Legal Flashcards

1
Q

Health Practitioner Regulation National Law (2009)

A

National registration and accreditation scheme designed to:
- protect the public
- mobilise workforce
- provide high-quality education
- rigorously assess overseas professionals
- provide access to services in public interest
- facilitate flexible, responsible, sustainable workforce & continued development

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2
Q

Unprofessional conduct (define)

A

Professional conduct of a RHP that is of a ‘lesser standard’ including:
- contravening national law
-contravening condition of registration or undertaking of NMBA
- criminal conviction
- influencing (or attempting to) conduct of another RHP:

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3
Q

Professional misconduct (define)

A

Professional conduct of a RHP including:
- UP that is substantially below expected standard
- Several instances of UP which (combined) are substantially below expected standard
- conduct inconsistent with being a fit and proper person

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4
Q

Impairment (define)

A

A physical or mental impairment, disability, condition or disorder that detrimentally affects (or is likely to)
- RHP: capacity to practice profession; OR
- Student: capacity to undertake clinical training

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5
Q

Notifiable conduct (s140)

A
  1. practising while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs; or
  2. sexual misconduct in connection practice
  3. placing the public at risk of substantial harm:
    - because of an impairment
    - by practising in a way that significantly departs from accepted professional standards
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6
Q

Mandatory notifications (s141)

A

RHP must notify National Agency as soon as practicable after forming reasonable belief that:
- another RHP has engaged in notifiable conduct; OR
- a student has an impairment that could place public at substantial risk of harm

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7
Q

Voluntary notifications (s144)

A

Anyone can notify National Agency on the grounds that:
1. Unprofessional conduct
2. Inadequate knowledge, skill, judgement, care
3. Not a fit and proper person
4. Impairment
5. Contravention of National law or undertaking
6. Registration improperly obtained

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8
Q

Mandatory reporting (Elder Abuse)

A

Under Aged Care Act, nurses providing care and services to people in aged care settings must report:
- Unreasonable use of force or assault; AND
- Unlawful sexual contact.
to the Aged Care Safety and Quality Commission.

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9
Q

Mandatory reporting (Child Abuse)

A

Under s124A, B of the Children and Community Services Act 2004 (WA), nurses must report if in the course of their practice, they form a belief based on reasonable grounds that child sexual abuse is occurring or has occurred.

Other forms of abuse (physical, emotional and neglect) should continue to be reported using Child Protection Concern Referral Form but there is no penalty if a report is not made.

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10
Q

FDV (responses)

A

A. Concerns identified
- Offer individualised support incl. FDV services
- Consult line manager/CNS
- Consult CPU (PCH)
- Consider electronic record alert
B. Disclosure (no immediate threat)
- Provide reassurance
- Assess current supports/services
- Consult line manager/CNS
- Referral/liaison with FDV services
- Develop safety plan
- CAHS-CH contacts
- Discuss notifying police
- Clients of concern communication tool
- Electronic record alert
C. Disclosure (immediate threat)
- Ensure personal safety
-Assess current plans/services/supports
- Engage specialists to develop safety plan
- Support contacting police, crisis care, FDV services
- Disclose obligation to report to CPFS when it is unsafe for children to be at home or risk of abuse
- Complete CPFS Child Protection
Concern Referral Form within 24hrs
- Client of concern communication tool
- Electronic record alert

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11
Q

5 Preconditions to accountability

A
  1. Ability - competence to fulfil the requirements of one’s role/practice, requiring sufficient knowledge and skills.
  2. Responsibility – assumed undertaking or being assigned activities/interventions within the individual’s scope of practice for which the individual is answerable.
  3. Supervision
    a) Direct - A takes direct responsibility for the provision of nursing care provided by B under continual observance of A
    b) A delegates interventions to B who undertakes activities without constant monitoring. B is responsible for their actions but A remains accountable for the outcome and must take reasonable steps to ensure quality and safety of care.
  4. Authority - sanctioned/legitimate power delegated to a nurse that allows the nurse to make decisions and perform role-related functions.
  5. Autonomy - freedom to independently fulfil responsibilities without close supervision; right to practice in line with professional codes/standards and evidence-base.
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12
Q

Valid consent (explain)

A

For consent to be valid it must be:
1. Given by a person with capacity
2. Voluntarily
3. Fully-informed
4. Specific and cover what is actually done

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13
Q

Doctrine of necessity (define)

A

Common law doctrine provides a defence for the provision of medical treatment where a patient requires urgent, time-critical treatment and it is not practicable to communicate with them. Treatment must be:
- reasonable - i.e. supported by evidence-based practise.
- necessary to save a life and/or prevent serious injury (cf. merely convenient)

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14
Q

Duty of care (define)

A

Common law duty to take reasonable care to avoid acts or omissions that could foreseeably lead to injury or harm to those who are closely and directly affected by an individual’s actions (Donoghue v Stevenson).

