imp Flashcards
1
Q
— is un day . adopet charter in — w — members.
Its actions have been rewarded with 12 Nobel Peace Prizes, the last of which was awarded to the World
Food Programme in —-.
A
oct 24
1945
193
2020 - wfp (just 1 out of 12 nboel peace prizes)
2
Q
At the time of formation, the UN had — permanent members with a
total of — members, presently, it has — members but permanent members in the UN
General Assembly are still 5
A
5
51
193
3
Q
India has launched 385 satellites for —–. different countries on board psv since 1999.
in 1999, the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), put a 45-kg —- satellite and a 110-kg sat—-satellite into desired orbi
A
385
34
45 kg german and 110 kg Korean
4
Q
(Isro) is set to conduct the final launch of the Polar Satellite Launch vehicle (PSLV) . The PSLV-C— mission will lift off with — satellites to be deployed in the sun-synchronous orbit completing the last mission of the PSLV for 2022, which includes the primary satellite EOS- — which is aprt of oceansat series+ and eight nanosatellites that have been developed by private companies (customer satllites) and also jointly by India and —-.
will be –th flight of pslv . The vehicle will launch with a lift-off mass of 321 tonnes. The Earth Observation Satellite-06 is the third-generation satellite in the Oceansat series and is designed to provide continuity services of Oceansat-2 spacecraft with enhanced. payload specifications as well as application areas
so oCeansat——., will replace Oceansat-2, which was launched in Sept.
A
PSLV C54
9 satellites
EOS-06
india and bhutan – 8 nano
56th flight
oceansat -3 series
5
Q
nov’26: this will be 56th flight of pslv -c54 and the —th and final launch of the vehicle in 2022. The —– meter rocket and 321 tonne rocet.
he satellite will be deployed in the sun-synchronous orbit, which is a kind of polar orbit where satellites traveling over the polar regions are synchronous with the Sun. This means they are synchronized to always be in the same fixed position relative to the Sun. According to the European Space Agency, the sun-synchronous orbit ensures that the satellite always visits the same spot at the same local time.
A
5th and final in 2022
44.4 m
6
Q
The LVM3- —- mission is a dedicated commercial mission for a foreign customer OneWeb, through NewSpace India Limited (NSIL), a Central Public Sector Enterprise.(CPSE).
This newest rocket is capable of launching —– -kilogram class of satellites into GTO
(Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit) and —– kgs of payloads into LEO. It is a —- -stage launch
vehicle consisting of two solid propellant S200 strap-ons on its sides and core stage comprising
L110 liquid stage and C25 cryogenic stage.
A
LVM3-M2
4000 kg
8000 kg
3 stage
(2 starpons + 1 cyro +1 liquid)
7
Q
features of lvm3:
First Commercial Mission of LVM3
First launch of LVM3 to LEO
First Indian rocket with — -ton payload
First NSIL Mission with LVM3
First OneWeb Mission with NSIL/Department of Space.
A
6 ton playload
8
Q
Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV): GSLV is a much more powerful rocket, meant to carry heavier satellites much deeper into space. To date, GSLV rockets have carried out —- missions, of which four ended in failure.
It can take 10,000 kg of satellites to lower the earth’s orbits.
The indigenously developed Cryogenic Upper Stage (CUS), forms the third stage of GSLV Mk II.
Mk-III versions have made ISRO entirely self-sufficient in launching its satellites.
Before this, it used to depend on the European —– launch vehicle to take its heavier satellites into space.
GSLV Mark-III was used to launch the Chandrayaan-2 mission to the moon in —-, which was the first operational flight of the rocket.
ISRO has renamed the GSLV Mark-III as Launch Vehicle Mark-III.
A GSLV – for the Geostationary Orbit (GEO) – will continue to be called so. The LVM3 will go everywhere —GEO, Medium Earth orbit (MEO), LEO, and missions to the moon, sun.
A
18 missios
Arianne
2019
9
Q
Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV): PSLV’s first launch was in —, and it has been ISRO’s main rocket ever since. Today’s PSLV, however, is vastly improved and several times more powerful than the ones used in the 1990s.
It is the first Indian launch vehicle to be equipped with liquid stages!!!!
PSLV is the most reliable rocket used by ISRO to date, with — of its 54 flights being successful.
It successfully launched two spacecraft – Chandrayaan-1 in —- and Mars Orbiter Spacecraft in —– – that later travelled to Moon and Mars respectively
A
1994
52 /54 successful
2008
2013
10
Q
OneWeb Constellation operates in a LEO Polar Orbit Satellites are arranged in — rings (Orbital planes) with 49 satellites in each plane. The orbital planes are —-
km above the Earth. Each satellite completes a full trip around the earth every — minutes.
A
12 rings
1200 km
109 min
11
Q
The Mandal Commission or the Socially and Educationally Backward Classes Commission (SEBC), was established in India in —- by the Janata Party government under Prime Minister —– with a mandate to “identify the socially or educationally backward classes” of India. It was headed by B.P. mandal or Bindheshwari Prasad Mandal
the commission’s report recommended that members of Other Backward Classes (OBC) be granted reservations to 27% of jobs under the Central government and public sector undertakings, thus making the total number of reservations for SC, ST and OBC to 49%
A
1979
Morarji Desai
12
Q
n November 1st, — of the 28 Indian states and 2 Union Territories observed their formation day. The states of Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, —–, —-, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh and — besides the Union Territories of —- and — were formed on this day, though in different ye
A
7 /28
haryana
punjab
ktaka
lashkwadeep
puducheery
13
Q
Overall GGG is closed by —-%. At the current rate of progress, it will take — years to reach full parity.
Although no country achieved full gender parity, the top 3 economies closed at least 80% of their gender gaps:
Iceland (90.8%)
Finland (86%),
Norway (84.5%)
South Asia will take the longest to reach gender parity, which is estimated to be likely in —- years.
A
68.1%
132 yrs
197 yrs
14
Q
ly, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC) has issued the Forest (Conservation) Rules, 2022.
It is conferred by Section 4 of the Forest (Conservation) Act, —- and in supersession of the Forest (Conservation) Rules, —–. It constituted an Advisory Committee, a regional empowered committee at each of the integrated regional offices and a screening committee at State/Union Territory (UT) government-level.
Regional Empowered Committees:
All linear projects (roads, highways, etc), projects involving forest land up to —- hectares and those that have projected a use of forest land having a canopy density up to — — irrespective of their extent for the purpose of survey — shall be examined in the Integrated Regional Office.
A
1980 act
2003 rules
40 hectares
0.7 canopy desntiy
15
Q
Project Screening Committee:
The MoEFCC has directed the constitution of a project screening committee in each state/UT for an initial review of proposals involving diversion of forest land.
The five-member committee will meet at least —– every month and will advise the state governments on projects in a time bound manner.
All non-mining projects between — to -40 hectares must be reviewed within a period of 60 days and all such mining projects must be reviewed within — days.
For projects involving a larger area, the committee gets some more time — —– days for non-mining projects involving more than —- hectares and 150 days for mining projects
A
twice eevry motnh
5 to 40 hectares 75 days (minign, 60-non mining)
120 days (non miining and 150 for mining)
100 hecatres
16
Q
Compensatory Afforestation:
The applicants for diverting forest land in a hilly or mountainous state with green cover covering more than two-thirds of its geographical area, or in a state/UT with forest cover covering more than one-third of its geographical area, will be able to take up compensatory afforestation in other states/UTs where the cover is less than —–%.
Indian Forest Policy, —–
Forest Conservation Act, —-::
National Forest Policy, —-: had 33% goal
National Afforestation Programme :
It has been implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change since —- for the afforestation of degraded forest lands.
A
20% (w. 2/3rd mount or 1/3rd geo)
1952
1980
1988
nap- since 2000
17
Q
he Biodiversity Diversity Act of —-.
Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, —–:
A
2002
2006
18
Q
On November 18, —–, the Central Government constituted the National Commission on Farmers (NCF) with —- as its chairman. The main objective of the committee was to come up with a sustainable farming system.
was named the first World Food Prize Laureate in —
A
2004
ms swaminathan
1987
19
Q
The Convention of the Safeguarding of the Intangible Cultural Heritage was adopted by the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) in - a–nd entered into force in —-.
It comprises —- members and is elected in the General Assembly of the Convention according to the principles of equitable geographical representation and rotation.
Members of the Committee are elected for a term of —- years.
India has – intangible cultural heritage elements on the prestigious UNESCO Representative List of ICH of Humanity.
A
2003
2006
24
4 yrs
14
20
Q
pfi formed in –.
The Chairman of PFI is—- and the Vice Chairman of Popular Front of India (PFI) is ——.
The Keralan government asserted in —- that the group was a revival of the Indian Mujahideen affiliate Students Islamic Movement of India (SIMI), a terrorist organisation that had been outlawed.
PFI was banned 5 years ago too by the —– govt but ban was lifted by the High Court.
The SDPI, the PFI’s political wing, was excluded from the ban.
A
2006
OMA Abdul Salam - prez
em abdul rahiman
2012
Chattisgarh
21
Q
According to Section — of the UAPA, membership in a banned organisation is illegal-belonging to an organisation that is prohibited carries a minimum —- -year sentence and, in some cases, a life sentence or even the death penalty. anyone who “is and continues to be a member of such association; participates in such association’s meetings; contributes to, receives, or solicits any contribution for the benefit of such association; or in any other manner assists the operations of such association shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to two years, and shall also be liable to fine.”Anyone who supports the goals of the prohibited organisation is likewise subject to it.
