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LEED > LEED BD+C > Flashcards

LEED BD+C Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What must your erosion control plan adhere to?
A

2003 EPA Construction General Permit (or local standards, whichever is more stringent)

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2
Q
  1. What is a Phase I Environmental Site Assessment?
A

A report prepared for a real estate holding that identifies potential or existing environmental contamination liabilities

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3
Q
  1. How is a Phase II Environmental Site Assessment more in depth?
A

A further investigation that collects original samples of soil, groundwater, or building materials to analyze for quantitative

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4
Q
  1. What are the types of sensitive sites to avoid building on?
A
  • Prime farmland
  • Flood plain
  • Endangered species habitat
  • Land within 50’ (15 meters) of wetlands
  • Land within 100’ (30 meters) of a water body
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5
Q
  1. Who defines Prime Farmland?
A

The U.S. Department of Agriculture

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6
Q
  1. What is the building requirement for projects in places without legally adopted flood hazard map?
A

Cannot build on a floodplain subject to a 1% or greater chance of flooding in any given year

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7
Q
  1. Define Development Footprint?
A

The total land area of a project site covered by buildings, streets, parking areas, and other typically impermeable surfaces constructed as part of the project

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8
Q
  1. What are the requirements for surrounding density?
A

Locate on a site whose surrounding existing density within 1/4 mile (400-meter) radius of the project boundary meets either the ‘separate residential and nonresidential densities’ or ‘combined density’ values.

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9
Q
  1. What are the minimum surrounding density requirements?
A

0.5 Non residential density (FAR) and 7 Residential density (DU/acre)
-OR-
22,000 SF / acre of buildable land combined density

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10
Q
  1. What are the requirements for diverse uses?
A

Construct or renovate a building or a space within a building such that the building’s main entrance is within a 1/2-mile (800-meter) walking distance of the main entrance of four to seven (1 point) or eight or more (2 points) existing and publicly available diverse uses

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11
Q
  1. What are the five use categories for diverse uses?
A
  • Food retail
  • Community-serving retail
  • Services
  • Civic and community facilities
  • Community anchor uses (BD&C and ID&C only)
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12
Q
  1. What are the distances for Access to Quality Transit?
A

1/4 mile (400-meter) walking distance of existing or planned bus, streetcar, or rideshare stops, or within a 1/2-mile (800-meter) walking distance of existing or planned bus rapid transit stops, light or heavy rail stations, commuter rail stations or ferry terminals.

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13
Q
  1. Where is Access to Quality Transit measured from?
A

A functional entry - a building opening designed to be used by pedestrians and open during regular business hours. It does not include any door exclusively designated as an emergency exit, or a garage door not designed as a pedestrian entrance.

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14
Q
  1. How many bike racks are required for a commercial building?
A

Short-term storage for at least 2.5% of all peak visitors (no fewer than 4 spaces per building) and long-term storage for 5% of all regular building occupants (no fewer than 4 spaces per building).

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15
Q
  1. How many bike racks are required for residential project?
A

Short-term storage for at least 2.5% of all peak visitors (no fewer than 4 spaces per building) and long-term storage for 30% of all regular building occupants.

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16
Q
  1. How many shower and changing facilities are required for a commercial project?
A

At least one for the first 100 FTE and one additional for every 150 regular building occupants thereafter.

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17
Q
  1. How do you calculate an FTE?
A

An 8-hour occupant has an FTE value of 1.0; a part-time occupant has a FTE value based on work hours per day divided by 8

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18
Q
  1. How many preferred parking spaces are required for Green Vehicles?
A

Provide preferred parking for green vehicles for 5% of the total vehicle parking capacity of the site.

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19
Q
  1. How many EVSE stations must be installed for Green Vehicles?
A

2% of all parking spaces (preferred parking spaces may not be counted).

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20
Q

20 How is preferred parking defined?

A

The parking spots closest to the main entrance of a building (exclusive of spaces designated for handicapped persons). For employee parking, it refers to the spots that are closest to the entrance used by employees.

