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LEED > LEED GA > Flashcards

LEED GA Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What are the 3 Minimum Program Requirements (MPR) for a LEED project?
A
  1. permanent location
  2. reasonable site boundary
  3. comply with the project size requirements
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1
Q
  1. What is ASHRAE 62.1 related to?
A

ASHRAE 62.1 is related to ventilation, controlling air contaminant levels, humidity, and temperature within a space.

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2
Q
  1. What is ASHRAE 55 related to?
A

Thermal comfort criteria of buildings occupants.
Specific design conditions that take into account temperature, humidity, air speed, outdoor temperature, outdoor humidity, seasonal clothing, and expected activity.

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3
Q
  1. What is ASHRAE 90.1 related to?
A

ASHRAE 90.1 relates to HVAC systems. HVAC systems are defined as: equipment, distribution systems, and terminals that provide the processes of heating, ventilating, or air-conditioning

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4
Q
  1. What does ASHRAE stand for?
A

American Society of Heating, Refrigerating and Air-Conditioning Engineers

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5
Q
  1. What ASHRAE standards would be used for the Energy and Atmosphere category?
A

ASHRAE 90.1

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6
Q
  1. What standard addresses the thermal comfort of building occupants?
A

ASHRAE 55

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7
Q
  1. What ASHRAE standards would be used for the Indoor Environmental Quality category?
A
  • ASHRAE 62.1 is related to ventilation.

* ASHRAE 55 is related to the thermal comfort criteria of occupants

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8
Q
  1. What LEED category would SMACNA standards be used for?
A

Indoor Environmental Quality (IEQ)

Sheet Metal and Air Conditioning Contractors’ National Assoc.

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10
Q
  1. What LEED category would the Green-e standard be used for?
A

Energy & Atmosphere (EA)

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10
Q
  1. What is a MERV rating?
A

Minimum Efficiency Reporting Value (MERV). MERV ratings are used to rate the ability of an air conditioning filter to remove dust from the air as it passes through the filter. MERV ratings range from 1 (least efficient) - 16 (most efficient)

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11
Q
  1. What is the EPAct of 1992?
A

The Energy Policy Act of 1992 (EPAct 1992) covers many products and services related to energy. It also sets standards for toilets and other water fixtures in both commercial and residential models.

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12
Q
  1. What is ISO 14021?
A

The ISO 14021 series standards, Environmental Labels and Declaration, are communication tools that convey information on environmental aspects of a product or service to the market. This standard is used for recycled materials to label their pre and/or post-consumer content.

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13
Q
  1. What 2 LEED categories contain standards related to VOC emissions?
A
  • Materials & Resources (MR).

* Indoor Environmental Quality (IEQ)

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14
Q
  1. What is IESNA?
A

Illuminating Engineering Society of North America. Publisher of lighting design and illumination standards.

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15
Q
  1. What is Green-e?
A

program established to promote green electricity products and provide consumers with a nationally recognized method to identify those products.

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16
Q
  1. What does an ENERGY STAR rating refer to?
A

measure of a building’s energy performance compared with that of similar buildings.
A score of 50 represents average building performance.

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17
Q
  1. What does Certification by FOREST STEWARDSHIP COUNCIL mean?
A

Certification for environmentally and socially responsible forest management practices. And certification allows companies to manufacture and sell products made from sustainable wood.

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18
Q
  1. What is Chain-of-Custody (CoC) Certification?
A

Refers to chronological documentation or paper trail. CoC is important in LEED when dealing with certified wood. Companies that process, manufacture, and/or sell products made of certified wood can earn CoC certification by having an audit done of their documentation. This certification shows the FSC that the name and logo are being used correctly.

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19
Q
  1. What are CREDIT INTERPRETATION RULINGS (CIR)?
A

They are designed for technical and administrative guidance for MPR, Prerequisites, and Credits. They may be submitted any time after the project is registered and must be completed using LEED Online. Do not write as a letter. Include only the inquiry and essential information. CIRs can contain maximum 600 words. The CIR may NOT include attachments, cut-sheets, plans or drawings.

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20
Q
  1. CIRs can be used for what purpose(s)?
A

Used to ask one clear and concise question for technical and administrative guidance on MPRs, Prerequisites, or Credits.

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21
Q
  1. For multiple building developments who determines the LEED PROJECT BOUNDARY?
A

The project team.

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22
Q
  1. What is LEED Online?
A

The primary resource for managing the LEED documentation process.

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23
Q
  1. What is the purpose of a LEED SCORECARD?
A

Assists in determining the Total Project Score and achievable Credits at the inception of a LEED Project.

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24
Q
  1. What are 6 features of LEED Online?
A
  • manage project details.
  • complete documentation requirements.
  • upload supporting files.
  • submit applications for review.
  • receive reviewer feedback.
  • earn LEED certification
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25
Q
  1. Where can the LEED Score Card be found?
A

USGBC’s website

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26
Q
  1. What are the LEED Reference Guides used for?
A

A user’s manual that guides a LEED project from registration to certification of the design and construction of a project.

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27
Q
  1. What do the LEED Reference Guides contain?
A

Strategies, case studies, and documentation requirements for each credit and prerequisite in a rating system.

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28
Q
  1. Who can access LEED Online?
A

Anyone assigned to a project by the project administrator

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29
Q
  1. What general documentation (4) must be submitted for LEED certification?
A

1) Project narrative
2) Project photos/drawings
3) Typical floor plans
4) Elevations

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30
Q
  1. What organization is responsible for LEED project registration?
A

GBCI (Green Business Certification Inc.)

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31
Q
  1. What is a LEED intent?
A

Identifies the main sustainability goal or benefit of the prerequisite or credit. (USGBC)

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32
Q
  1. What does a PREREQUISITE represent?
A

A key criteria that must be completed for a project to earn certification.

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33
Q
  1. Why do projects need to meet prerequisites?
A

they are key criteria that define green building performance.

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34
Q
  1. How many CERTIFICATION LEVELS are available to a LEED project?
A

4

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35
Q
  1. How are CIRs submitted?
A

Credit interpretation requests (CIRs)must be submitted through LEED Online.

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36
Q
  1. What are the different certification levels LEED projects can earn?
A
  • Platinum
  • Gold
  • Silver
  • Certified
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37
Q
  1. What are the amount of points a credit can earn (credit weighting) based on?
A

How well the credit address environmental and health concerns.

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38
Q
  1. What is environmental sustainability?
A

Long-term maintenance of ecosystem components and functions for future generations. (EPA)

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39
Q
  1. What is considered a construction HARD COST (spec sections)?
A

CSI MasterFormat 2004 Edition::
Divisions 03-10.
Division 31 (Section 31.60.00 Foundations).
Division 32 (Sections 32.10.00 Paving, 32.30.00 Site Improvements, and 32.90.00 Planting).

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40
Q
  1. What is a construction hard cost?
A

By far the largest portion of the expenses in a construction budget, the hard costs are mostly comprised of the actual construction costs incurred to build the project. Examples of hard costs include masonry, wood, steel, carpet, tile, mechanical systems, roofing.

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41
Q
  1. What are CONSTRUCTION SOFT COSTS?
A

Soft costs are expense items that are not considered direct construction costs such as legal fees and permitting.

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42
Q
  1. What are some examples (5) of construction hard costs?
A
  1. Cement
  2. steel
  3. drywall
  4. wood
  5. land
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43
Q
  1. What is meant by LIFE-CYCLE ASSESSMENT?
A

Analysis of the environment aspects and potential impacts associated with a product, process, or service.

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45
Q
  1. What are some examples (4) of construction SOFT COSTS?
A
  • Architectural fees.
  • Engineering fees.
  • Financing fees.
  • Legal fees.
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45
Q
  1. LEED promotes what type of approach to sustainability?
A

A whole building approach

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46
Q
  1. What 3 factors dictate how much a projects CERTIFICATION fees will cost?
A
  • rating system in which the project is registered under.
  • size of the project in square feet.
  • date in which the project was registered.
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47
Q
  1. What has USGBC adapted to establish metrics and rating systems to measure building performance?
A

Triple bottom line

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48
Q
  1. When can a LEED project be eligible to display the LEED plaque and other marketing material?
A

Following the acceptance of a final certification review.