Section – of the UAPA’s grants the government the authority to “prohibit use of funds” by an “illegal group.
The Center is authorised to “notify any place which in its opinion is used for the purpose of such unlawful organisation” under Section —- of the UAPA.
A
section 10-memberhsip
minimum 2 yr senence
section 7- use of funds
section 8 - pplace
22
Q
According to Section — of the UAPA, after the Centre declares an organisation “unlawful”, its notification must reach the tribunal within 30 days to adjudicate “whether or not there is sufficient cause” for the move
A
sec4
4 - tribunal
23
Q
lothal was nominated in April – as a UNESCO World Heritage Site,
and its application is pending on the tentative list of UNESCO. The excavated site of Lothal is the
only port-town of the —- Civilisation. In the region, it can be compared with other
Indus port towns of Balakot (Pakistan), Khirasa (in Gujarat’s Kutch) and Kuntasi (in Rajkot).
A Some of the important sites of Indus Valley Civilization are: Harappa in
present —–, Mohenjo-daro in present Afghanisthan, Ropar in Punjab, Banawali in Haryana etc.
A
2014
Indus Valley
Pakistan
24
Q
The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is a tool for comprehensively measuring
and tracking hunger at global, regional, and national levels. The GHI score is calculated on a 100-
point scale reflecting the severity of hunger - zero is the best score (implies no hunger) and 100 is
the worst. The GHI is prepared by European NGOs of Concern Worldwide and —–.
GHI scores are based on the values of four component indicators:
Undernourishment, Child stunting, Child wasting, Child mortalit
A
Welthungerhilfe.
25
GJI 2022;
India’s child wasting rate (low weight for height), at ---%, is worse than the levels recorded in 2014 (15.1%) and even 2000 (17.15%). Prevalence of
undernourishment has also risen in the country from 14.6% in 2018-2020 to ----% in 2019-
2021
19.3%
16.3%
26
The Times Higher Education (THE) World University Rankings 2023 has
finally been released and as expected, the University of Oxford has once again topped the
ranking list- for --th time in a row. A total of 1,799 universities from as many as ---- countries and regions have been ranked this year which is 137 more than last year''s rankings.
There are --- areas by taking into account which the performance:
a. Teaching
b. Research
c. Knowledge transfer
d. International outlook
A record ------- Indian institutes featured in Times Higher Education (THE) World University Rankings 2023, an increase from 71 last year, though none of them have broken into the top-250 league yet.
iisc Bangalore, is the country''s highestranked institution, placed between 251-300 ranks, moving up one group band after being in the
301-350 band for three consecutive years. Even with seven of the first-generation Indian
Institutes of Technology (IITs) continuing to boycott the rankings, India is the -----th mostrepresented country in the 2023 list. In the 2017 edition of THE ranking, only 31 Indian
universities were ranked.
7th time
104 countries
4 areas
75 indian isnutttes
6th most rep
27
: India's existing power generation portfolio is the world's ---- largest at nearly ---- GW, and
S&P Global Market Intelligence data shows another 203 GW of planned capacity.
Bloomberg NEF on June 22 estimated that India would need investments
totaling $223 billionto meet the 2030 target.
aim: -- gw by 2022
third largest
360 gw
175 gw
28
: ------ solar parks of aggregate capacity 37
GW have been approved in India.
The total installed capacity for renewable energy in India is ---- GW.
Solar Parks in Pavagada (2 GW), Kurnool (1 GW) and Bhadla-II (648 MW) are included in the top
5 operational solar parks of 7 GW capacity in the country. The world’s largest renewable energy
park of 30 GW capacity solar-wind hybrid project is under installation in ------------ - UAE?
45 solar parks
151.4 gw
gujju
29
By resolution 49/214 of 23 December 1994, the United Nations General Assembly decided that
the International Day of the World's Indigenous Peoples shall be observed on ---- August every year.The
date marks the day of the first meeting, in ------ in -----, of the UN Working Group on Indigenous Populations of the Sub-Commission on the Promotion and Protection of Human Rights. In 1990, the UNGA proclaimed ----- the International Year of the World's Indigenous Peoples (A/RES/45/164,
A/RES/47/75) Eachyear, UNESCO marks the celebration of the Day by sharing information on projects and
activities that are relevant to the annual theme.
9 august
1982
geneva
1993 - int year
30
on int day of inigenous ppl, first National Report on the State of India’s Tribal People’s Health was submitted to the Government of India by the Expert Committee on Tribal Health. The 13-member committee was jointly appointed by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and the Ministry of ----
It took five years of research for the committee to bring out the evidence and provide a true picture of the state of tribal people of the country.
Findings::
Tribal people are concentrated in --- blocks in India. Such areas are designated as the Scheduled Areas.
Unexpected finding was that ----% of India’s tribal population (around 5.5 crore) live outside the Scheduled Areas, as a scattered and marginalised minority.
Tribal Sub-Plan (TSP) Audit:
It is an official policy of allocating and spending an additional financial outlay equal to the percentage of the ST population in the State.
As estimated for 2015-16, annually Rs ------ crore should be additionally spent on tribal health.
However, it has been completely flouted by all States.
No accounts or accountability exist on policy.
No one knows how much was spent or not spent.
Tribal Affairs. +mohfw
809 blocks- sched areas
50%
15000 cr
31
commitee: The health status of tribal people has certainly improved during the last 25 years.
1. Under-five child mortality rate has declined from 135 (Deaths per 1000) in 1988 (National Family Health Survey NFHS-1) to --- (Deaths per 1000) in 2014 (NFHS-4). The % of excess of under-five mortality among STs compared to others has widened.
2. Child malnutrition is 50% higher in tribal children (----% compared to 28% in others).
3. Malaria and tuberculosis are three to eleven times more common among the tribal people.
Though the tribal people constitute only 8.6% of the national population, ---% malaria deaths in India occur among them.
4. Tribal people heavily depend on government-run public health care institutions, such as primary health centres and hospitals.
There is a 27% to 40% deficit in the number of such facilities, and 33% to ----% deficit in medical doctors in tribal areas.
Government health care for the tribal people is starved of funds as well as of human resources.
57 - 2014
42%
50%-malalrie
33 to 84$ deficit in tribal areaas
32
hat were the Major Recommendations of the Committee?
Firstly, the committee suggested launching a National Tribal Health Action Plan with a goal to bring the status of health and healthcare at par with the respective State averages in the next ----years.
Second, the committee suggested nearly 80 measures to address the 10 priority health problems, the health care gap, the human resource gap and the governance problems.
Third, the committee suggested allocation of additional money so that the per capita government health expenditure on tribal people becomes equal to the stated goal of the National Health Policy (2017), i.e., 2.5% of the per capita GDP.
10 yrs
2.5% of gdp
33
India ranks at ---th position owning a total of $532,664 million in Foreign
exchange reserves. Of all the countries in the world, ---- had, by far, the largest
international reserves in 2022, with $3.46 trillion in reserves and foreign currency liquidity.
he largest foreign exchange markets are located in major global
financial centers including London, New York, Singapore, Tokyo, Frankfurt, Hong Kong, and
Sydney
6th-india
china
34
according to a major study, five dangerous tipping points may already have been passed due to the ----- degree of global heating caused byhumanity to date.
These include the collapse of Greenland’s ice cap, eventually producing a huge sea level rise, the collapse of akey current in the north Atlantic, disrupting rain upon which billions of people depend for food, and an abruptmelting of carbon-rich permafrost.
At 1.5C of heating, the minimum rise now expected, four of the five tipping points move from being possible to likely, the analysis said. Also at 1.5C, an additional five tipping points become possible, including changesto vast northern forests and the loss of almost all mountain glaciers.
In total, the researchers found evidence for ---- tipping points, with the final six requiring global heating of atleast 2C to be triggered, according to the scientists’ estimations.
The world''s top five largest polluters responsible for roughly --- percent of global CO2 emissions in 2020 are China, the US, India, Russia, and Japan.
If CO2 concentration exceeds a critical threshold (around ---- ppm), the
temperature experiences an abrupt increase of about six degrees Celsius
1.1 degree ceclius
16 pts
60% - incl india
478 ppm
35
In a probable universe with eight dimensions, how can eight identical
spheres be arranged such that the arrangement is the densest possible (most stable)?
Answering this question with mathematical proof has won a Ukrainian mathematician the
Fields Medal, often described as the Nobel Prize for mathematics. Ukrainian mathematician
---- (38), a professor at the Swiss Federal Institute of Technology in
Switzerland’s Lausanne, is among the four mathematicians to receive the prize in 2022. She is
only the second woman to have received the Fields Medal after Stanford mathematician
-----.
other 2022 winners: Hugo Duminil-Copin, jUNE hUH, James Maynard
Maryna Viazovska
Maryam Mirzakhani -1st woman - 2014
36
---, the Hardy-Ramanujan Number, is the smallest number that can
be expressed as the sum of two different cubes in two different ways.
10³ + 9³ = 1000 + 729 = 1729
1³ = 1 + 1728 = 1729
1729
37
---, the Hardy-Ramanujan Number, is the smallest number that can
be expressed as the sum of two different cubes in two different ways.