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15
Q

Negligence (define)

A

Doing or failing to do something that a reasonable person would (or would not) do which causes another person damage, injury or loss as a result, in circumstances where a duty of care is owed.

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16
Q

Exceptions to requirements for valid consent

A
  1. Incapacity - consent granted by the patient’s substitute decision-maker as defined by state legislation - e.g. guardian, POA, NOK.
  2. Emergency - doctrine of necessity.
  3. Treatment authorised/required by law - e.g. mandatory drug/alcohol testing, court/tribunal orders.
17
Q

3 Forms of consent

A
  1. Implied consent - consent that is not expressly granted by a person, but implied by their actions, inactions or the situation (often for minor procedures of ‘common knowledge)
  2. Verbal consent - consent given orally by a person, which must be documented in detail in person’s health record.
  3. Written consent - consent given in writing, a written record of what has been consented to verbally by the patient.
18
Q

Capacity (define)

A

An individual’s ability to understand and retain information, weigh benefits/risks and communicate their decision-making. ALL adults are assumed to have capacity until proven otherwise, even if decision contravenes professional advice. Incapacity NOT assumed based on age, appearance, condition, behaviour or mental illness. Capacity is decision-specific and may be transient.

19
Q

Fully-informed (define)

A

The provision of adequate information and advice to enable balanced decision-making. information must encompass the nature of the procedure and its purpose, expected outcomes, alternative options available, the benefits and material risks of the intervention and must be provided in a form that is understandable to the patient.

20
Q

Consent (define)

A

Patient’s permission for a healthcare professional to provide treatment and care (incl. assessments/tests, medications and procedures) that prevents such acts from being considered criminal (i.e. assault/battery).

21
Q

Specific (define)

A

Consent must be sufficiently specific and cover the proposed treatment. Consent is non-expandable; it is only valid for the intervention the patient has been informed about and agreed to.

22
Q

Voluntary (define)

A

Freedom from coercion, duress or deception. Patient’s consent is not the result of violence, threat, intimidation or other pressure.

23
Q

Reasonable man test (define)

A

Common law test to determine whether a breach of DOC has occurred. Would a reasonable person, in the same circumstances, have acted in the same way? (Blyth v Birmingham Waterworks).

24
Q

Guardianship legislation

A

Stated-based regulatory mechanism for protecting the health, welfare, freedom and interests of a person with impaired decision-making capacity.

25
Q

Guardian (define)

A

A person appointed by the tribunal to advocate for and make decisions on behalf and in the best interests of a person who has been deemed incapable of making reasoned decisions by judicial review.

26
Q

Responsibilities of a guardian

A
  • Make least restrictive decisions
    -Encourage and enable person to live normal life in community
  • Respect and incorporate the person’s views and beliefs
  • Preserve family relationships and cultural/linguistic environments
  • Encourage the person to be self-reliant in personal, domestic and financial affairs
  • Protect the person from neglect, abuse and exploitation
27
Q

Independent check (explain)

A

A check by second authorised person carried out independently, before certain high-risk or restricted medications are prepared and administered. Involves confirming the 6 rights of medication administration and countersigning medication chart (+/- S8 process).
Applies to:
- ALL IV medications
- APINCH
-ALL S4R/8s
- Radio-pharmaceuticals, contrast dye

28
Q

Poisons Regulation Act 1965.

A

Stated based legislation regulating the manufacturing, distribution, supply, storage, prescribing and administration of medicines and poisons.
Schedules:
1. substances posing extreme danger to life (UNUSED)
2. pharmacy substances - therapeutic substances that should be publicly available but may endanger health if misused/carelessly handled.
3. pharmacist only medicine - therapeutic substances that can be dispensed without prescription in life-threatening emergency.
4. prescription only medicines - therapeutic substances requiring prescription from authorised health provider.
(4R - restricted substances - higher risk of diversion/misuse - e.g. benzos, opioids)
5/6. substances of dangerous nature requiring labelling/packaging for common use by public
7. special precautions
8. drugs of addiction - substances that have high risk of addiction (except those under criminal law).

29
Q

Involuntary client (define)

A

Individual receiving treatment authorised by law to be administered against their will to ensure their safety or the safety of others.
E.g. mental health legislation authorises involuntary detention of a person thought to be mentally ill or disordered in specific circumstances for the purpose of assessing, treating and managing the mental illness/disorder.