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49
Q
  1. What 2 things does each category in the LEED rating system consist of?
A

Prerequisites and credits

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50
Q
  1. What are names of the 5 LEED Rating Systems?
A
  1. Building Design and Construction (BD+C).
  2. Interior Design and Construction (ID+C).
  3. Operations and Maintenance (O+M).
  4. Neighborhood Development (ND).
  5. Homes
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51
Q
  1. What is LEED?
A

An internationally recognized green building certification system, providing third-party verification that a building or community was designed and built using strategies aimed at improving performance across all the metrics that matter most: energy savings, water efficiency, CO2 emissions reduction, improved indoor environmental quality, and stewardship of resources and sensitivity to their impacts. (USGBC)

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52
Q
  1. What does LEED stand for?
A

The Leadership in Energy and Environmental Design (LEED) Green Building Rating System

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53
Q
  1. What parts of the LEED rating system are optional?
A

Credits are optional, prerequisites are required

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54
Q
  1. How is LEED developed?
A

LEED Rating Systems are developed through an open, consensus-based process led by LEED volunteer committees.

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55
Q
  1. What is the total number of points available a LEED

project can earn?

A

110 possible points

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56
Q
  1. What is SMACNA used for?

Sheet Metal and Air Conditioning Contractor’s National Association

A

Provides an overview of air pollutants associated with construction, control measures, construction process management, quality control, among other things.

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57
Q
  1. What are the different point/certification levels for LEED certification?
A
  • Platinum, 80+ points
  • Gold, 60-79 points
  • Silver, 50-59 points
  • Certified, 40-49 points
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58
Q
  1. What is Green Seal used for?
A

Green Seal is an independent nonprofit organization that indentifies and promotes products that are environmentally preferable. Several of its standards measure VOC limits in products.

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59
Q
  1. What type of products are related to the Green Seal standard?
A

Paints and primers

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60
Q
  1. What LEED credit category has credits that reference the Green Seal standard?
A

Indoor Environmental Quality (IEQ)

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61
Q
  1. What are LEED credit templates?
A

The documentation forms used to prove the requirements of a prerequisite or credit have been met. These will be filled out in LEED Online.

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62
Q
  1. What is a PRELIMINARY RATING?
A

The target score the project team will attempt to achieve. The final score, based on the number of points awarded, may be more or less than the preliminary rating.

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63
Q
  1. Can a project earn MULTIPLE CERTIFICATIONS?
A

Yes. Projects can earn more than one LEED certification depending on the Rating Systems.

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64
Q
  1. What is the triple bottom line?
A

A change from being primarily financially driven to considering economics, environment, and social responsibility

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65
Q
  1. What are 3 ways the TRIPLE BOTTOM LINE is referred to?
A
  1. Ecology, environment, economics
  2. People, profit, planet
  3. Economics, ecology, social equity
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66
Q
  1. What is a LEED CREDIT?
A

Part of the LEED Rating System. Projects earn points by meeting the requirements of credits in order to achieve building certification.

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67
Q
  1. What is a GREEN SCORE?
A

A green score measures the ‘greenness’ of an automobile.

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68
Q
  1. What CREDIT CATEGORIES

are shared among most LEED rating systems?

A
  • Location and Transportation (LT)
  • Sustainable Sites (SS)
  • Water Efficiency (WE)
  • Energy and Atmosphere (EA)
  • Materials and Resources (MR)
  • Indoor Environmental Quality (IEQ)
  • Innovation (INN)
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69
Q
  1. What is the highest LEED CERTIFICATION LEVEL?
A

Platinum

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70
Q
  1. What is a LEED category?
A

A subset of the LEED Rating System. Each rating system has several green building categories.

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71
Q
  1. What is a CIR?
A

A CIR is a Credit Interpretation Ruling and is a process for project applicants seeking technical and administrative guidance on how LEED credits apply to their projects and vice versa.

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72
Q
  1. What is USGBC?

U.S. Green Building Council

A

A non-profit trade organization that promotes sustainability in how buildings are designed, built, and operated

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73
Q
  1. What does SUSTAINABILITY mean?
A

Meeting the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.

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74
Q
  1. Who develops LEED?
A

Volunteer committees

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75
Q
  1. What types of projects would LEED BD+C be used for?
A

New construction and major renovations

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76
Q
  1. What types of projects would LEED ID+C be used for?
A

Interior fit-outs.

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77
Q
  1. What types of projects would LEED for Homes be used for?
A

High-performance green homes.

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78
Q
  1. What types of projects would LEED BD+C: Core & Shell be used for?
A

For designers, builders, developers and new building owners who want to address sustainable design for new core and shell construction. Covers base building elements such as structure, envelope and the HVAC system.

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79
Q
  1. What types of projects would LEED O+M be used for?
A

Existing buildings that are undergoing improvement work or little to no construction.

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80
Q
  1. What types of projects would LEED for Neighborhood Development be used for?
A

New land development projects or redevelopment projects containing residential uses, nonresidential uses, or a mix.

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81
Q
  1. What types of projects would LEED BD+C: Schools be

used for?

A

The design and construction of K-12 schools. Based on the LEED for New Construction rating system, it addresses issues such as classroom acoustics, master planning, mold prevention and environmental site assessment.

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82
Q
  1. What types of projects would LEED BD+C: Retail be used for?
A

The different types of spaces that retailers need for their distinctive product lines.

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83
Q
  1. What types of projects would LEED BD+C: Healthcare be used for?
A

Sustainable planning, design and construction for high-performance healthcare facilities.

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84
Q
  1. True or False: Can a product can earn LEED certification?
A

FALSE

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85
Q
  1. What LEED category can earn points for low-emitting materials?
A

Indoor Environmental Quality (IEQ)

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86
Q
  1. What is life cycle costing?
A

Evaluates a product’s economic performance

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87
Q
  1. What is life cycle assessment?
A

The investigation and valuation of the environmental impacts of a given product or service caused or necessitated by its existence.

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88
Q
  1. When should life cycle assessment be used?
A

When considering the products long term environmental impact over the products lifetime.

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89
Q
  1. Why should you use life cycle costing?
A

When there exists project alternatives that fulfill the same performance requirements, but differ with respect to initial costs and operating costs. The comparison can help maximize net savings.

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90
Q
  1. True or False: LEED projects are more expensive than traditional projects
A

FALSE Generally this is false, but sometimes they cost more or less depending on the situation. This point is often argued among the building community.

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91
Q
  1. True or False: Using an integrative process takes longer than traditional projects
A

FALSE

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92
Q
  1. What is value engineering?
A

Achieving the essential functions at the lowest total costs

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93
Q
  1. What is pervious pavement used for?
A

Pervious pavement is used to reduce runoff by allowing runoff to filter through the pervious material.

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94
Q
  1. What is SOLAR REFLECTANCE?
A

It is a measure of the ability of a surface material to reflect sunlight in forms of visible, infrared, and ultraviolet wavelengths, which is measured on a scale of 0 to 1. Black paint has an albedo of 0 and white paint has an albedo of 1.

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95
Q
  1. What is HEAT ISLAND effect?
A

Is a situation where the absorption of heat by hardscapes, buildings and dark materials then radiates to surrounding areas. The term describes the event where radiant air and surface temperatures in urban areas are higher than rural or suburban areas nearby.

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97
Q
  1. What 4 things can cause the heat island effect?
A
  • Dark surfaces that absorb heat (black roofs, asphalt)
  • vehicle exhaust
  • air-conditioners
  • reduced air flow from tall buildings and narrow streets
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97
Q
  1. What are the benefits of reducing heat islands?
A

Reduces air temperatures which would reduce the need to cool that air in buildings. Thus energy consumption is lowered.

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98
Q
  1. What is SOLAR REFLECTANCE INDEX (SRI)?
A

A measure of the constructed surface’s ability to stay cool in the sun by reflecting solar radiation and emitting thermal radiation. It is defined such that a standard black surface has an initial SRI of 0 and a standard white surface has an initial SRI of 100.