10³ + 9³ = 1000 + 729 = 1729
1³ = 1 + 1728 = 1729
1729
38
he Ramanujan Prize for Young Mathematicians was awarded to
Professor ------, a mathematician at the Indian Statistical Institute in Kolkata, in a
virtual ceremony on 22nd February 2022.
also, The award was instituted by SASTRA in --- with a cash prize of $10,000. for ppl aged -- and beow
neena gupta
2005
32 and below
39
The FIFA World Cup 2022s the Qatar administration has reportedly invited Indian fugitive Zakir Naik to a football tournament, expected to deliver a sermon on Islam at the event.
Zakir Naik is an Islamic preacher who has been banned in India due to money laundering and hates speech charges. He has been termed an Indian fugitive and has been living in exile in --- since 2017, according to media reports.
Faisal Alhajri, a presenter at the Qatari state-owned sports channel Alkass, took to social media and announced that Indian fugitive Zakir Naik will be attending the FIFA World Cup 2022 in Qatar, and will be ‘delivering many religious lectures’ throughout the tournament.
Zakir Naik has been a controversial figure in India for several years due to his radical speeches propagating Islam in the country, allegedly spreading hate speech. Zakir Naik is the founder of the ----- , which has been outlawed by the Indian governmen
he Union Home Ministry had earlier banned the IRF for ---- years, terming it an unlawful organization.
Malaysia
Islamic Research Foundation (IRF)
5 yrs
40
His speeches are broadcast on the channel ----, which is banned in India, Canada, UK, and Bangladesh. His trademark dress is the ‘modern’ western suit, along with a skullcap.
repsonsible for 2016 terorr attack.
On November 17, ---, the IRF was declared an unlawful organisation under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act, 1967 (37 of 1967) by the Centre.
When the ban was extended for another five years in November ----,the Union Home ministry.
Interpol has refused to issue a Red Notice for Naik.
Peace TV
2016
2021
41
the --th Norway-India Joint Working Group Maritime meeting was held in ---, India.
Norway has the technical expertise in Maritime sector and India has huge potential for development of Maritime sector and large pool of trained seafarers, which make both countries natural complementary partners.
Earlier, India had also prepared Maritime India Vision ---.
The Norwegian Green Shipping Programme has been successful and the experience and expertise was shared in the meeting.
India and Norway are part of the Green Voyage ---- project.
Both parties agreed on willingness, devotion, partnership and capacity building for achieving common goals.
India is a signatory to ---- Convention for Recycling of Ships.
In the meeting, India requested that European Union regulation should not hinder recycling of non-European countries which are compliant as per International Convention.
Norway was requested not to prolong Ship recycling to India as a lot of investment has been made by Indian recyclers.
The Norwegian delegation will also take part in INMARCO, the Green Shipping Conclave, and the Maritime ShEO conference.
The Maritime ShEO conference is supported by Norway and focused on maritime diversity and sustainability, including gender equality in the maritime industry.
8th nowary india jt working grp
mumbai
vision 2030
2050 project
hongkong convention
42
Maritime India Vision (MIV) 2030 is a ten-year blueprint for the maritime sector released by the Prime Minister of India at the Maritime India Summit in November ---.
MIV 2030 has been formulated in consultation with over 350+ public and private sector stakeholders, comprising ports, shipyards, inland waterways, trade bodies and associations, national and international industry and legal experts.
Themes:
MIV 2030 is based on -- themes covering all the facets of the Indian maritime sector and is a comprehensive effort to define and meet national maritime objectives
Key Targets 2030:
Three Major Ports with >---00 Million Ton Per Annum (MTPA) cargo handling capacity.
More than 75% of Indian cargo transshipment handled by Indian ports.
More than --% of cargo handled at Major Ports by Public Private Partnership/ other operators.
Average vessel turnaround time (containers) of less than 20 hours.
Global ranking of Top 10 in ship building and ship repair.
More than 15 Lakh annual cruise passengers.
More than --% share of renewable energy at Major Ports.
2020
10 themes
300 mn'
85%
60% RE
43
India’s first National Centre of Excellence for Green Port & Shipping (NCoEGPS) was launched at “INMARCO 2022” held in --.
The INMARCO is a --- International Maritime Conference and Exhibition, hosted by the Institute of Marine Engineers (India).
What is NCoEGPS?
It is a major initiative by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways (MOPSW) towards providing greener solutions.
The NCoEGPS will be working under the framework of the --- programme of the MoPSW.
The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) is the knowledge and implementation partner for this project.
Aim:
The centre aims to develop a regulatory framework and alternate technology adoption road map for Green Shipping to foster carbon neutrality and circular economy (CE) in shipping sector in India.
The ports have also aimed to reduce Carbon emissions per ton of cargo handled by ----% by 2030.
The Maritime Vision Document 2030 is a 10 Year blueprint on India’s vision of a sustainable Maritime sector and vibrant blue economy.
---- has been selected as the first country under the IMO’s Green Voyage 2050 project to conduct a pilot project related to Green Shipping.
Mumbai
quadrennial
Sagarmala programme (teri as parrtner)
30% cargo by 2030
India
44
-- new countries sign up for Global Offshore Wind Alliance at COP27: Belgium, Colombia, Germany, Ireland, Japan, the Netherlands, Norway, the UK, and the US.
---- announces to sign up with global offshore wind alliance.
What is Global Offshore Wind Alliance (GOWA)?
It was established to ramp up of offshore wind in order to tackle the climate and energy security crises.
It was set up by the----- , ---- and the Global Wind Energy Council.
GWEC was established in --- to provide a credible and representative forum for the entire wind energy sector at an international level.
Both IRENA and the International Energy Agency (IEA) expect that offshore wind capacity will need to exceed ----- GW in 2050, from just over 60 GW today, to limit the rise in global temperatures to 1.5 degree Celsius and achieve net zero.
To reach this target, GOWA will aim to contribute to accelerating growth to reach a total of at least --- GW installed capacity by the end of 2030.
9 new countries
Australia
Denmark, irena/nternational Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA and gwec
2005-gwec
2000 gw in 2050 (rn:60 gw)
380 gw by 2030
45
National Wind-Solar Hybrid Policy: The main objective of the National Wind-Solar Hybrid Policy, --- is to provide a framework for promotion of large grid connected wind-solar PV hybrid systems for optimal and efficient utilization of wind and solar resources, transmission infrastructure and land.
National Offshore Wind Energy Policy: The National Offshore wind energy policy was notified in October ---- with an objective to develop the offshore wind energy in the Indian Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) along the Indian coastline of 7600 km.
2018- wjnd solar hybrid policy
2015-offshore wind policy
46
e United Nations (UN) has decided to set up a satellite-based monitoring system “MARS: Methane Alert and Response System” for tracking methane emissions and alerting governments and corporations to respond.
The MARS initiative is intended to strengthen the efforts to cut methane emissions.
About:
The MARS was launched at the 2----- to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change in Sharm El-Sheikh, Egypt.
The data-to-action platform was set up as part of the UN Environment Programme’s (UNEP) International Methane Emissions Observatory (IMEO) strategy to get policy-relevant data into the right hands for emissions mitigation.
The system will be the first publicly available global system to connect methane detection to notification processes transparently.
7th Conference of Parties (COP27)
47
Methane is the second-most common of the six major greenhouse gases, but is far more dangerous than carbon dioxide in its potential to cause global warming.
Accounting for about ----% of the current global greenhouse gas emissions, methane is blamed for having caused at least 25%- 30% of temperature rise since the pre-industrial times.
It accounts for a small portion of human-induced greenhouse gas emissions compared to carbon dioxide. But it is thought to be --- times more efficient than carbon dioxide at trapping atmospheric heat in the 20 years following its release.
17%
80 times more efficient
48
Global Methane Pledge:
At the Glasgow climate conference (UNFCCC COP 26) in 2021, nearly 100 countries had come together in a voluntary pledge, referred to as the Global Methane Pledge, to cut methane emissions by at least ---% by 2030 from the 2020 levels.
More countries have joined in this initiative since then, bringing the total to nearly ---.
A % reduction in methane emissions by 2030 is expected to result in avoiding 0.2 degree rise in temperature by the year 2050, and is considered absolutely essential in the global efforts to keep the temperature increase below the 1.5 degree Celsius target.
Global Methane Initiative (GMI):
It is an international public-private partnership focused on reducing barriers to the recovery and use of methane as a clean energy source.
GMI provides technical support to deploy methane-to-energy projects around the world that enable Partner Countries to launch methane recovery and use projects.
India is a partner country!!!
National:
Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR) has developed an anti-methanogenic feed supplement ‘-----’, which can cut down cattle methane emissions by 17-20% and can also result in higher milk production.
India Greenhouse Gas Program:
The India GHG Program led by World Resources Institute (WRI) India (non-profit organization), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI) is an industry-led voluntary framework to measure and manage greenhouse gas emissions.
The programme builds comprehensive measurement and management strategies to reduce emissions and drive more profitable, competitive and sustainable businesses and organisations in India.
National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC):
NAPCC was launched in ---- which aims at creating awareness among the representatives of the public, different agencies of the government, scientists, industry and the communities on the threat posed by climate change and the steps to counter it.
30% by 2030
130 (almost)
Harit Dhara
napcc - 2008
49
ndia has abstained from a UNSC resolution sponsored by Russia alleging US and Ukraine carrying out “military biological activities” violating the Biological Weapons Convention (BWC).
Before this resolution, India recently abstained from another UNSC resolution, which sought to declare Russia’s annexation of four Ukrainian territories as invalid.
Formally known as “The Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production and Stockpiling of Bacteriological (Biological) and Toxin Weapons and on their Destruction”, the Convention was negotiated by the Conference of the Committee on Disarmament in -----
It entered into force on 26th March ----
t was the first multilateral disarmament treaty banning an entire category of WMD!!