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21
Q
  1. For previously developed or graded sites, how much habitat needs to be restored?
A

30% (including the building footprint) of all portions of the site

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22
Q
  1. What is an example of a monoculture planting, which would not help with restoring/protecting habitat?
A

Turf grass

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23
Q
  1. What areas can be excluded from the vegetation and soil requirements to restore/protect habitat?
A

Vegetated landscape areas that are constructed to accommodate rainwater infiltration.

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24
Q
  1. For school projects what areas can be excluded from soil restoration criteria to restore/protect habitat?
A

Athletic fields

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25
Q
  1. What amount of financial support can be provided to restore/protect habitat?
A

$0.40 / SF

$4 / m^2

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26
Q
  1. What are the distance limitations when providing financial support to protect/restore habitat?
A

Financial support must be provided to a nationally or locally recognized land trust or conservation organization within the same EPA Level III ecoregion or the project’s state (or within 100 miles of the project [160 kilometers] for projects outside the U.S.). For U.S. projects, the land trust must be accredited by the Land Trust Alliance.

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27
Q
  1. What should be included in a sustainable landscape plan?
A

List of all plant species, noting whether or not they are native/adapted; info about invasive species and pests those plants may harbor; best maintenance practices for the chosen plants, and site maps showing boudaries for the protected habitat areas

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28
Q
  1. What are the IESNA lighting zones?
A

LZ0 - Wilderness
LZ1 - Dark (parks, rural areas)
LZ2 - Low (residential, light industrial)
LZ3 - Medium (commercial, industrial, high density residential)
LZ4 - High (metro areas)

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29
Q
  1. When an organization/agency is providing space for shared use to students, what should be included?
A 
Auditorium
Gym
Cafeteria
One or more classrooms
Swimming Pool
Playing Field
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30
Q
  1. What slope is important for heat island effect - roof?
A

2:12 slope;
> means steeped slope and requires an initial SRI of 39 or greater;
2:12

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31
Q
  1. What causes skyglow?
A

Stray light from unshielded light sources and light reflecting off surfaces that then enter the atmosphere and illuminate and reflect off dust, debris, and water vapor.

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32
Q
  1. For Schools to achieve Site Master Plan, how many other credits must be met?
A

At least 4 of 6 of these credits:

  • LT Credit High Priority Site
  • SS Credit Site Development - Protect or Restore Habitat
  • SS Credit Open Space
  • SS Credit Rainwater Management
  • SS Credit Heat Island Reduction
  • SS Credit Light Pollution Reduction
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33
Q
  1. What is the default gender ratio for indoor water use reduction calculations?
A

1 to 1

; i.e. 50/50 male to female

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34
Q
  1. What fixtures and fittings must be included in the indoor water use reduction calculations?
A

Water closets, urinals, lavatory faucets, showers, kitchen sink faucets, and pre-rinse spray valves

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35
Q
  1. What is the discount parking rate for Green Vehicles?
A

20% discount

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36
Q
  1. When can wetlands count as open space?
A

Wetlands or naturally designed ponds may count as open space and the side slope gradients average 1:4 (vertical: horizontal) or less and are vegetated.

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37
Q
  1. What are the benefits of commissioning?
A
  • Reduced Energy Use
  • Lower Operating Costs
  • Reduced Contractor Callbacks
  • Better Building Documentation
  • Improved Occupant Productivity
  • Verification that Systems perform with Owner’ Project Requirements
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38
Q
  1. What documents get created during fundamental commissioning and verification?
A

Cx report
Current facility requirements
Operations and maintenance plan

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39
Q
  1. What energy-related systems must be commissioned?
A
  • Mechanical, including HVAC&R equipment and controls
  • Electrical lighting and daylighting controls
  • Plumbing, including domestic hot water systems
  • Renewable energy systems
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40
Q
  1. What do the Owner’s Project Requirements typically include?
A

Owner and User Requirements, Environmental and Sustainability Goals, Energy Efficiency Goals, Indoor Environmental Quality Requirements, Equipment and System Expectations, Building Occupant and O&M Personnel Requirements.