  • Black surface: initial solar reflectance 0.05
  • Black surface: initial thermal emittance 0.90
  • White surface: initial solar reflectance 0.80
  • White surface: initial thermal emittance 0.90
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100
Q
  1. What are some types of DIVERSE USES (20)?
A
  • Bank
  • Church
  • Convenience Store
  • Day Care Center
  • Cleaners
  • Fire Station
  • Beauty Salon
  • Hardware
  • Laundry
  • Library
  • Medical or Dental Office
  • Senior Care Facility
  • Park
  • Pharmacy
  • Post Office
  • Restaurant
  • School
  • Supermarket
  • Theater
  • Community
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100
Q

102.What is a BROWNFIELD?

A

Real property whose use may be complicated by the presence or possible presence of a hazardous substance, pollutant, or contaminant.

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101
Q
  1. What are some ways (4) to reduce automobile parking?
A
  • Locate Near mass transit
  • Promote carpooling
  • Install less parking
  • Install bicycle racks
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102
Q
  1. What do reflective materials help with?
A

Reducing the heat island effect.

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103
Q
  1. What does PREFERRED PARKING refer to?
A

Parking spots that are closest to the main entrance of the project (exclusive of spaces designated for handicapped persons) or parking passes provided at a discounted price.

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104
Q
  1. What are ways (4) to reduce

single passenger vehicles traveling to a project site?

A
  • Near mass transit
  • Promote carpooling
  • Install less parking
  • Install bicycle racks
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105
Q
  1. What term defines paving systems that are open and allow moisture to soak into the ground below?
A

Pervious. There are many types of pervious paving systems.

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106
Q
  1. What minimum Green Score is required by LEED for a vehicle to qualify as a green vehicle?
A

A minimum Green Score of 45 is required on the American Council for an Energy Efficient Economy (ACEEE) annual vehicle rating guide.

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107
Q
  1. What do IMPERVIOUS surfaces promote?
A

It promotes water runoff instead of infiltration into the subsurface. This term is mostly used when discussing hardscape surfaces.

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108
Q
  1. By what amount can HEAT ISLANDS elevate temperatures in urban area?
A

10 degrees F or more

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110
Q
  1. Heat islands impact what 2 LEED category(s)?
A

Sustainable Sites (SS) and Energy and Atmosphere (EA). Heat islands increase temperatures resulting in the need for more air conditioning (and more energy to cool the air).

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110
Q
  1. What generally defines what is an OPEN SPACE area?
A

Local zoning requirements

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111
Q
  1. What 4 STRATEGIES are employed to reduce the HEAT-ISLANDS?
A
  • Using materials with higher solar reflectance (SRI) properties
  • Provide shaded areas
  • Reduce hardscape surfaces
  • Installing vegetated roofs.
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112
Q
  1. What does the BUILDING FOOTPRINT consists of?
A

The area on a project site used by the building structure and defined by the perimeter of the building plan.

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113
Q
  1. What is light pollution?
A

light from building sites that produces glare, is directed upward to the sky, or is directed off the site.

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114
Q
  1. What is a benefit of locating a project near mass transit?
A

Reduced automobile use which reduces automobile emissions.

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115
Q
  1. What is a GREENFIELD site?
A

A site not previously developed or graded that could support open space, habitat, or agriculture.

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116
Q
  1. How is development density calculated?
A

By drawing a radius from the project building

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117
Q
  1. What are 4 examples of IMPERVIOUS surfaces?
A
  • Parking lots
  • roads
  • sidewalks
  • plazas
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118
Q
  1. What is the purpose of locating a project in an area with DIVERSE USES?
A

promotes walking which helps to limit urban sprawl and reduces automobile use.

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119
Q
  1. What is a DIVERSE USE? (I’m not sure this answer is correct)
A

A distinct, officially recognized business, nonprofit, civic, religious, or governmental organization, or dwelling units (residential use) or offices (commercial office use). It has a stationary postal address and is publicly available. It does not include automated facilities such as ATMs, vending machines, and touchscreens.

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120
Q
  1. What helps reduce the heat island effect?
A

By walking distance from the project site.

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121
Q
  1. How are diverse uses identified for a project (5)?
A
  • Light colored paving materials
  • Green roofs
  • Cool roofs
  • Shading
  • Underground parking
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122
Q
  1. What is PEDESTRIAN ACCESS?
A

allows pedestrians to walk between areas without interference from walls, highways or other barriers.

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123
Q
  1. What is a PREVIOUSLY DEVELOPED site?
A

A site that was previously built on, has been graded, or contained a parking lot, roadway, or other structure.

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124
Q
  1. What is the DEVELOPMENT FOOTPRINT?
A

includes all areas of a site affected by the development or project site activity. Include hardscapes, parking lots, access roads, non-building facilities and the building itself.

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125
Q
  1. What is an ALTERNATIVE fuel vehicle (7 types)?
A

uses low-polluting, nongasoline fuels such as electricity, hydrogen, propane, compressed natural gas, liquid natural gas, methanol, and ethanol

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126
Q
  1. What is OPEN SPACE?
A

Is undeveloped land, but it differs from greenfield sites since open space could have been developed in the past and restored to an undeveloped state.

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127
Q
  1. What are 4 examples of mass transit?
A
  • Buses
  • Ferries
  • Rail lines
  • Shuttles
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128
Q
  1. What is a FULL-TIME EQUIVALENT (FTE)?
A

A regular building occupant who spends 40 hours per week in the project building. Part-time or overtime occupants have FTE values based on their hours per week divided by 40. Multiple shifts are included or excluded depending on the intent and requirements of the credit.

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130
Q
  1. What 3 ways can potable water use be reduced for irrigation?
A
  • Use graywater or rainwater for watering
  • Use drip irrigation
  • Install native and adaptive plants
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130
Q
  1. What are transient occupants?
A

Building visitors and other part-time or occasional occupants, such as students, volunteers, visitors, etc.

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131
Q
  1. What two measurements are used to calculate a percent reduction in water use?
A
  • baseline design case.

* Installed design case

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132
Q
  1. What variables are used in determining FTE calculations?
A

The type of building occupant (full-time, part-time, transient) and the hours worked per week.

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134
Q
  1. What 2 things does runoff contribute to?
A
  • Soil erosion.

* Sedimentation of local waterways

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135
Q
  1. HARVESTED RAINWATER can be substituted for what (4) types of potable water use?
A
  • Landscape irrigation
  • Fire suppression.
  • Toilet and urinal flushing.
  • Custodial uses.
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135
Q
  1. What does GPF stand for?
A

Gallons per Flush.

The unit of measurement for flush fixtures (urinals, water closets)

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136
Q
  1. What 5 things does a VEGETATED roof consist of?
A
  • Vegetation.
  • Growing medium.
  • Filter fabric.
  • Drainage.
  • Waterproof membrane.
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137
Q
  1. What is a bioswale?
A

Landscape elements designed to remove silt and pollution from surface runoff water. They consist of a swaled drainage course with gently sloped sides and filled with vegetation, compost and/or riprap.

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138
Q
  1. What does GPM stand for?
A

Gallons per Minute.

The unit of measurement for flow fixtures (faucets, showers)

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139
Q
  1. What is sedimentation?
A

When runoff deposits sediment into water ways, leading to a decline in water quality by blocking sunlight.

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140
Q
  1. What is graywater?
A

Household wash water from kitchen, bathroom, and laundry sinks, tubs, and washers. (EPA)

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141
Q
  1. What codes define GRAYWATER?
A

Local and state authorities along with the Uniform Plumbing Code (UPC) in its Appendix G, Gray Water Systems for Single-Family Dwellings and; The International Plumbing Code (IPC) Appendix C, Gray Water Recycling Systems.

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142
Q
  1. What is BLACKWATER?
A

Wastewater from toilets and urinals. Wastewater from kitchen sinks (perhaps differentiated by the use of a garbage disposal),showers, or bathtubs is considered blackwater under some state or local codes.

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143
Q
  1. Irrigation impacts what 2 LEED categories?
A
  • Water Efficiency (WE)

* Energy and Atmosphere (EA)

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144
Q
  1. What is XERISCAPING?
A

Landscaping method that makes routine irrigation unnecessary. It uses drought-adaptive and low-water plants as well as soil amendments such as compost and mulches to reduce evaporation.

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145
Q
  1. Water saving fixtures can reduce water use in a project by what amount?
A

30% (USGBC)

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146
Q
  1. What is DRIP IRRIGATION?
A

Delivers water at low pressure through buried mains and sub mains. Water is distributed to the soil through a network of perforated tubes or emitters. Drip irrigation is much more efficient than traditional sprinkler systems.