Geneva, Switzerland.
1975 - effective
50
BWC It supplements the --- Geneva Protocol, which prohibited only the use of biological (and chemical) weapons in war.
The Geneva Protocol was signed at a conference held in Geneva under the auspices of the League of Nations.
It entered into force in ----.
India has ratified this protocol.
Members:
BWConvention has an almost universal membership with -- States Parties and four Signatory States.
India is a signatory of the convention
1925 geneva protocol - bio and che,
1928
184 state parties
50
BWC It supplements the --- Geneva Protocol, which prohibited only the use of biological (and chemical) weapons in war.
The Geneva Protocol was signed at a conference held in Geneva under the auspices of the League of Nations.
It entered into force in ----.
India has ratified this protocol.
Members:
BWConvention has an almost universal membership with -- States Parties and four Signatory States.
India is a signatory of the convention
1925 geneva protocol - bio and che,
1928
184 state parties
51
Articles --- and --- of the UN Charter refer to General Assembly resolutions as "recommendations". The recommendatory nature of UNGA resolutions has repeatedly been stressed by the International Court of Justice.
However, some UNGA resolutions dealing with matters internal to the United Nations, such as budgetary decisions or instructions to lower-ranking organs, are clearly binding.
In general, resolutions adopted by the UN Security Council acting under Chapter VII of the Charter, are considered binding, in accordance with Article --- of the Charter.
However, they are subject to veto exercised by permanent members of UNSC.
India has abstained from the following UN Resolutions:
US-sponsored UNSC resolution that deplored in the strongest terms Russia's aggression against Ukraine.
Russia drafted UNSC resolution on the Humanitarian situation in Ukraine calling for a negotiated ceasefire for enabling safe, rapid, voluntary and unhindered evacuation of civilians.
Resolution passed at the ---- to set up an international commission of enquiry into Russia’s actions in Ukraine.
--- resolution that censured Russia for its military actions in Ukraine. There were 34 other nations that abstained from this resolution including China, Pakistan, Bangladesh and Sri Lanka, besides Central Asian and some African countries.
International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) resolution related to safety at --- nuclear power stations and a number of nuclear waste sites including Chernobyl, as the Russians seized control of them.
art 10 and 14
art 25 of charter-binding
UN Human Rights Council - comm
UNGA res
4 nuclear
52
apex edible oil industry associations from ---major palm oil importing countries of Asia -- India, Pakistan, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh and Nepal -- have come together to form the Asian Palm Oil Alliance (APOA).
APOA held its first general body meeting on the sidelines of the Globoil Summit being held at ----, India and the next meeting is expected to be held in --- early next year 2023.
Globoil Summit is one of the World’s Leading Edible Oils and Agri Trade Conference, Exhibitions & Awards.
2022 also marks the ---th year celebration of Globoil India.
What is APOA?
The APOA aims is safeguarding the economic and business interests of the palm oil consuming countries and will work towards increasing the consumption of palm oil in member countries.
The alliance would work towards ensuring that palm oil is recognised as a high-quality, economical, and healthy vegetable oil and to change the negative image of palm oil.
Membership of APOA would be further expanded to include companies or industry bodies associated with production or refining of palm oil across the continent.
5 palm oil countries
agra -1st meeting
indonesia 0 2023 - 2nd meeting
25th yr of globoil
53
Palm oil is currently the world’s most consumed vegetable oil.
It is used extensively in the production of detergents, plastics, cosmetics, and biofuels.
Indonesia and ---- together account for almost 90% of the global palm oil production, with Indonesia producing the largest quantity at over 45 million tonnes in 2021.
Top consumers of the commodity are India, China, and the European Union (EU).
India’s annual imports of edible oil is around ---- million tonne (MT).
Around 8 MT of palm oil is imported from Indonesia and Malaysia, while other oils, such as soya and sunflower, come from Argentina, Brazil, Ukraine and Russia.
Asia accounts for around ---% of the global palm oil consumption while Europe accounts for 12% of palm oil trade. Indonesia and Malaysia are the biggest palm oil exporters in the world.
India is the largest importer of palm oil in Asia, accounting for ---% of global imports, followed by China (9%), Pakistan (4%) and Bangladesh (2%).
Malaysia and indoesia
13 14 mt
40%-asia
india-15%
54
t is the only floating National Park in the world, the ---- National Park located on the Loktak Lake is the last natural habitat of the -----(Rucervus eldii eldii), the dancing deer of Manipur.
This is the last natural habitat of the brow-antlered deer, the dancing deer of Manipur.
In the 1950s, it was believed that the brow-antlered deer(Rucervus eldii eldii) had become extinct in the country. However, it was subsequently re-discovered in Manipur.
oktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in NE idnia and is famous for the phumdis floating over it. Phumdis are the heterogeneous mass of vegetation, soil and organic matter at various stages of decomposition
Considering the ecological status and its biodiversity values, Loktak lake was initially designated as a wetland of international importance under the Ramsar Convention in ---.
Later it was also listed under the Montreux Record in ---.
Keibul Lamjao nat parl
'Sangai'
1990
1993-MONTREAUX
55
Brow Antlered Deer?
Common Name: Sangai, Brow antlered deer, Dancing Deer
Scientific Name: Rucervus eldii
Protection Status:
IUCN Red List: --------
CITES: Appendix I
WPA 1972: Schedule-I
endangered
56
---- is observed as International Tiger Day (ITD) to promote the conservation of the striped cat as well as to advocate a global system for protecting its natural habitats.
ITD was established in --- at St Petersburg Tiger Summit in Russia in order to raise awareness about the decline of wild tiger numbers, leaving them on the brink of extinction, and to encourage the work of Tiger Conservation.
The --- Tiger Reserve in Assam has 2.4 tigresses for every tiger, the annual wildlife monitoring results of the trans-boundary wildlife preserve has revealed.
Scientific Name: Panthera tigris
Indian Sub Species: Panthera tigris tigris.
About:
It stretches from Siberian temperate forests to subtropical and tropical forests on the Indian subcontinent and Sumatra.
It is the largest cat species and a member of the genus ----.
Traditionally eight subspecies of tigers have been recognized, out of which --- are extinct
29 july
2010-stpetersbug
Manas-assam
Panthera genus
3/ 8 are exintct - caspian, bali and java tiger
57
Protection Status:
Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule I
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List: ------.
Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES): Appendix I.
Tiger Reserves in India
Total Number: 53
Largest: Nagarjunsagar Srisailam Tiger Reserve, ------
Smallest: ---- tiger reserve in Maharashtra
India has achieved the remarkable feat of doubling the tiger population in ---- itself, 4 years ahead of the targeted year 2022 of the St. Petersburg Declaration on tiger conservation.
According to the tiger census (2018) – conducted once every --- years – India has a tiger population of 2,967.
Endangered
andhra
bor, mahaashtra
2018
4 yrs
58
Project Tiger: Project Tiger is a Centrally Sponsored Scheme of the Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change (MoEFCC) launched in ----. It provides havens for tigers in the country’s national parks.
National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA): It is a statutory body under the MoEFCC and was established in --- following the recommendations of the Tiger Task Force.
Conservation Assured | Tiger Standards: CA|TS is a set of criteria which allows tiger sites to check if their management will lead to successful tiger conservation.
1973
2005
59
he United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) released -- ed of report titled ‘Emissions Gap Report 2022: The Closing Window — Climate Crisis Calls for Rapid Transformation of Societies’.
. It assesses the gap between anticipated emissions in 2030 and levels consistent with the 1.5°C and 2°C targets of the Paris Agreement.
What are the Findings?
The top 7 emitters (China, the EU27, India, Indonesia, Brazil, the Russian Federation and the United States of America) plus international transport accounted for ---% of global GHG emissions in 2020.
For these countries GHG emissions rebounded in 2021, exceeding pre-pandemic 2019 levels.
Collectively, G20 members are responsible for ---% of global GHG (Greenhouse Gas Emission) emissions.
The global average per capita GHG emissions was 6.3 tonnes of CO2 equivalent (tCO2e) in 2020.
India remains far below the world average at ---tCO2e.
World is falling short of the goals set forth in the Paris Climate Agreement adopted in 2015, with no credible pathway to 1.5°C in place.
The Paris Agreement defined a global warming limit of 2°C above pre-industrial levels (preferably 1.5°C), which if exceeded, can result in extreme weather events such as extreme heat waves, droughts, water stress, etc.
National pledges since COP26 (Glasgow, UK) make a negligible difference to predict 2030 emissions.
13th ed by unep
55% - top 7 incl india
75% of gloabl ghg
idnia-2.4 (against globals 6.3)
60
Recommendations?
The world needs to reduce greenhouse gasses by unprecedented levels over the next --- years.
There is a need for alternative technologies in heavy industry, to reverse the rise in carbon intensity of global steel production.
Urgent transformation is needed to deliver the enormous cuts needed to limit GHG emissions by 2030.
Unconditional and conditional NDCs (Nationally Determined Contributions) are expected to reduce global emissions by 5% and ---%, respectively, by 2030, when compared to current policies.
To be on the most cost-effective path to limiting global warming to 2°C or 1.5°C, these percentages must reach 30% and ---%
unep: t is a leading global environmental authority established on 5th June ---.
It sets the global environmental agenda, promotes sustainable development within the United Nations system, and serves as an authoritative advocate for global environment protection.
Headquarters:
?????