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41
Q
  1. What do the Owner’s Project Requirements typically include?
A

Primary Design Assumptions, Standards, & Narrative Descriptions

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42
Q
  1. Process Energy is considered to include, but is not limited to what?
A

Miscellaneous Equipment, Computers, Elevators, Escalators, Kitchen Cooking & Refrigeration Equipment, Laundry Washing & Drying, Lighting Exempt from Power Allowance (e.g., Medical Equipment), and other (e.g., Waterfall or Fountain Pumps)

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43
Q
  1. Regulated or (non-process) Energy includes?
A

Lighting (interior, parking garage, surface parking, façade, or building grounds) HVAC, service water heating for domestic or space heating purposes.

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44
Q
  1. What generates both electrical power and thermal energy from a single fuel source?
A

Combined Heat and Power (CHP) or Cogeneration

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45
Q
  1. What device is used to regulate humidity and temperature, making building systems more energy efficient?
A

An economizer

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46
Q
  1. What refrigerant management procedure governs reducing annual leakage of CFC-based refrigerants to 5% or less?
A

EPA Clean Air Act, Title VI, Rule 608

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47
Q
  1. What are the three (3) compliance path options described in Optimize Energy Performance (EA
    Prerequisite 2)?
A

Option 1. Whole Building Energy Simulation, Option 2. Prescriptive Compliance Path: ASHRAE 50% Advanced Energy Design Guide Option 3. Prescriptive Compliance Path: Advanced Buildings Core Performance Guide

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48
Q
  1. What are the six (6) components of ASHRAE 90.1?
A

Building envelope, HVAC, Service Water Heating, Power, Lighting, Other Equipment

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49
Q
  1. What four fundamental strategies can increase energy performance?
A

Orientation, Site Energy Sources, Efficient Envelope, Energy Recovery Systems

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50
Q
  1. What are the thresholds for renewable energy production credit?
A

LEED BD+C (except Core and Shell): 1%, 5%, 10%

LEED BD+C: Core and Shell: 1%, 3%, 5%

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51
Q
  1. What are the eligible types of systems for Renewable Energy Production?
A

Photovoltaic systems, Wind energy systems, Solar thermal systems, Biofuel-based electrical systems, Geothermal heating or electric systems, Low-impact hydroelectric power systems, Wave & tidal power systems

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52
Q
  1. What biofuel systems are NOT eligible for Renewable Energy Production?
A

Combustion of municipal solid waste, Forestry biomass waste other than mill residue, Coated Wood, or Treated Wood.

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53
Q
  1. What are the two (2) Options for Enhanced Refrigerant Management?
A

Option 1. No refrigerants or Low-Impact Refrigerants

Option 2. Calculation of Refrigeration Impact

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54
Q
  1. What types of equipment are NOT subject to the Fundamental Refrigerant Management requirements?
A

Small HVAC units (less than 0.5 lbs [225 grams] of refrigerant), standard refrigerators, small water coolers.

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55
Q
  1. What is the duration and % a project must engage in to earn points under Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
A

5-year contract AND 50% provision of the project’s energy from green power, carbon offsets, or renewable energy certificates.

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56
Q
  1. What are the two (2) Options to determine electricity use for Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
A

Option 1. Use the calculated energy consumption results from EA Prerequisite Minimum Energy Performance or Option 2. Estimate electricity use using CBECS database

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57
Q
  1. RECs can be used to mitigate what type(s) of emissions for Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
A

Scope 2, electricity use.

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58
Q
  1. Carbon offsets can be used to mitigate what type(s) of emissions for Green Power and Carbon Offsets?
A

Scope 1 or Scope 2 emissions.

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59
Q
  1. What are the three (3) basic methods for ventilating buildings?
A

Mechanical Ventilation (active ventilation), Natural Ventilation (passive ventilation), Mixed-Mode Ventilation (both mechanical & natural ventilation)

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60
Q
  1. What is the distance ALL naturally ventilated spaces must be in proximity to an operable wall or roof opening to the outdoors?
A

25’ feet

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61
Q
  1. What is the typical permitted distance for Environmental Tobacco Smoke (ETS) Control (IEQ Prerequisite 2)?
A

25’ feet

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62
Q
  1. What is the maximum background noise level allowed for HVAC equipment in classrooms required for Minimum Acoustical Performance (IEQ Prerequisite 3)?
A

45 dBA

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63
Q
  1. What acoustic issues need to considered for Acoustic Performance?
A

HVAC background noise
Sound transmission
Reverberation time
Sound reinforcement and masking systems