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147
Q
  1. What are NOXIOUS weeds?
A

They are an invasive species of plants that inhibit the cultivation and growth of local native or adaptive plants.

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148
Q
  1. What are NATIVE or INDIGENOUS plants?
A

They are adapted to a given area during a defined time period and are not invasive. In North America, the term often refers to plants growing in a region prior to the time of settlement by people of European descent.

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149
Q
  1. What are considered INVASIVE plants?
A

They are nonnative to the ecosystem and likely to cause harm once introduced. These species are characteristically adaptable and aggressive, have a high reproductive capacity, and tend to overrun the ecosystems they enter. Collectively, they are among the greatest threats to biodiversity and ecosystem stability.

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150
Q
  1. What is the definition of POTABLE WATER?
A

Meets or exceeds EPA’s drinking water quality standards and is approved for human consumption by the state or local authorities having jurisdiction; it may be supplied from wells or municipal water systems.
product for use by purchaser only

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152
Q
  1. What are 4 uses of NONPOTABLE water?
A
  • Landscape irrigation
  • Toilet and urinal flushing
  • Custodial purposes
  • Building systems.
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152
Q
  1. What would you use the EPAct of 1992 for?
A

Measuring the baseline case water use for the Water Efficiency credits.

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153
Q
  1. What are 6 benefits of VEGETATED ROOFS?
A
  • Reduce the heat island effect.
  • Retain runoff.
  • Insulating benefits.
  • Aesthetically pleasing.
  • Have longer life.
  • Less maintenance than conventional roofs.
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154
Q
  1. What are some examples of GRAYWATER?
A

Water from bathtubs, showers, bathroom wash basins, water from clothes-washer and laundry tubs. Some cases allow for kitchen sinks depending on state and local authorities.

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155
Q
  1. Reductions in potable water consumption from water efficient landscaping are attributed to what techniques?
A

Choosing the correct plant species, density and microclimate factors, Irrigation efficiency, use of captured rainwater, use of recycled wastewater, use of water treated and conveyed by a public agency specifically for nonpotable uses or absolutely no potable water use.

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157
Q
  1. What are 4 ways to capture rainwater to prevent runoff?
A
  • Rain gardens
  • Green roofs
  • Retention pond
  • Bioretention pond
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157
Q
  1. What factors are used to establish a baseline water demand when calculating for water efficiency in commercial or residential applications?
A 
Based on estimated occupancy usage. 
Include only the following fixtures: 
* water closets
* urinals
* lavatory faucets
* showers
* kitchen sink faucets
* pre-rinse spray valves.
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158
Q
  1. In LEED, Water Efficiency addresses what environmental concerns for building use and disposal?
A
  • Monitoring water consumption performance.
  • Reduction in indoor potable water consumption.
  • Reduction in water consumption to save energy.
  • Improve environmental well-being.
  • Practice water-efficient landscaping.
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159
Q
  1. PROCESS WATER is used for what purpose?
A

Industrial processes such as cooling towers, boilers, and chillers. The term can also refer to water used in operational processes, such as dishwashing, clothes washing, and ice making.

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160
Q
  1. What is an AQUIFER?
A

An aquifer is an underground water-bearing rock formation or group of formations that supply groundwater, wells, or springs.

161
Q
  1. Low-flow fixtures use less water than what standard?
A

EPAct 1992

162
Q
  1. Wastewater from toilets is

what type of water?

A

Blackwater

163
Q
  1. What are some examples of applications that use AUTOMATIC FIXTURE SENSORS?
A
  • Lavatories
  • sinks
  • water closets
  • urinals.
164
Q
  1. Wastewater from kitchen sinks is what type of water?
A

Blackwater

165
Q
  1. Wastewater from faucets is what type of water?
166
Q
  1. What is WaterSense?
A

WaterSense is a partnership program sponsored the EPA, helping consumers identify water-efficient products and programs.

167
Q
  1. What type of water is DRINKING WATER?
A

Potable water

168
Q
  1. What are native plants?
A

Plants that are adapted to local conditions and are easier to grow and maintain. This low-maintenance approach means savings in both time and money. Once established, native plants better withstand variations in local climate such as droughts and freezes.

169
Q
  1. What are adaptive plants?
A

Non-native plants that use less fertilizer, pesticides and water in a given landscape. These plants have adapted to the local climate and are not considered invasive plants or weeds.

170
Q
  1. What is irrigation efficiency?
A

The percentage of water delivered by irrigation equipment that is actually used for irrigation and does not evaporate, blow away, or fall on hardscape. (USGBC). Drip irrigation has an efficiency of 90% while conventional overhead sprinklers have an efficiency of 65%.

171
Q
  1. What is the baseline flow rate of a faucet?
172
Q
  1. What is the baseline flush rate of a urinal?
173
Q
  1. What is the baseline flush rate of a water closet?
174
Q
  1. How much water does a waterless urinal consume?
175
Q
  1. What type of water is municipally supplied reclaimed/recycled water?
A

Nonpotable water

176
Q
  1. The water use of a faucet is measured using what units?
A

Gallons per Minute (gpm)

177
Q
  1. The water use of a water closet is measured in what units?
A

Gallons per Flush (gpf)

178
Q
  1. What is RECLAIMED WATER?
A

water that has been treated for reuse.

179
Q
  1. What are 4 benefits of NATIVE PLANTS?
A
  • Require less water.
  • Less maintenance
  • Less fertilizer.
  • More pest resistant.
180
Q
  1. What types of plants does LEED recommended using in landscape design?
A

Native and/or adaptive plants.

181
Q
  1. What is HARVESTED RAINWATER?
A

rainwater that has been collected for uses such as landscape irrigation, toilet flushing, or other non-potable water uses.

183
Q
  1. What are 3 types of flow fixtures?
A
  • Showerhead
  • Spray valve
  • Lavatory faucet
183
Q
  1. What is the baseline water demand of a building?
A

Calculated occupant usage of fixtures and fittings using the flush and flow rates from the EPAct 1992 standard

184
Q
  1. What are 2 types of flushing fixtures?
A
  • Urinal

* Water closet (toilet)

185
Q
  1. What standard is used to determine the baseline water demand of a building?
A

EPAct 1992

186
Q
  1. What standard defines green power?
187
Q
  1. What are CFCs?
A

Chlorofluorocarbon.
This is a type of hydrocarbon that is used in most types of refrigerants for building applications such as centrifugal chillers, refrigerators, and humidifiers. Most applications were installed prior to ozone concerns

189
Q
  1. What 3 types of systems use CFCs?
A
  • Centrifugal chillers
  • Refrigerators
  • Humidifiers
189
Q
  1. What does GWP stand for?
A

Global Warming Potential

190
Q
  1. What are 3 alternatives to using refrigeration with CFCs?
A
  • Natural ventilation
  • Refrigerants with lower ODP and GWP
  • Natural refrigerants
191
Q
  1. What is lighting power density?
A

Lighting power per unit area

192
Q
  1. What category does lighting power density have the greatest impact on?
A

Energy and Atmosphere (EA).

Reducing the lighting power density reduces energy use.

193
Q
  1. What does ODP stand for?
A

Ozone Depletion Potential

194
Q
  1. What is a BASELINE BUILDING PERFORMANCE?
A

ASHRAE 90.1 defines minimum standards of design. A building’s baseline building performance would be the annual energy cost for a building designed to those minimum standards.

195
Q
  1. What is natural ventilation?
A

uses the natural forces of wind and buoyancy to deliver fresh air into buildings.

196
Q
  1. What is daylighting?
A

The practice of placing windows, or other transparent media, and reflective surfaces so that, during the day, natural light provides effective internal illumination.

197
Q
  1. What standard applies to natural ventilation?
A

ASHRAE 62.1

198
Q
  1. What type of impact do HFCs have on the ozone layer?
A

HFCs have a low impact on the ozone layer but many HFCs have a high Global Warming Potential (GWP)

199
Q
  1. What is free energy?
A

Energy with low/no-cost that comes as a result of building design. Examples include daylighting, natural ventilation, or onsite solar power/wind energy.