Major Reports:
Emission Gap Report, Adaptation Gap Report, Global Environment Outlook, Frontiers, Invest into Healthy Planet.
Major Campaigns:
Beat Pollution, UN75, World Environment Day, Wild for Life.`
8 yrs
10% - conditional (uncond-5%)
45% (30%)
1972
Nairobi, Kenya.
61
--- suspended United Stated of America’s on-site inspections under New START Treaty with Washington due to Western sanctions and coronavirus infections.
What is New START Treaty?
New START (Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty) was the last remaining arms reduction pact between the former Cold War rivals and caps to ---- the number of nuclear warheads that can be deployed by Russia and United States of America.
It entered into force on 5th February, ----.
It continues the bipartisan process of verifiably reducing U.S. and Russian strategic nuclear arsenals by limiting both sides to --- strategic launchers and --- operational warheads.
Its duration was for ten years that is till 2021, but it was extended by --- more years till 2026.
Russia
1,550 warheads
2011
700 launchers (1550 warheads)
5 more yrs extension
62
Strategic Arms Limitation Talks-1(SALT):
It began in ---, Under the Interim Agreement, both sides pledged not to construct new Intercontinental Ballistic Missile (ICBM) silos, not to increase the size of existing ICBM silos significantly, and capped the number of Submarine-Launched Ballistic Missile (SLBM) launch tubes and SLBM-carrying submarines.
Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty-1 (START):
Signed in ---, the agreement required the destruction of excess delivery vehicles which was verified using an intrusive verification regime that involved on-site inspections, the regular exchange of information (including telemetry), and the use of national technical means (i.e., satellites).
Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty-2:
Signed in ---, called for reducing deployed strategic arsenals to 3,000-3,500 warheads and banned the deployment of destabilizing multiple-warhead land-based missiles.
Strategic Offensive Reductions Treaty (SORT):
Signed in ----, under which the United States and Russia reduced their strategic arsenals to ---- -2,200 warheads each.
Strategic Arms Reduction Treaty (START):
Signed in ----, a legally binding, verifiable agreement that limits each side to 1,550 strategic nuclear warheads deployed on 700 strategic delivery systems (ICBMs, SLBMs, and heavy bombers) and limits deployed and nondeployed launchers to --.-
1969: SALT-1
1991 START -1
1993: SART-2 (3000 to 2500 waheads)
2004: SORT
1700 to 2200 warheads
start-2010
non deployed=800
launchers=700
warheads=1550
63
Union Minister of Power and New & Renewable Energy launched the --- - Energy for LiFE campaign, to create awareness of the core concept of Agni Tattva, an element that is synonymous with energy and is amongst the five elements of Panchmahabhoot.
The Panchmahabhoot comprises of Earth (Prithvi), Water (Jal), Fire (Agni), Air (Vayu) and Aether/ Space (Aakash).
The idea of LiFE was introduced by India during the 26th United Nations Climate Change Conference of the Parties (COP26) in Glasgow in ---.
The idea promotes an environmentally conscious lifestyle that focuses on ‘mindful and deliberate utilisation’ instead of ‘mindless and wasteful consumption.
India’s commitment to reach ---% of installed electric capacity from non-fossil fuel-based sources has been achieved, 9 years ahead of schedule.
The target of --% ethanol blending in petrol has been achieved 5 months ahead of the November 2022 target
According to REN21's Renewables 2022 Global Status Report (GSR 2022), India was ranked third in wind power, --- in solar power and --- in renewable power installed capacity in 2021.
The country’s installed Renewable Energy (RE) capacity stands at 150.54 GW
Agni Tattva
2021
40%
10% blending
4th-solar
3rd-RE globally (behind us and china, india-15.4 gw)
64
ently, the United States (US) House of Representatives has approved an amendment to the National Defence Authorization Act (NDAA), proposing India-specific waiver under the Countering America’s Adversaries Through Sanctions Act (CAATSA).
It will allow India to freely purchase Russia’s --- missile system without the fear of American sanctions.
The National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA) is legislation that Congress passes each year to make changes to the policies and organization of usa provide guidance on how military funding can be spent.
the amendment urges the US administration to use its authority to provide India with a (CAATSA) waiver to help deter aggressors like China.
The legislation says that the United States-India Initiative on Critical and Emerging Technologies (ICET) is good.
S-400 missile
65
s-400
is a mobile, Surface-to-Air Missile system (SAM) designed by ---.
It is the most dangerous operationally deployed Modern Long-Range SAM (MLR SAM) in the world, considered much ahead of the US-developed Terminal High Altitude Area Defence system (THAAD).
It integrates a multifunction radar, autonomous detection and targeting systems, anti-aircraft missile systems, launchers, and command and control centre.
It is capable of firing ---- types of missiles to create a layered defence.
The system can engage all types of aerial targets including aircraft, unmanned aerial vehicles (UAV) and ballistic and cruise missiles within the range of ----km, at an altitude of up to --km.
The system can track 100 airborne targets and engage six of them simultaneously.
russia
ahead of us's thaad
3 types of missiles can be fired
400 km range
30 km alltitude
66
CAATSA is a law that came into effect in the US in ---, and was meant to punish countries having deep engagements with Russia, North Korea, and Iran using economic sanctions.
Title II of the Act primarily deals with sanctions on Russian interests such as its oil and gas industry, defence and security sector, and financial institutions, in the backdrop of its military intervention in Ukraine and its alleged meddling in the 2016 US Presidential elections.
Section --- of the Act empowers the US President to impose at least five of the --- listed sanctions — enumerated in Section 235 of the Act — on persons engaged in a “significant transaction” with Russian defence and intelligence sectors.
As part of Section 231 of the Act, the US State Department has notified 39 Russian entities, dealings with which could make third parties liable to sanctions.
Sanctions that can Impact India: There are only two sanctions that may impact either India-Russia relations or India-US relations.
Prohibition of Banking transactions: would mean difficulties for India in making payments in US Dollars to Russia for the purchase of the S-400 systems. It will also affect India’s purchase of spare parts, components, raw materials and other assistance.
In ---- , Turkey was sanctioned for its purchase of the S-400 system.
Export Sanction: The sanction will have greater consequences for India-US relations.
This is the “export sanction” which has the potential to completely derail the India-US Strategic and Defence partnership, as it will deny the license for, and export of, any items controlled by the US.
Waiver Criteria:
The US President was given the authority in --- to waive CAATSA sanctions on a case-by-case basis.
2017
section 231-impose 5/12 listedsanctions
2020-tueky sanct under this crieria
2018-waive
67
a new Global Security Initiative (GSI) was put forward by --- President. The GSI looks to counter the US Indo-Pacific strategy and the Quad (India, US, Australia, Japan grouping).
However, China did not provide much clarity or details about the proposed global security initiative
Principle of Indivisible Security: With growing threats posed by unilateralism, hegemony and power politics, and increasing deficits in peace, security, trust and governance, mankind is facing more and more intractable problems and security threats.
Chinese
68
ndian Army Special Forces and --- Special Forces are participating in the ---nd edition of the bilateral military exercise ‘Garuda Shakti’ at Karawang..
ndian Air Force (IAF) and --- Air and Space Force (FASF) are participating in 'Garuda --' at Air Force Station ---. It is being hosted by India for the fourth time so far. taking place after a gap of two years.
The first, third and fifth editions were conducted in India in ---, 2006 and 2014 at Air Force Stations Gwalior, Kalaikunda and Jodhpur, respectively.
In this exercise, FASF will participate with four Rafale fighter aircraft, one A-330 Multi Role Tanker Transport (MRTT) aircraft and a contingent of 220 personnel.
The IAF is participating with Su-30 MKI, Rafale, Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) --- and Jaguar fighter aircraft, as well as the Light Combat Helicopter (LCH) and Mi-17 helicopters.
i8th ed
ndonesia - garuda shakti -MILITARY
garuda- FRANCE and india
7th ed , garuda VII
jodphur
1st-2003
lch tejas
69
is growing concern in the Government over India not finding a place in the Minerals Security Partnership.
Minerals Security Partnership is an ambitious new
--- -led partnership to secure supply chains of critical minerals, aimed at reducing dependency on China.
Graphite, ---- and Cobalt are used for making EV batteries.
While Cobalt, Nickel and Lithium are required for batteries used in electric vehicles, rare earth minerals are critical, in trace amounts, in the semiconductors and high-end electronics manufacturing.
msp how many members??
Rare earth comprises --- elements and are classified as light RE elements (LREE) and heavy RE elements (HREE).
In mid-2020, India, through a newly floated state-owned company, had signed an agreement with an --- firm to jointly prospect lithium in the South American country that has the third largest reserves of the metal in the world.
us led
lithium, cobalt, graph- ev
11 members
17 elements
Argentinian
70
Global Methane, Climate and Clean Air (GMCCA) Forum 2022 is being held in ----to discuss opportunities to protect the climate and improve air quality with a special focus on methane by adhering to the Global Methane Pledge.
What is the Agenda of the Forum?
The Forum is a joint event sponsored by the --- and the UNEP-convened Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC).
GMI is an international public-private partnership focused on reducing barriers to the recovery and use of methane as a clean energy source. It provides technical support to deploy methane-to-energy projects around the world that enable Partner Countries to launch methane recovery and use projects.
India is/is not _---- a partner country of GMI.
Washington, DC, USA - gmcca
Global Methane Initiative (GMI) + unep led ccac
is a partner
71
he Global Methane Pledge was launched at COP (Conference of Parties) 26 in November 2021 to catalyse action to reduce methane emissions.
