to establish a — authority.
the Bill empowers the Central Government to exempt the processing of personal data by a
Government agency from the application of any or all provisions of the Bill, if it is: (i) necessary or expedient, and (ii) in the interests of specified grounds including national security and public order.
The Bill provides for the Data Fiduciary, who is a person, who determines the purpose and means of processing personal data to notify the DPA about any breach of personal data, unauthorized access or disclosure, or loss of
access, where such a breach is likely to cause harm to the data principal.
JPC recc in —-.
one of the reccs was:
A Data Fiduciary should be mandated to report every personal data breach to the DPA, within — hours of it becoming aware of the breach. Also, the DPA should be empowered to regulate any breach of nonpersonal data.

Answer 132

‘Privacy Bill’
Data Protection Authority (DPA)
2021
72 hrs

Question 133

The Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, — provides that the minimum age of marriage is 21 years in case of males, and 18 years in case of females. The Prohibition of Child Marriage (Amendment) Bill, — increases the minimum age for females to 21 years.

special marriage act, –

Answer 133

2006
2021 bill

1954

Question 134

The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, —- declares the instant divorce granted by pronouncement of talaq three times as void and illegal. It provides for imprisonment for a term up to 3 years and fine to the husband who practiced instant Triple Talaq.
Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, —

Answer 134

2019
1986

Question 135

section – clause – of pocso, 212 says you cant call a child repeatedly for cross examination but its not papplicable when child attains majority.
— to abolish mandatory dealth penalty. currently, (before abolishing), – offneces have MNADTORY death penalty.

Answer 135

33(5)
malayasia
11 offences, phaasi without any lesser sentence

Question 136

India has been at the forefront of supporting UN efforts to promote the cause of victims of terrorism and called for a
need to develop a legal framework for fighting terrorism at the international level at the UN General Assembly(GA).
India’s stand in eliminating terrorism and assisting the victims of terrorism: -
 India had co-sponsored the GA resolution on ‘Enhancement of international cooperation to assist victims of terrorism’ aimed at promoting awareness and supporting the victims of terrorism in fulfilling their needs;
 India had also contributed constructively to strengthening the language of provisions related to victims of terrorism in the 7th review resolution of the Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy (GCTS)
The UN General Assembly reviews the UN Global Counter-Terrorism Strategy (GCTS) every — years,
 India supports the establishment of a voluntary fund aimed at strengthening Member States’ efforts.
unga designated – as the International Day of Remembrance of and Tribute to the Victims of Terrorism, in 2017.

United Nations Security Council resolution — was adopted unanimously on 15 October 1999. situation in Afghanistan, the Council designated Osama bin Laden and associates as terrorists.

nited Nations Security Council Resolution —, adopted unanimously on 28 September 2001.

nited Nations Security Council Resolution — was adopted on 30 August 2021, following the Fall of Kabul and subsequent Taliban takeover in Afghanistan.

Answer 136

2 years
21 august
1267-afghanistan
1373-us 9/11
2593- 2021-afghanistan

Question 137

in X vs principal health secretary,VHEALTH AND FAMILY WELFARE DEPARTMENT)
In a case relating to the termination of pregnancy of an unmarried woman, whose pregnancy arose out of a consensual relationship, the HOW MANY -judge Bench of —– (name all) has given a progressive ruling by holding that a woman cannot be denied the right to a safe abortion only on the ground of her being unmarried.

Answer 137

3 judge bench
dy, as bopanna and surya kant
(SAD)

Question 138

(BUDHADEVKARMASKAR V. STATE OF —-)
In a landmark case, the HOW MANY -judge Bench comprising of —- (name all) upheld sex workers right to identity and issued detailed directions for their protection and upliftment, AADHAAR CARD FOR SEX WORKERS| SUPREME COURT BATS FOR SEX WORKERS’ RIGHT TO DIGNITY; DIRECTS UIDAI TO ISSUE AADHAAR CARD WITHOUT INSISTING ON ADDRESS PROOF

Answer 138

state of w bengal
3 judge bench
L. Nageswara Rao, B. R. Gavai and A.S. Bopanna, JJ.,
LAG

Question 139

Announcing their decision in — versus Union of India,5 JUDGE BENCH. petition also filed by — Justices –, – and – in the majority, upheld the validity of the 103rd Constitutional Amendment, 2019 that provides for reservation for economically weaker sections of the citizenry citizens in admission to educational institutions(govt ed+pvt unaided ed, BUT NOT minority ed), and to appointment to any office under the State (govt jobs). who dissented?
it was introduced by —, the then Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment. currenlyy 19th goevrnor of ktaka.
103rd amendment bill assented on ——

Answer 139

Janhit Abhiyan
Youth for Equality
Dinesh Maheshwari, Bela M. Trivedi and J.B. Pardiwala,
uu lalit and ravinder bhat
Thawar Chand Gehlot
12 JAN, 2019-IMPORTANT

Question 139

The centre has extended the tenure of the Commission to examine sub-categorisation of other backward classes (OBCs) headed by former Chief Justice of the Delhi High Court, Justice—-, until January 31, 2023. Since its constitution on October 2, 2017, the panel has received ten extensions.
The commission was set up by the President under Article — of the Indian Constitution to sub-categorise OBCs so that the benefits of reservation reach all of them, in —.

Currently, — per cent jobs and seats in educational institutes provided by the Centre have been reserved for OBCs. apart from OBCs, scheduled castes (SC) and scheduled tribes (ST) also get reservation in jobs and educational institutes. — per cent of seats and jobs have been reserved for SCs and — per cent for STs
TOTAL=49.5% (103rd amenmt made it 59.5%)

Answer 139

G Rohini
art 340
2017
27%
15%- scs
7.5%-sts

Question 139

103rd amendmrnt: enables both centre and state to make rservations
eligibility for ews reservation:
-family income less than – lakh pa
-agro land less than – acres
-residential flat less than – sq ft
– resdientali plot less than –/— yard sq

Answer 139

8 lakh5 acres
1000 sq ft
100/200 yard sq

Question 140

=== hc omnibus order and john doe order ifnrigenment of amitabh bacchan personality and IMAGE rughts
john doe/—- order/rolling anton pillar order/—– (indian ver) order- dvlped in court of queens bench in —-. defendant is unknown. used in IPR context.
mentioned in order — rule 1 of cpc

Answer 140

delhi hc
joehn doe/anton pillar/rolling anton pillar/ashok kumar order - INDIAN VER
bench in uk
order 30, rule 1

Question 141

image/performer/personalit righs available for – days w/in peformance
copyright act, —

Answer 141

50 days
1957

Question 142

ktaka hijab case: bench: —-
case name?
who thought jijab should be banned?

Answer 142

hemant gupta and sudhanshu dhulia
aishat shifa v ktaka
justice gupta

Question 143

2 finger test/pre vaginum tets
case name and bench?
precdent, w date? - banned in this case

Answer 143

chandrachud and hima kohli
state of jharkhand v shailendra kumar rai
2013 lillu vs haryana