200
Q
  1. What is Global Warming Potential as it relates to refrigerants?
A

A measurement of how much effect the given refrigerant will have on global warming in relation to carbon dioxide, where CO2 has a GWP of 1. This is usually measured over a 100-year period. In this case the lower the value of GWP the better the refrigerator

201
Q
  1. What is Ozone Depletion Potential as it relates to refrigerants?
A

The potential for a single molecule of the refrigerant to destroy the Ozone Layer. The less the value of the ODP the better the refrigerant is for the ozone layer and therefore the environment.

202
Q
  1. Is it better for a refrigerant to have a higher or lower ODP and GWP?
203
Q
  1. What is the intent of fundamental refrigeration management?
A

To reduce stratospheric ozone depletion

204
Q
  1. What is fundamental refrigerant management?
A

A minimum threshold for refrigerant selection. LEED requires zero use of CFC-based refrigerants in new based building HVAC & R systems.

205
Q
  1. What variables measure a refrigerants impact on the environment?
A

Global Warming Potential (GWP) and Ozone Depletion Potential (ODP)

206
Q
  1. What does air pollution cause?
A

Harm or discomfort to humans or other living organisms.

Damages the natural environment into the atmosphere.

207
Q
  1. What is a LIFE-CYCLE COST Analysis?
A

Calculates expected future operating, maintenance, and replacement costs of designs and features used to assist owners in developing a realistic design and budget estimate.

208
Q
  1. What is NET METERING?
A

Is a billing mechanism that credits solar energy system owners for the electricity they add to the power grid.

209
Q
  1. What 4 types of power have the greatest negative environmental impact?
A

Coal
Gas
Hydropower
Other fossil fuels

210
Q
  1. What do GREENHOUSE GASES (GHG) do to the environment?
A

Absorb and emit radiation at specific wavelengths within the spectrum of thermal infrared radiation emitted by Earth’s surface, clouds, and the atmosphere itself. Increased concentrations of greenhouse gases are a root cause of global climate change.

211
Q
  1. An energy simulation model or energy model is generated for what reasons?
A

used to provide the anticipated energy consumption of a building and permits a comparison of energy performance, given proposed energy efficiency measures, with the baseline.

212
Q
  1. What is the main ASHRAE standard in which HVAC systems must adhere?
A

ASHRAE 90.1

213
Q
  1. What is an REC?
A

Also known as Green tags, Renewable Energy Credits, or Tradable Renewable Certificates (TRCs), are tradable environmental commodities in the United States which represent proof that 1 megawatt-hour (MWh) of electricity was generated from an eligible renewable energy resource.

214
Q
  1. What is radon?
A

A cancer-causing radioactive gas. Radon in the ground, groundwater, or building materials enters working and living spaces and disintegrates into its decay products

215
Q
  1. Where can RECs be purchased?
A

RECs can be purchased anywhere and are not bound by geography. They differ from actual electricity which must be purchased from a local provider.

216
Q
  1. What is the purpose of an REC?
A

is a tradable commodity that allows organizations without access to off-site green power to purchase the benefits of green power.

217
Q
  1. Green power must be certified by which organization for LEED credit?
218
Q
  1. When would natural ventilation be a good design choice?
A

In cooler climates where temperatures are lower

219
Q
  1. What do CFCs do to the environment?
A

CFCs destroy the ozone layer.

220
Q
  1. What are the environmental benefits of an REC?
A
  • Avoid the carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions associated with conventional electricity use
  • Reduce some types of air pollution
221
Q
  1. What is ENERGY EFFICIENCY?
A

is the use of technology that requires less energy to perform the same function as a conventional item. A compact fluorescent light bulb that uses less energy than an incandescent bulb to produce the same amount of light is an example of energy efficiency. The decision to replace an incandescent light bulb with a compact fluorescent is an example of energy conservation.

222
Q
  1. What is GLOBAL WARMING?
A

refers to climate change that causes an increase in the average temperature of the lower atmosphere of the Earth.

223
Q
  1. What are GREENHOUSE GASES?
A

A gas, such as carbon dioxide or methane, which contributes to potential climate change.

224
Q
  1. What is the most effective way to optimize energy efficiency?
A

by utilizing an integrative, whole-building approach.

225
Q
  1. What is embodied energy?
A

The available energy that was used in the work of making a product. Embodied energy is an accounting methodology which aims to find the sum total of the energy necessary for an entire product lifecycle. This lifecycle includes raw material extraction, transport, manufacture, assembly, installation, disassembly, deconstruction and/or decomposition.

226
Q
  1. What is POSTCONSUMER RECYCLED content?
A

It is the percentage of material in a product that was consumer waste. The recycled material was generated by household, commercial, industrial, or institutional end-users and can no longer be used for its intended purpose. Postconsumer is just that, material recycled after being used by the consumer.

227
Q
  1. What is PRE-CONSUMER recycled content?
A

is formerly known as postindustrial content, is a percentage of material in a product that is recycled from manufacturing waste. Since the material is never sold to the consumer, it is pre-consumer material.

228
Q
  1. What is RECYCLED content?
A

is the proportion, by mass, of pre-consumer or postconsumer recycled material in a product (ISO 14021).

229
Q
  1. Reusing an existing building can help earn credit in what category?
A

Materials & Resources

230
Q
  1. What is COMMINGLED RECYCLING?
A

Recycling that accepts a wide range of recyclable materials. This allows materials to be collected in one bin, or location, prior to being sent to a recycling facility for separation. This type of recycling takes up less space and has better participation from occupants.

231
Q
  1. What is waste diversion?
A

Reducing the amount of recyclable material being thrown away and ultimately wasted by disposal in the landfill. Many materials have uses or resources that can be recaptured through recycling.

232
Q
  1. What are examples of content that is excluded from PRE-CONSUMER recycled?content
A

Rework, regrind, or scrap materials capable of being reclaimed within the same process that generated them.

233
Q
  1. RECYCLED CONTENT is defined in accordance with what document?
A

ISO 14021 - International Organization of Standards document.

234
Q
  1. What are (8) examples of PRE-CONSUMER recycled content?
A
  • Planer shavings
  • sawdust
  • bagasse
  • walnut shells
  • culls
  • trimmed materials
  • over issue publications
  • obsolete inventories
235
Q
  1. What type of recycled content is a material that contains recycled newspaper?
A

Post-consumer recycled content

236
Q
  1. What are (4) examples of POSTCONSUMER recycled content?
A
  • Construction and demolition debris
  • Materials collected through recycling programs
  • Discarded products, (e.g., furniture, cabinetry, decking)
  • Landscaping waste (e.g., leaves, grass clippings, tree trimmings)
237
Q
  1. What is the FSC?
A

The Forest Stewardship Council (FSC), established in 1933 in response to those concerns over global deforestation. It is an international non-profit, multi-stakeholder organization that promotes responsible management of the world’s forests.

238
Q
  1. What is the environmental benefit of using SALVAGED MATERIALS?
A

It reduces the demand for virgin materials.

239
Q
  1. What is a VOC?
A

Volatile Organic Compounds can negative health effects when inhaled. Many VOCs are human-made chemicals that are used and produced in the manufacture of paints, pharmaceuticals, and refrigerants.

241
Q
  1. What is CONSTRUCTION & DEMOLITION debris?
A

waste building materials, dredging materials, tree stumps, and rubble resulting from construction, remodeling, repair, and demolition of homes, commercial buildings and other structures and pavements.

241
Q
  1. What is a CONSTRUCTION WASTE MANAGEMENT PLAN?
A

Is administrative and procedural requirements for salvaging, recycling and disposing of non-hazardous demolition and construction waste.

242
Q
  1. What are low VOC products?
A

Materials that have less off-gassing, resulting in improved indoor air quality.

243
Q
  1. What materials are not allowed to be included in the calculations for Construction Waste Management?
A
  • Excavated materials such as dirt and trees

* Hazardous materials such as asbestos and lead covered debris

244
Q
  1. What is REUSE?
A

A strategy to use existing materials in a similar or different capacity that allows for the preservation of natural resources.

245
Q
  1. What are SALVAGED MATERIALS?
A

Construction materials recovered from building sites and reused on different building sites in the same or a different capacity. Examples can include flooring, brick, beams, and doors.