It was led by the -- and----
It has --- country participants who together are responsible for 45% of global human-caused methane emissions.
India, which is/is----- not a part of the Global Methane Pledge, is among the top five methane emitters globally. Most emissions can be traced back to agriculture.
By joining the Pledge, countries commit to work together in order to collectively reduce methane emissions by at least ---% below 2020 levels by 2030.
Concern:
Methane has contributed to about ----- of the current anthropogenic greenhouse gas-driven warming.
Methane enters the atmosphere due to leaks in oil and gas industries, rearing livestock and the decomposition of waste in landfills.
Currently, only 2 % of global climate finance goes to methane.
If the Global Methane Pledge is not adhered to, Methane emissions will likely increase by --- % by 2030.
United States and the European Union.
111 countries
idnia is NOT a member
30% by 2030 below 2020 levels
1/3rd contribution
13%
72
heetah reintroduction in India involves the attempt to introduce and sustain a small population of Southeast African cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus jubatus, the nominate subspecies) in India more than ---- years after India's native subspecies, the Asiatic cheetah (Acinonyx jubatus venaticus) became extinct there; the Asiatic subspecies is now found only in ---in critically endangered numbers
70 yrs
iran
73
the Government of India has signed the tripartite agreement for swift development of modern Multi Modal Logistics Parks (MMLP) under Bharatmala Pariyojna across the country.
The objective is to centralize freight consolidation and reduce logistics cost from 14% to less than --% of Gross Domestic Product at par with International Standards.
The tripartite agreement was signed by:
National Highways Logistics Management Limited (NHLML): is a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV) of the National Highway Authority (NHAI) of the Ministry of -----
Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI):
It is a statutory authority under the Ministry of Ports, Shipping & Waterways.
Rail Vikas Nigam Limited (RVNL)
It is wholly owned Public Sector Enterprise under the ------
mmlp-bharatmala
10%
nhhlm-min of road traspor, hgihways
ril vikas- min of railways
74
Bharatmala Pariyojana is an umbrella program for the highways sector envisaged by the Ministry of -----.
Multimodal freight movement via --- Waterway terminals on River Brahmaputra
Road Transport and Highways
7 terinals, harmaputra
75
The Enhanced Pinaka Mk-I Rocket System (EPRS) was successfully test fired in the Pokhran range in ---
As part of the same set of trials, the Area Denial Munition (ADM) was also successfully tested.
The tests also validated the performance of different variants of munitions and fuzes that can be used in the Pinaka rocket system.
ADMs are a category of ammunition used to prohibit the adversary from occupying or passing through a particular area.
The EPRS is the upgraded version of the Pinaka variant that has been in service with the Indian --- for the last decade.
The design and development has been carried out by ---- -based DRDO (Defence Research and Development Organisation) laboratories - Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) and High Energy Materials Research Laboratory (HEMRL).
The upgrades include advanced technologies enhancing the range to meet the emerging requirements of the battlefield.
While the Mark-1 has a range of --- km, the enhanced version of Mark-1 tested in the last fortnight has a range of --- km with some key additional features.
The new incarnation of pinaka represents one of the few examples of an evolutionary process being followed with an indigenous Indian weapon system
Rajasthan.
indian army
pune based arde and hmrl
38 km
45 km
76
The Pinaka rocket system is a multi-barrel rocket system, which is named after Lord ---'s bow.
It is developed by Pune-based Armament Research and Development Establishment (ARDE) and High Energy Materials Research Laboratory (HEMRL).
The development of the Pinaka was started by the DRDO in the late --- as an alternative to the Multi Barrel Rocket Launcher systems of Russian make called the ‘----’, which are still in use by some regiments.
After successful tests of Pinaka Mark-1 in late ---, it was first used in the battlefield during the Kargil war of ---, quite successfully. Subsequently, multiple regiments of the system came up in the 2000s.
Features:
It can fire a salvo of --- rockets over a period of 44 seconds.
One battery of the Pinaka system consists of six launch vehicles, accompanied by loader systems, radar and links with network-based systems and a command post. One battery can neutralise an area of 1 km by 1 km.
As a key tactic of long-range artillery battle, the launchers have to ‘shoot and scoot’ to ensure they themselves do not become the targets, especially being detectable due to its back blast.
Multiple Variants:
DRDO has also developed and successfully tested the Mk-II and guided variants of the Pinaka, which has a range of around --- km, while the Guided Pinaka system has a range of --- km and has integrated navigation, control and guidance system to improve the end accuracy and enhance the range.
The navigation system of the Guided Pinaka missile is also aided by the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS).
shivas bow
1980s
Grad
1990 TEST
1999 used
12 rockets/44 seconds
60 km- variants
75 km- guided pinaka
77
Ministry of Electronics & Information Technology has inaugurated the first ever Semicon India 2022 Conference under India Semiconductor Mission in ----
Theme-: Catalyzing India’s Semiconductor Ecosystem.
The ISM was launched in --- with a total financial outlay of Rs ---crore under the aegis of the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY). part of the comprehensive program for the development of sustainable semiconductor and display ecosystem in the country. he Scheme provides a fiscal support of ---% of the Capital Expenditure to the eligible applicants for setting up of Compound Semiconductors / Silicon Photonics (SiPh) / Sensors (including MEMS) Fab and Semiconductor ATMP / OSAT(Outsourced Semiconductor Assembly and Test) facilities in India.
India’s own consumption of semiconductors is expected to cross USD --- billion by 2026 and to USD 110 billion by ---
Also known as Integrated Circuits (ICs), these chips are primarily made out of silicon and ----
bangalore - 1st ever
2021- idnia semcondcr mission
76000 cr
30% of cap expenditure
80 bn by 2026
110 bn by 2030
germanium + silicon
78
the Union Cabinet gave its approval for the auction of the spectrum that can be used to offer 5G services. A total of 72,097.85 MHz (or --- Ghz) of spectrum with a validity period of --- years will be put on sale during the auction planned towards the end of July 2022.
5G is the 5th generation mobile network. It is a new global wireless standard after 1G, 2G, 3G, and 4G networks.
Internet speeds in the high-band spectrum of 5G has been tested to be as high as --- Gbps (gigabits per second), while, in most cases, the maximum internet data speed in 4G has been recorded at--- Gbps.
5G mainly work in 3 bands, namely low, mid and high-frequency spectrum — all of which have their own uses as well as limitations.
Low band spectrum: It has shown great promise in terms of coverage and speed of internet and data exchange however the maximum speed is limited to ---- Mbps (Megabits per second).
Mid-band spectrum: It offers higher speeds compared to the low band but has limitations in terms of coverage area and penetration of signals.
High-band spectrum: It has the highest speed of all the three bands but has extremely limited coverage and signal penetration strength.
72 ghx
20 yrs
20 gbps
1 gbps- 4g
100 mbs for low spectrum
79
There is a need to upgrade fiber connectivity across India, which at present connects only --% of India’s telecom towers. For an efficient 5G, number has to double.
1g when? speed?
2g?
3g?
4g?
5g?
30%
1997, 50 kbps
1998, 250 kbps
2001, 384 kbps
2010 50 mbps - 4g
2020, 6400 mbps (1 million kbps)
80
Director General of the National Mission for Clean Ganga spoke about the Arth Ganga model during World Water Week 2022.
About:
‘Arth Ganga’ implies a sustainable development model with a focus on economic activities related to Ganga.
PM Modi first introduced the concept during the first National Ganga Council meeting in ---- in ---, where he urged for a shift from Namami Gange to the model of Arth Ganga.
Under Arth Ganga, the government is working on -- verticals:
The first is Zero Budget Natural Farming, which involves chemical-free farming on -- km on either side of the river, and the promotion of cow dung as fertilizer through the Gobardhan scheme.
The Monetization and Reuse of Sludge & Wastewater is the second, which seeks to reuse treated water for irrigation, industries and revenue generation for Urban Local Bodies (ULBs).
Arth Ganga will also involve Livelihood Generation Opportunities, by creating haats where people can sell local products, medicinal plants and ayurveda.
The fourth is to increase public participation by increasing synergies between the stakeholders involved with the river.
The model also wants to promote the cultural heritage and tourism of Ganga and its surroundings, through boat tourism, adventure sports and by conducting yoga activities.
Lastly, the model seeks to promote institutional building by empowering local administration for improved water governance.
2019- 1st
kanupur -1st, 2019
6 verticals
10 km on either side
81
World Water Week is an annual conference on global water issues which is held in the last week of ---- every year.
It was started in -- and initially part of a public water festival in the ----
Stockholm International Water Institute (SIWI) is the organizer of World Water Week.
The week is also taken as an opportunity to discuss and accelerate progress toward the Sustainable Development Goal -- (SDG6), which is about clean water and sanitation for all.
The theme for World Water Week 2022 is “Seeing the Unseen: The Value of Water.”
The theme will look at three main areas: the value of water among people and for development, the value of water with respect to nature and climate change, and the economic and financial value of water.
august
1991
stockholm
sdg 6
82
Namami Gange Programme is an Integrated Conservation Mission, approved as a ‘Flagship Programme’ by the Union Government in June ---- to accomplish the twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution and conservation and rejuvenation of National River Ganga.
It is operated by the Department of -----, Ministry of Jal Shakti.
The program is being implemented by the National Mission for Clean Ganga (NMCG), and its state counterpart organizations i.e State Program Management Groups (SPMGs).
NMCG is the implementation wing of National Ganga Council (set in ----, which replaced the National Ganga River Basin Authority - NGRBA).
It has a Rs. ---- -crore, centrally-funded, non-lapsable corpus and consists of nearly 288 projects.
2014
dept of water resources, river dlvpment and ganga rejuvenatoon
2016 - est the nmcg (repaced ngrba)
20,000 cr
83
Blue Flag certification is a globally recognized eco-label accorded by Foundation for Environment Education in ---- (FEE). The water bodies are given this label if the stringent criteria are maintained.
lobally recognized and coveted International eco-label “Blue Flag”, has been accorded to two more new beaches in India– --- Beach and ----Beach- both in Lakshadweep.
This takes the number of beaches certified under the Blue Flag certification to----.
in ---, the Blue Flag initiative was launched, first in Europe and since then every year certification is given out, so 35th ann.
based on --- criteria. international jury composed of eminent members - (UNEP), (UNWTO), Denmark-based NGO Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE) and (IUCN).
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change in its pursuit of “Sustainable Development” of the coastal regions of India embarked upon a highly acclaimed flagship program Beach Environment & Aesthetics Management Services (BEAMS).
denmark - FEE
Minicoy Thundi beach
and kadmat beach
total=12
1987
33 criteria
84
ding to recent guidelines issued by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) Scheme will be extended to all Districts.
What are the Guidelines?
The ministry has now targeted improvement in the Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) by -- points every year, improvement in the percentage of institutional deliveries at 95% or above.
Increasing girls’ participation in sports by identifying talent and linking them with appropriate authorities under ‘Khelo India’.
Promoting self-defence camps, construction of girls’ toilets, making available sanitary napkin vending machines and sanitary pads, especially in educational institutions, awareness about PC-PNDT (Pre-Conception & Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques) Act ---, etc.
PC-PNDT act aims to ban the use of sex selection techniques before or after conception and prevent the misuse of a prenatal diagnostic technique for sex-selective abortion.
Zero-budget advertising and encouraging greater spend on activities that have on-ground impact.
In 2021 parliamentary committee on empowerment of women in its report stated that nearly 80 % funds for the BBBP scheme has been used for advertising, and not on sectoral interventions such as women’s health and education.
Strengthen One-Stop Centres (OSCs), set up to help women facing violence, including domestic violence and trafficking, by adding 300 OSCs in districts which either have a high rate of crimes against women or are geographically large, preferably in aspirational districts.
2 points/yr
1994 act
85
bbbp:
t was launched in January --- with the aim to address sex selective abortion and the declining child sex ratio which was at --- girls for every 1,000 boys in 2011.
This is a joint initiative of the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Ministry of Health and Family Welfare and Ministry of Human Resource Development.
The programme is being implemented across -- districts in the country.
Sex Ratio at Birth (SRB) has improved by ---- points from 918 (2014-15) to 934 (2019-20)
2015
918:1000
405 distts
16 pts
86
Recently, Ukraine’s capital region was struck by --- -made kamikaze drones.
These drones arent new, and have beensupplied by the US to Ukraine in its ongoing war with Russia.
These are small unmanned aircraft that are packed with explosives that can be flown directly at a tank or a group of troops that are destroyed when it hits the target and explodes.
They are called ----- because their bladelike wings spring out on launch.
can go past traditional defences to strike its targets and also cost less than the larger counterparts.
- are difficult to detect on radar, and programmed to hit targets without human intervention, based on facial recognition.
Although the Kamikaze might be the most advanced form of this genre of drones, Russia, China, Israel, Iran and Turkey all have some version of it.
Weighing just five-and-a-half pounds, including its small warhead, the Switchblade can be taken into battle in a backpack and fly up to -- miles to hit a target.
has a feature that allows the operator to adjust the blast radius. So, it can kill the driver of a vehicle but not a passenger, for example. The weapon can be “waived off” up to two seconds before impact.
A blast radius is the distance from the source that will be affected when an explosion occurs.
Cameras for Centralised View of Area of Operation:
The Switchblade also has cameras that show a target seconds before impact.
The drone cruises at ---- miles per hour and provides “operators with real-time video downlinks for a centralised view of the area of operation”.
Iranian made
Switchblade
7 miles range
63 miles per hour
87
Lieutenant-General ---- was the shortest serving head of the Inter-Service Intelligence (ISI), Pakistan’s infamous spy agency. He was appointed the ISI head in October --- by the Army chief, General Qamar Javed Bajwa. But eight months later, he was replaced with Lt.Gen. Faiz Hamid on the insistence of then Prime Minister Imran Khan.
Lt.Gen. ----1--- has been appointed the Chief of the Army Staff (COAS), arguably the most powerful position in Pakistan and will suceed Gen --2----.
--2--- spent -- yrs in his post.
Syed Asim Munir
2018-isi head
Qamar Javed Bajwa succeeded
6 yrs- bajwa
88
tn is developing a biodiversity park in the ---Hill Range in ---- district.aim is to create awareness for the sustainable management of the ecologically sensitive area.
This park is a nature reserve that harbours the natural heritage of the area
The biodiversity park is a unique landscape of wilderness where ecological assemblages of native plant and animal species in the form of biological communities are recreated in a region.
The underlying principle of the park is to recreate self-sustaining ecosystems with native flora and fauna which are characteristics of the area.
the hills are sread over --- acres. considered to be the spur of the Eastern Ghats. They are located about 25 kilometres from Dindigul town, at an altitude of 400 to --- metres from mean sea level.
Sirumalai hill range
dindigul distt
60000 acres
400 to 1650 m
89
(RBI) digital rupee — the Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) — may be introduced in phases beginning with wholesale businesses in the current financial year.
RBI had proposed amendments to the Reserve Bank of India Act, ---, which would enable it to launch a CBDC.
CBDCs are a digital form of a paper currency and unlike cryptocurrencies that operate in a regulatory vacuum, these are legal tenders issued and backed by a central bank.
It is the same as a fiat currency and is exchangeable one-to-one with the fiat currency.
A fiat currency is a national currency that is not pegged to the price of a commodity such as gold or silver.
The digital fiat currency or CBDC can be transacted using wallets backed by blockchain.
Though the concept of CBDCs was directly inspired by Bitcoin, it is different from decentralised virtual currencies and crypto assets, which are not issued by the state and lack the ‘legal tender’ status.
--- has been the first economy to launch its nationwide CBDC — ---- in 2020
Nigeria is another country to have rolled out --- in 2020.
---- became the world's first major economy to pilot a digital currency ---- in April 2020.
Korea, Sweden, Jamaica, and Ukraine are some of the countries to have begun testing its digital currency and many more may soon follow
1934
bahamas- sand Dollar - 2020
eNaira-nigeria - 2020
china - e-CNY
90
hst/hubble space teescope named after the astronomer ----
The observatory is the first major optical telescope to be placed in space and has made groundbreaking discoveries in the field of astronomy since its launch (into Low Earth orbit in ---). said to be the “most significant advance in astronomy since Galileo’s telescope.”
part of NASA's Great Observatories Program - a family of --- space-based observatories, each observing the Universe in a different kind of light.
The other missions in the program include the visible-light Spitzer Space Telescope, Compton Gamma-Ray Observatory (CGRO), and the Chandra X-Ray Observatory (CXO).
Large and Versatile:
It is larger than a school bus in size (13.3 meters), and has a -- feet mirror.
It captures images of deep space
Edwin Hubble.
1990
4 observatories
7.9 ft/2.4 m
91
hst: xpansion of the Universe was accelerating (1990s), this in turn led to a conclusion that most of the cosmos was made up of dark energy.
Snapshot of Southern Ring Nebula (---), it showed two stars, a bright white star and a fainter dull star at the centre of the nebula where the dull star was indeed creating the whole nebula.
Collusion of two dwarf galaxies (1998) one of which is I Zwicky 18. This led to the formation of a new Star.
Colourful patterns of gases in a black hole powered galaxy known as the ‘Circinus Galaxy’(1999).
Collision between two galaxies UGC 06471 and UGC 06472 (2000).
Snapshot of Neptune (----): The image of the most distant planet revealed the formation of high-altitude clouds composed of methane ice crystals.
The disc surrounding a star ‘Beta Pictoris’, which was discovered in 1984, was found to be constituted by two planets, light-scattering dust and debris in 2012.
It captured the 'Galaxy Cluster Abell 2744’ in 2013. It is 3.5 billion light-years away and has several clusters of small galaxies in it.
It also poses a strong gravitational field which acts as a lens to reflect the light of almost 3,000 background galaxies.
Captured an encounter of a comet named C/2013 A1 with Mars in 2014.
The ‘Comet Siding Spring’ passed with a distance of just 87,000 miles to that of Mars.
The ‘----’, a vibrant stellar being ground, which is 20,000 light-years away, consisting of a giant cluster of 3,000 stars was captured in 2014.
This behemoth cluster of stars is called ‘Westerlund 2’.
Captured the disintegration of an ancient comet 332P/Ikeya-Murakami in ----
The Triangulum Galaxy was snapped depicting the specific areas of star birth with a bright blue light spreading across the galaxy in beautiful nebulas of hot gas in 2017.
Picture of ‘Galaxy ESO 243-49, which had a medium-sized black hole in 2012.
The 20,000 suns sized black hole was positioned on a glacial plane of the galaxy.
1995 - snapshot of southern ring nebula
2011-neptune
Gum 29 - ground fo star cluster
ancient comet in 2016-murakami
92
(NASA) released a set of images and science products of five different regions of the sky, taken with the JWST. includes a galaxy cluster which appeared -- billion years ago.