246
Q
  1. What is source reduction?
A

The practice of designing, manufacturing, purchasing, or using materials (such as products and packaging) in ways that reduce the amount or toxicity of trash created

247
Q
  1. At a minimum what (5) materials must a commercial LEED project include in a recycling program?
A
  • Paper
  • Metals
  • Plastics
  • Corrugated cardboard
  • Glass
248
Q
  1. What are the (2) benefits of regional materials?
A
  • Reduced transportation costs

* Support of local resources

249
Q
  1. How many points can be earned in the Innovation category?
250
Q
  1. How many Regional Priority credits can a LEED project earn?
251
Q
  1. What CREDIT CATEGORY addresses RECYCLED CONTENT?
A

Materials & Resources

252
Q
  1. Who is the PROJECT ADMINISTRATOR?
A

The individual who initially registers the project will be identified by GBCI as the Project Administrator

253
Q
  1. How many LEED AP’s are required to participate in a project to earn one Innovation point?
A

At least 1 principal participant of the project team must be a LEED AP with specialty appropriate for the project

255
Q
  1. How can Innovation credit be earned (3 ways)?
A
  • Doubling the credit requirements
  • Using a new strategy that is quantifiable
  • Achieving Pilot Credits
255
Q
  1. What is a DESIGN CHARRETTE?
A

is an intense, collaborative design activity that allows project teams (i.e. project owner, architect, and design team)to develop and plan project strategies, evaluate and identify both financial and environmental impacts, and reveal any opportunistic synergies for the entire project.

256
Q
  1. How does the integrative, whole building approach apply to LEED projects?
A

Is the most effective way to optimize energy efficiency, by collaboration among all team members, beginning at the start of a project , this method is necessary in designing building systems.

257
Q
  1. What does the HOLISTIC approach pertain to?
A

evaluates energy consumption early in the design process to allow project teams to target methods to improve the building energy consumption and performance.

258
Q
  1. What LEED credit category awards points for achieving exemplary performance?
A

Innovation

259
Q
  1. How do you earn Innovation credit for exemplary performance?
A

teams must meet the performance level defined by the next step in the threshold progression on credits that allow exemplary performance. For example if one point can be earned on a credit by reducing waste

260
Q
  1. What are the requirements for submitting an Innovation credit for an Innovative strategy?
A

Identify the following in writing: The intent of the proposed innovation credit. The proposed requirement for compliance. The proposed submittals to demonstrate compliance. The design approach (strategies) used to meet the requirements.

261
Q
  1. How are Innovation points for innovative performance measured?
A

The submitted credit must be quantifiable

262
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of points a project can earn under the Regional Credit category?
A

Under the Regional Priority credit 4 points is the maximum any project may earn.

263
Q
  1. During the site selection process what members should a project team include?
A

Landscape architects, ecologists, environmental engineers, and civil engineers, as well as local professionals who can provide site specific expertise

264
Q
  1. What are CREDIT SYNERGIES?
A

Happen when credits work together and have an increased benefit, many times at a lower combined cost.

265
Q
  1. Who fills out the LEED Scorecard?
A

The project team does during the LEED charrette.

266
Q
  1. Who can become a LEED AP with specialty?
A

Anyone that passes GBCI’s exams.

267
Q
  1. What do LEED APs with specialty do on a project?
A

Help streamline the certification process

268
Q
  1. What is EXEMPLARY PERFORMANCE?
A

Performance above and beyond the LEED requirements is rated “exemplary.” An example of exemplary performance is to meet the next step in a series of requirements

269
Q
  1. What do you call a collaborative, facilitated approach to project design and execution?
A

An integrative process

270
Q
  1. What is a LEED CHARRETTE?
A

A collaborative session in which building stakeholders and building experts address design and project issues early in the building process

271
Q
  1. True or False: Can a product can earn Innovation credit?
273
Q
  1. Who (9 professions) uses LEED?
A
  • Architects
  • Real estate professionals
  • Facility managers
  • Engineers
  • Interior designers
  • Landscape architects
  • Construction managers
  • Lenders
  • Government officials
273
Q
  1. What is the pre-design phase of an environmentally responsive design?
A

An added step to the design process which includes the integrative process, defining environmental design guidelines, and assembling an integrative project team.

274
Q
  1. What should a project vision include?
A

A statement that embraces sustainable principles and an integrative process. A vision statement should support and enforce the sustainability goals throughout the project.

275
Q
  1. Can prerequisites earn exemplary performance?
A

No. Only credits can earn exemplary performance.

276
Q
  1. What (10) steps occur in the pre-design phase?
A
  • Establish Project Goals and
  • Green Design Criteria
  • Set Priorities
  • Develop Building Program
  • Establish Budget
  • Assemble Green Team
  • Develop Partnering Strategies
  • Develop Project Schedule
  • Review Laws and Standards
  • Conduct Researh
277
Q
  1. What can increasing the ventilation in a building have a negative impact on?
A

It increases energy use (EA).

278
Q
  1. At what stage is it critical to incorporate green building practices into the project?
A

Pre-design

279
Q
  1. LOCAL ZONING requirements are defined as:
A

Local government regulations imposed to promote orderly development of private lands and prevent land-use conflicts.

280
Q
  1. Which has precedent in a project, LEED requirements or local codes?
A

Local codes must be followed first.

281
Q
  1. What codes must LEED projects follow?
A

Projects should review relevant and applicable laws, codes, local ordinances, statutes, and industry-related standards.

282
Q
  1. What must be checked to determine what type of building can be built on a piece of land?
A

Local zoning requirements

283
Q
  1. What are local ordinances?
A

A law usually found in a municipal code.

284
Q
  1. What are local codes?
A

State and local jurisdictions may develop their own regulations or adopt building codes based on national model codes. State and local codes are typically based on national model codes published by the International Code Council (ICC)

285
Q
  1. What is systems thinking?
A

An understanding of the built environment as a series of relationships in which all parts influence many other parts.

286
Q
  1. What is the integrative process used for?
A

To support high-performance, cost-effective project outcomes through an early analysis of the interrelationships among systems.

287
Q
  1. What (3) additional green building project and building construction budget are there?
A
  • Life cycle cost analysis
  • Green Building experts
  • Contingency plans for additional Research
289
Q
  1. What are the (3) benefits of using an integrative process?
A
  • Higher performing buildings
  • Healthier buildings
  • Cost savings over the long term.
290
Q
  1. What is REACH used for?
A

REACH is the Regulation on Registration, Evaluation, Authorization and Restriction of Chemicals. REACH requires all companies manufacturing or importing chemical substances into the European Union in quantities of one ton or more per year to register these substances with a new European Chemicals Agency (ECHA) in Finland.

291
Q
  1. What are 3 examples of high-priority designation areas?
A
  • Historic districts
  • Priority designation sites (Federal Empowerment Zones, EPA National Priorities List, etc.)
  • Brownfield
291
Q
  1. What is WaterSense used for in LEED?
A

To identify fixtures in a LEED building are both water efficient and high performing.

293
Q
  1. What are 5 types of sensitive habitat?
A
  • Prime farmland
  • Floodplains
  • Endangered habitat
  • Water bodies
  • Wetlands
294
Q
  1. What are the 5 diverse use categories?
A
  • Food retail
  • Community-serving retail
  • Services
  • Civic and community facilities
  • Community anchor uses
294
Q
  1. What is WASTE-TO-ENERGY?
A

The process of generating energy in the form of electricity and/or heat from the incineration of waste.

295
Q
  1. What is USGBC’s mission?
A

To transform the way buildings and communities are designed, built and operated, enabling an environmentally and socially responsible, healthy, and prosperous environment that improves the quality of life.

296
Q
  1. What is the waste reduction hierarchy (4)?
A
  • Source reduction
  • Reuse
  • Recycling
  • Waste-to-energy
298
Q
  1. What is USGBC’s vision?
A

Buildings and communities will regenerate and sustain the health and vitality of all life within a generation.

299
Q
  1. What are the 3 roles of GBCI?
A
  • Administration of the LEED exams
  • Overseeing LEED Credential Maintenance
  • Third-party technical reviews of registered LEED projects
300
Q
  1. What (4) other green building rating systems are available?
A
  • Green Globes
  • BREEAM
  • Green Star
  • IGCC
301
Q
  1. What are I-codes?
A

The International Codes (I-Codes), published by ICC, provide minimum safeguards for people at home, at school, and in the workplace. The I-Codes are a complete set of comprehensive, coordinated building safety and fire prevention codes. Building codes benefit public safety and support the industry’s need for one set of codes without regional limitations.

301
Q
  1. What are LEED Interpretations?
A

LEED Interpretations, just like Project Credit Interpretation Rulings (Project CIRs), are official answers to technical inquiries about implementing LEED on a project. They help people understand how their projects can meet LEED requirements. They also define or expand upon existing content to provide clarity.

302
Q
  1. What is the IGCC?
A

Integrated gasification combined cycle (IGCC).
The IGCC provides the building industry with language that both broadens and strengthens building codes in a way that will accelerate the construction of high performance green buildings.

303
Q
  1. What are LEED Addenda?
A

USGBC publishes clarifications (also called addenda) to address errors in the LEED rating systems and reference guides.

305
Q
  1. What is a HERS Index?
A

The Home Energy Rating System (HERS) Index is a standard by which a home’s energy efficiency is measured.

306
Q
  1. What is a BUG rating?
A

The backlight-uplight glare (BUG) method is used in LEED v4 for light pollution reduction. By selecting exterior lighting with specific BUG ratings the project team can easily reduce light pollution.

306
Q
  1. What is DENSITY?
A

A measure of the total building floor area or dwelling units on a parcel of land relative to the buildable land of that parcel. Units for measuring density may differ according to credit requirements. Does not include structured parking.

307
Q
  1. What is BUILDABLE LAND?
A

The portion of the site where construction can occur, including land voluntarily set aside and not constructed on. When used in density calculations, buildable land excludes public rights-of-way and land excluded from development by codified law.

308
Q
  1. What 2 ways is water performance measurement accomplished?
A
  • Metering

* Submetering.

309
Q
  1. What is a FLOOR-AREA-RATIO (FAR)?
A

The density of nonresidential land use, exclusive of parking, measured as the total nonresidential building floor area divided by the total buildable land area available for nonresidential structures.

310
Q
  1. What is an OCCUPIED SPACE?
A

Enclosed areas intended for human activities.

312
Q
  1. What are 3 examples of UNOCCUPIED SPACES?
A
  • Mechanical rooms
  • stairwells
  • closets
312
Q
  1. What is COMMISSIONING?
A

The process of verifying and documenting that a building and all of its systems and assemblies are planned, designed, installed, tested, operated, and maintained to meet the owner’s project requirements.

313
Q
  1. What are 4 examples of an REGULARLY OCCUPIED SPACE?
A
  • Conference rooms
  • guest rooms
  • kitchens
  • hotel lobby
314
Q
  1. What is RETRO-COMMISSIONING?
A

A commissioning process that can be performed on existing buildings to identify and recognize system improvements that make the building more suitable for current use.

315
Q
  1. What is DEMAND RESPONSE?
A

A change in electricity use by demand-side resources from their normal consumption patterns in response to changes in the price of electricity or to incentive payments designed to induce lower electricity use at times of high wholesale market prices or when system reliability is jeopardized

316
Q
  1. What is a DEMAND RESPONSE EVENT?
A

A specific period of time when the utility or independent service operator calls for a change in the pattern or level of use in grid-based electricity from its program participants. Also known as a curtailment event.

317
Q
  1. What is a CARBON OFFSET?
A

A unit of carbon dioxide equivalent that is reduced, avoided, or sequestered to compensate for emissions occurring elsewhere

318
Q
  1. What standard qualifies carbon offsets?
A

Green-e Climate certified (or equivalent)

319
Q
  1. What environmental benefit does purchasing off-site renewable energy (Green Power) have?
A

Emissions reductions

320
Q
  1. How is a building’s energy efficiency benchmarked?
A

EPA’s ENERGY STAR Portfolio Manager

321
Q
  1. What does a building automation system do?
A

Collect data about a building’s systems and track it over time

322
Q
  1. What does designing for flexibility mean?
A

Designing for flexibility is a concept that considers the future use of the building and how it may be modified while at the same time reducing waste and reducing the need for new materials.

323
Q
  1. What are environmental externalities?
A

Transactions in which one or more parties to the transaction are not compensated and may have little choice in the transaction. Air pollution, for example, is a visible externality of manufacturing, the cost of which is generally paid by others.

324
Q
  1. What is an ENVIRONMENTAL PRODUCT DECLARATION (EPD)?
A

is a standardized way of quantifying the environmental impact of a product or system. It is a statement that the item meets the environmental requirements of ISO 14021(1999), ISO 14025(2006) and EN 15804, or

326
Q
  1. What is an ENVIRONMENTAL PRODUCT DECLARATION (EPD)?
A

Is a standardized way of quantifying the environmental impact of a product or system. It is a statement that the item meets the environmental requirements of ISO 14021 (1999), ISO 14025 (2006) and EN 15804, or ISO 21930 (2007).

327
Q
  1. What is a HEALTH PRODUCT DECLARATION (HPD)?
A

Provides a full disclosure of the potential chemicals of concern in products by comparing product ingredients to a wide variety of “hazard” lists published by government authorities and scientific associations.

328
Q
  1. What is a CORPORATE SUSTAINABILITY REPORT (CSR)?
A

Is a third-party verified report that includes information on how the manufacturer extracts or sources materials

329
Q
  1. What are 3 examples of building product disclosure?
A
  • Raw materials sourcing
  • Material ingredients
  • Environmental product disclosure
329
Q
  1. What does the LEED Volume Program help with?
A

Cost-effective LEED certification on a volume scale

330
Q
  1. What are USGBC’s 7 guiding principles?
A
  • Promote the triple bottom line
  • Establish leadership
  • Reconcile humanity with nature
  • Foster social equity
  • Maintain integrity
  • Be inclusive
  • Exhibit transparency
331
Q
  1. How many LEED adaptations are there?
332
Q
  1. When would the Campus Program be used?
A

When there are

333
Q
  1. How often must LEED O+M projects recertify?
A

Every 5 years.

334
Q
  1. What LEED rating system has recertification?
A

LEED O+M.
Recertification is for O+M projects with an initial O+M certification. Projects must recertify within 5 years of the previous O+M certification and are eligible to recertify as often as every 12 months.

336
Q
  1. What are the 5 LEED impact categories?
A
  • Reverse Contribution to Global Climate Change
  • Enhance Individual Human Health and Well-Being
  • Protect and Restore Water Resources
  • Protect, Enhance and Restore Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services
  • Promote Sustainable and Regenerative Material Resources
336
Q
  1. What are the point values of a LEED credit based on?
A

The ability to mitigate the environmental harms of a building and to promote beneficial effects.

337
Q
  1. What are 3 important factors of the LEED Green Building Rating System?
A
  • Voluntary
  • Consensus-based
  • Market-driven
339
Q
  1. What are the 3 types of LEED improvements made on a regular basis?
A
  • Errata and addenda
  • Adaptations
  • Next version of LEED
340
Q
  1. In what 3 ways are LEED Interpretations different than Project CIRs?
A
  • Precedent-setting
  • Published online
  • Subject to consensus-based review
340
Q
  1. What LEED developments address specific space types and international requirements?
A

LEED Rating System adaptations

341
Q
  1. What are 3 benefits of LEED Interpretations?
A
  • Can be applied to multiple projects
  • Part of the LEED conversation
  • Reviewed by USGBC committees
342
Q
  1. What is the LEED Pilot Credit Library?
A

Allows credits to be refined through LEED project evaluations before they complete the balloting process for introduction into LEED

343
Q
  1. What type of project requires a master site for registration?
344
Q
  1. What is an LPE?
A

Licensed Professional Exemption (LPE) is an optional credit documentation path in which professionals can submit license information and a declaration of compliance in lieu of a number of otherwise required submittals.

345
Q
  1. What is a closed system?
A

A closed system is a system with a closed loop, and is thought of as more sustainable. For example, plants growing in a field, grow, produce oxygen, take in water, then die and decay which helps plants grow. Closed systems can be linked so one system uses

346
Q
  1. What is an open system?
A

An open system is a system that constantly takes in items from outside the system, uses them and then releases them as waste. This system has no feedback loop. Think of a normal home where groceries, products, or water come into the home, are used and then released as waste water or garbage.