It is the deepest and finest infrared image of some of the most distant and oldest galaxies ever discovered.
The telescope is the result of an international collaboration between --,--- an d ----which was launched in December ---
It is currently at a point in space known as the Sun-Earth --- Lagrange point, approximately 1.5 million km beyond Earth’s orbit around the Sun.
That point is one of the five points in the orbital plane of the Earth-Sun system.
Named after Italian-French mathematician ----, the points are in any revolving two-body system like Earth and Sun, marking where the gravitational forces of the two large bodies cancel each other out.
Objects placed at these positions are relatively stable and require minimal external energy or fuel to keep themselves there, and so many instruments are positioned here.
It's the largest, most powerful infrared space telescope ever built.
It's the successor to Hubble Telescope.
It can see backwards in time to just after the Big Bang
4.6 bn yrs ago
nasa+ esa+csa
2021
l2 (aditya @ l1)
Josephy-Louis Lagrange
93
1. JWST e would be observing infrared radiations most primarily covering between 0.6 to -- microns.
Hubble’s work involved watching the ultraviolet and the visible spectrum of light. It observes the range of 0.8 to --- microns.
2. Webb Telescope would not be orbiting the Earth. It would be orbiting the sun from --- million kilometres away from the Earth.
Hubble orbits the Earth at an altitude of ---kilometres from it.
3. Hubble can see the smallest and the newest of all galaxies. Webb would be able to see the Newborn galaxies as well.
Webb's near and mid-infrared instruments would be helpful in studying the first formed galaxies and exoplanet
0.6 to 28 microns - jwst
0.8 to 2.5 microns
1.5 mn - jswt
575 km - hubble
94
-a-- was the first spacecraft to visit the solar system's most photogenic gas giants, Jupiter and Saturn. --a-- 10 was the first probe to travel through the solar system's asteroid belt, a field of orbiting rocks between Mars and Jupiter.
Shortly after the Pioneers made their flybys, the Voyager 1 and Voyager 2 probes followed. They made many important discoveries about Jupiter and Saturn, including rings around Jupiter and the presence of volcanism on Jupiter's moon.
---- is currently the farthest man-made object from Earth, at more than a hundred times the distance from the Earth to the sun, and more than twice as far as Pluto.
Since ---, the --- X-ray Observatory has been scanning the skies in X-ray light, looking at some of the most distant and bizarre astronomical events.
Because Earth's pesky atmosphere blocks out most X-rays, astronomers couldn't view the universe in this high-energy, short-wavelength light until they sent it up to space.
The Spectro-Photometer for the History of the Universe and Ices Explorer (SPHEREx) is a planned two-year mission that will survey the sky in optical as well as near-infrared light which, though not visible to the human eye, serves as a powerful tool for answering cosmic questions.
It would be launched in ----
Astronomers will use the mission to gather data on more than 300 million galaxies, as well as, more than 100 million stars in our own Milky Way
pioneer (pioneer 10)
Voyager 1
1999
chandra xray observatory - 1999
2024-SPHEREx
95
jwst
The telescope will be launched on an ---- rocket from French Guiana in ---.
The James Webb Space Telescope (also called JWST or Webb) will be a large infrared telescope with a --- m primary mirror.
ebb was formerly known as the “Next Generation Space Telescope” (NGST) and it was renamed in --- after a former NASA administrator, James Webb.
Wide-Field Infrared Survey Telescope (WFIRST, to be launched in ---): It aims to study dark energy, explore exoplanets, and perform galactic and extragalactic surveys
Compton Gamma-Ray Observatory (CGRO): Observation in Gamma Ray
ariane 5-french guinana
2021
6.5 m/21.6 ft mirrpr
2002 renamed
wfirst - 2027
96
he European Union (EU) has given final approval to online safety-focused legislation called Digital Services Act (DSA), which is an overhaul of the region’s social media and e-commerce rules.
Under the DSA, ‘Very Large Online Platforms’ (VLOPs) and ‘Very Large Online Search Engines’ (VLOSEs), that is platforms, having more than --- million users in the EU, will have more stringent requirements.
The ------ will be responsible for centrally supervising these requirements and their enforcement.
india: it rules, --
it act, ---
45 mn
european comm
2021 rules
2000 act
97
the Indian Army has approved --- Project Sanction Orders (PSOs) for the development of niche technology by the Indian industry under the Make-II route of defence procurement.
Make II projects are essentially industry funded projects involving design, development and innovative solutions by Indian vendors for development of prototypes.
--- out of 43 projects are now in prototype development stage, which is 66% of projects by cost, ₹18,000 crore out of ₹27,000 crore.
new addtions: High Frequency Man Packed Software Defined Radios (HFSDR, Drone Kill Systems, 155 mm Terminally Guided Munitions (TGM), Medium Range Precision Kill Systems (MRPKS) AND Infantry Training Weapon Simulator (IWTS):
It is the first triservice Make-II project with the --- as the lead service
5 psos
22/43
army as lead - iwts
98
The ‘Make’ category of capital acquisition is the cornerstone of the Make in India initiative that seeks to build indigenous capabilities through the involvement of both public and private sector.
‘Make-I’ refers to government-funded projects while ‘Make-II’ covers industry-funded programmes.
Make-I is involved in development of big-ticket platforms such as light tank and communication equipment with Indian security protocols.
Make-II category involves prototype development of military hardware or its upgrade for import substitution for which no government funding is provided.
Another sub-category under ‘Make’ is ‘Make-III’ that covers military hardware that may not be designed and developed indigenously, but can be manufactured in the country for import substitution, and Indian firms may manufacture these in collaboration with foreign partner.
r Defence Acquisition Procedure (DAP)., -----
march'22: The defense ministry has cleared ---- such projects: four under the ‘Make-I’ and five under the ‘Make-2’ categories,
In the Union Budget 2022, India earmarked Rs 84,598 crore - ---% of the military’s capital acquisition budget --- for purchasing locally produced weapons and systems to boost self-reliance in the defence sector, besides setting aside ---% of the defence R&D budget for private industry
dap, 2020
9 projects
68% -local purchases
25% - r and d for pvt
99
Under Article --- and ---- of the Constitution, a Governor is appointed by the President and holds office “during the pleasure of the President”.
If this pleasure is withdrawn before completion of the five-year term, the Governor has to step down.
As the President works on the aid and advice of the Prime Minister and the council of ministers, in effect, the Governor can be appointed and removed by the central government
.
Surya Narain Choudhary vs Union of India (----): The Rajasthan High Court held that the pleasure of the President was not justiciable as the Governor had no security of tenure and can be removed at any time by the President withdrawing pleasure.
----- vs Union of India (2010): The Supreme Court elaborated on the pleasure doctrine. It upheld that “no limitations or restrictions are placed on the ‘at pleasure’ doctrine”, but that “does not dispense with the need for a cause for withdrawal of the pleasure”.
The Bench held that the court will presume that the President had “compelling and valid” reasons for the removal but if a sacked Governor comes to the court, the Centre will have to justify its decision.
art 155- appt
art 156-pleasure of prez -"term"
1981 surya narain- raj held govenror useless
BP Singhal v uoi, 2010- sc held some reason to be given
100
However, they were never made into law by Parliament, reccs of comms:
Sarkaria Commission (---):
It recommended that Governors are not sacked before completing their five-year tenure, except in “rare and compelling” circumstances.
The procedure of removal must allow the Governors an opportunity to explain their conduct, and the central government must give fair consideration to such explanation.
It was further recommended that Governors should be informed of the grounds of their removal.
---- Commission (2002):
It recommended that ordinarily Governors should be allowed to complete their five-year term.
If they have to be removed before completion of their term, the central government should do so only after consultation with the --- --.
The Punchhi Commission (----):
It suggested the deletion of the phrase “during the pleasure of the President” from the Constitution, because a Governor should not be removed at the will of the central government.
Instead, he or she should be removed only by a resolution of the state legislature.
1988 sarkaria comm -nrespect 5 yr ternure
2002 venkatachaliah comm - respect 5 yr until absolutely necessary
Chief Minister conslutation
punchhi comm, 2010 - give state not centre power
101
The first Nobel Prizes were awarded in 1901. The Peace Prize for that year was shared between the Frenchman ----- and the Swiss ----.
e first Nobel Prize in Literature was awarded in 1901 to ---- of France.
e first Nobel Prize in Chemistry was awarded in 1901 to------, of the Netherlands, "for his discovery of the laws of chemical dynamics and osmotic pressure in solutions"
1901
frederic passy
jean henry dunant
Sully Prudhomme- lit
Jacobus Henricus van 't Hoff- chem- netehrlands
102
The Nobel Prize in Physics 1901 was awarded to ---- for x radiation.
n ---, Sveriges Riksbank (Sweden's central bank) established the Prize in Economic Sciences in Memory of Alfred Nobel, founder of the Nobel Priz
The first prize in economic sciences was awarded to---- and Jan Tinbergen in ---. The prize in economic sciences is awarded by the Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences, ------ according to the same principles as for the Nobel Prizes that have been awarded since 1901.
Wilhelm Conrad Röntgen
1968
ragnar frisch + jan tingerbern
1969
Stockholm, Sweden,
103
electoral bonds: Only the political parties registered under Section --- of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and have secured not less than ---% of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of the People or the Legislative Assembly, are eligible to receive electoral bonds.
EB Scheme is of ---, amendments in 2017
section 29A
1%
2019