347
Q
  1. What is a negative feedback loop?
A

A negative feedback loop is a system where the output may signal the system to stop changing.

348
Q
  1. How does integrative design differ from the conventional building process?
A

The integrative process is iterative.

349
Q
  1. What are the 3 phases of the LEED integrative process?
A
  • Discovery
  • Design and Construction (Implementation)
  • Occupancy, Operations, and Performance Feedback
350
Q
  1. What is at the core of the integrative process?
A

Collaborative team members

351
Q
  1. What does the ISO 14000 standard do?
A

Assess environmental performance of products and services and provide guidance on improving their environmental performance

352
Q
  1. What does the ENERGY STAR standard do?
A

ENERGY STAR is specific to energy performance and can be used to compare building performance.

353
Q
  1. What is infill development?
A

Infill development occurs within established urban areas where the site or area either is a vacant place between other developments or has previously been used for another urban purpose.

354
Q
  1. What document assists with determining recommended parking?
A

ITE Transportation Planning Handbook

355
Q
  1. What is a SITE ASSESSMENT?
A

An evaluation of an area’s above ground and subsurface characteristics, including its structures, geology, and hydrology. Site assessments typically help determine whether contamination has occurred and the extent and concentration of any release of pollutants. Remediation decisions rely on information generated during site assessments.

356
Q
  1. What team member creates an erosion and sedimentation control (ESC) plan for construction activity pollution prevention?
A

Civil engineer

357
Q
  1. Construction activity pollution prevention should address what environmental protection measures?
A
  • Soil erosion
  • Waterway sedimentation
  • Airborne dust
358
Q
  1. What does protecting and restoring habitat help with?
A

Promoting biodiversity

359
Q
  1. How should projects reduce runoff?
A

Replicating the natural hydrology and water balance of the site

360
Q
  1. What are ways to manage runoff?
A

Low-impact development (LID) and green infrastructure

361
Q
  1. What is energy use intensity measured in?
A

Energy consumed per unit of floor space

362
Q
  1. What products can have a WaterSense label?
A
  • Toilets
  • Private lavatory faucets
  • Showerheads
363
Q
  1. What is the Owner’s Project Requirements (OPR) document?
A

A written document that details the ideas, concepts, and criteria determined by the owner to be important to the success of the project.

364
Q
  1. What is BUS RAPID TRANSIT?
A

BRT is an enhanced bus system that operates on exclusive bus lanes or other transit rights-of-way. The system is designed to combine the flexibility of buses with the efficiency of rail.

365
Q
  1. What does tracking building-level energy use help with?
A

Identifying additional energy savings over time.

366
Q
  1. What is ADAPTIVE REUSE?
A

The practice of redesigning and using a structure for a use that is significantly different from the building’s original use.

367
Q
  1. What is the purpose of a life-cycle assessment?
A

To understand the trade-offs of material selection and energy performance

368
Q
  1. What is EXTENDED PRODUCER RESPONSIBILITY?
A

Measures undertaken by the maker of a product to accept its own and sometimes other manufacturers’ products as postconsumer waste at the end of the products’ useful life. Producers recover and recycle the materials for use in new products of the same type

369
Q
  1. What do the credits in the Materials and Resources (M&R) category focus on?
A

Minimizing the embodied impacts associated with the entire life-cycle of building materials

370
Q
  1. What is a FLUSH-OUT?
A

A flush-out runs the mechanical systems with 100% outside air to remove contaminants. Flush-outs are usually done after construction is complete and prior occupants moving in.

371
Q
  1. What is IPM?
A

Integrated Pest Management - a method of pest management that protects human health and the surrounding environment and improves economic returns through the most effective, least-risk option.

372
Q
  1. What is a common issue with daylighting?
373
Q
  1. What does daylighting help reduce?
A

The need for artificial lighting.

375
Q
  1. What are the benefits of good acoustics?
A
  • Increased learning in schools
  • Increased privacy in healthcare
  • Increased employee productivity/satisfaction
375
Q
  1. What is a negative environmental externality of locating a project in an area does not have diverse uses and is not densely developed?
A

Increased air pollution

376
Q
  1. What are ways to provide occupants thermal comfort?
A
  • Operable windows
  • Individual thermal comfort controls
  • Controls for shared spaces
377
Q
  1. What is the most impactful way that a project can help to reverse contribution to climate change?
A

Reducing fossil-fuel based energy consumption

378
Q
  1. What are the (6) benefits of LEED-certified buildings?
A
  • Lower operating costs and increased asset value
  • Reduced waste sent to landfills
  • Energy and water conservation
  • More healthful and productive environments for occupants
  • Reductions in greenhouse gas emissions
  • Qualification for tax rebates, zoning allow
379
Q
  1. What are the long term effects of climate change?
A
  • Higher sea levels
  • Higher temperatures
  • Longer droughts
380
Q
  1. What are ALTERNATIVE COMPLIANCE PATHS (ACPs)?
A

Allow international projects to identify equivalent means of demonstrating compliance to the credit requirements.

382
Q
  1. What are examples of STRUCTURAL INCENTIVES for green building?
A
  • Expedited review / permitting process

* Density and height bonuses

383
Q
  1. What are examples of FINANCIAL INCENTIVES for green building?
A
  • Tax credits
  • Fee reductions / waivers
  • Grants
  • Revolving loan funds (low-interest loans)
383
Q
  1. What is a REGULAR BUILDING OCCUPANT?
A

Habitual users of a building.

384
Q
  1. What is a VISITOR?
A

Visitors (also called ‘transients’) intermittently use a LEED building.

385
Q
  1. What are 2 examples of NON-FINANCIAL INCENTIVES for green building?
A
  • Technical assistance

* Marketing assistance

386
Q
  1. Name the (7) different types of regular building occupants
A
  • Employees
  • Staff
  • Volunteers
  • Residents
  • Primary and secondary school students
  • Hotel guests
  • Inpatients
388
Q
  1. What is the most important phase of the integrative process?
A

Discovery (Pre-design)

388
Q
  1. What is a COMMISSIONING AUTHORITY (CxA)?
A

The individual designated to organize, lead, and review the completion of commissioning process activities. The CxA facilitates communication among the owner, designer, and contractor to ensure that complex systems are installed and function in accordance with the owner’s project requirements.

389
Q
  1. Name 4 different type of building visitors.
A
  • Retail customers
  • Outpatients
  • Volunteers
  • Higher-education students
390
Q
  1. What is LOW IMPACT DEVELOPMENT (LID)?
A

An approach to managing rainwater runoff that emphasizes on-site natural features to protect water quality, by replicating the natural land cover hydrologic regime of watersheds, and addressing runoff close to its source.

391
Q

392 What are examples of OCCUPANT CONTROLS?

A

An occupant controls is a system or switch that a person in the space can directly access and use. Examples include a task light, an open switch, and blinds. A temperature sensor, photo sensor, or centrally controlled system is not occupant controlled.

392
Q
  1. What is a RIDE SHARE?
A

A transit service in which individuals travel together in a passenger car or small van that seats at least four people. It can include human-powered conveyances, which must accommodate at least two people. It must include an enclosed passenger seating area, fixed route service, fixed fare structure, regular operation, and the ability to pick up multiple riders.

393
Q
  1. What is PROCESS ENERGY?
A

Power resources consumed in support of a manufacturing, industrial, or commercial process other than conditioning spaces and maintaining comfort and amenities for building occupants of a building. It may include refrigeration equipment, cooking and food

394
Q
  1. What is a REGULATED LOAD?
A

Any building end use that has either a mandatory or a prescriptive requirement in ASHRAE Standard 90.1

396
Q
  1. What is VISION GLAZING?
A

The glass portion of an exterior window that permits views to the exterior or interior (a window a human height). Differs from Daylight Glazing which is a window high up on wall to illuminate the interior space of a building.

397
Q
  1. What 2 standards can be used to identify green cleaning products?
A
  • Environmental Choice.

* Green Seal

398
Q
  1. What does increasing ventilation in a building help with?
A

Reduced absenteeism

398
Q
  1. What does the type of entryway system selected for a building impact?
A

Indoor air quality.

399
Q
  1. What 3 places should smoking be prohibited around a building?
A
  • Near entrances.
  • Operable windows.
  • Air intakes.

LEED (2 decks)

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