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64
Q
  1. At what % must an outdoor air delivery monitoring system generate an alarm for insufficient airflow values or carbon dioxide?
A

10% variation from design values

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65
Q
  1. What is considered a densely occupied space when monitoring CO2 concentrations for mechanically ventilated spaces?
A

25 people or more per 1,000 square feet

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66
Q
  1. For increased ventilation what % must mechanically ventilated spaces increase outdoor air ventilation rates required by ASHRAE 62.1?
A

30% above rates required by ASHRAE 62.1

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67
Q
  1. What filtration media is required for Enhanced IAQ strategies?
A

MERV 13 or F7 (CEN Standard EN 779-2002)

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68
Q
  1. How does a project confirm natural ventilation is an effective strategy?
A

Follow the CIBSE flow diagram.

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69
Q
  1. What is required for Construction IAQ Management Plan?
A

Meet or exceed SMACNA guidelines
Protect absorptive materials stored on-site
Use MERV 8 (F5) filters on operating air-handlers
Prohibit smoking in the building and within 25’ (7.5 meters) of entrances

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70
Q
  1. What are the five (5) areas SMACNA standards for recommended IAQ Control Measures?
A
  • HVAC protection
  • Source control
  • Pathway interruption
  • Housekeeping
  • Scheduling
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71
Q
  1. What are the two (2) Options for Indoor Air Quality Assessment?
A

Option 1. Flush-out, Option 2. Air testing

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72
Q
  1. What are the two (2) building flush-out paths a project can consider for IAQ Assessment?
A

14,000 Cubic Feet of Outdoor Air per SF of Floor Area @ 60°F & 60% relative humidity OR 3,500 Cubic Feet of Outdoor Air per SF of Floor Area @ Minimum Rate of .30 (cfm) until reaching 14,000 Cubic Feet per SF

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73
Q
  1. At what height must air samples be collected at for IAQ Assessment?
A

3 to 6 feet (900 to 1,800 mm) above floor to represent the breathing zone

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74
Q
  1. What are the general emissions evaluation standards associated with low-emitting adhesives and sealants?
A

California Department of Public Health (CDPH) Standard Method v1.1-2010 and German AgBB Testing and Evaluation Scheme (2010)

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75
Q
  1. How long must permanent entryway systems be in the primary direction of travel for Enhanced IAQ Strategies?
A

10’ (3 meters) in the primary direction of travel at regularly used exterior entrances.

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76
Q
  1. What MERV rating must mechanically ventilated buildings design HVAC systems to filter supply air prior to occupancy?
A

MERV 13 (F7) or higher

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77
Q
  1. What types of rooms would require negative air pressure, self-closing doors, and deck-to-deck partitions or hard-lid ceilings for interior cross-contamination prevention?
A

Garages
Houskeeping and laundry areas
Copying and printing rooms

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78
Q
  1. What % of the building occupants must have individual lighting controls for Interior Lighting?
A

At least 90% of individual occupant spaces and 100% of shared multi-occupant spaces

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79
Q
  1. How many modes must lighting systems be able to operate in?
A

3: On, off, and mid-level

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80
Q
  1. What % of the building occupants must have individual comfort controls for Thermal Comfort?
A

At least 50% of individual occupant spaces and 100% for all shared multi-occupant spaces

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81
Q
  1. What standards must be followed for thermal comfort design?
A

Option 1. ASHRAE Standard 55-10
OR
Option 2. IOS and CEN Standards

82
Q
  1. What are the six (6) primary comfort factors associated with ASHRAE 55?
A 
Metabolic Rate
Clothing Insulation
Air Temperature
Radiant Temperature
Air Speed
Humidity
83
Q
  1. What are the three (3) options to achieve IEQ Credit Daylight?
A

Option 1. Simulation: Spatial daylight autonomy and annual sunlight exposure
Option 2. Simulation: I luminance calculations
Option 3. Measurement

84
Q
  1. What % of regularly occupied floor area must achieve daylight illumination for IEQ Credit Daylight?
A

75% = 1 Point

85
Q
  1. What are the four kinds of views?
A
  • Multiple lines of sight to vision glazing in different directions at least 90 degrees apart
  • Views that include at least two of the following: (1) flora, fauna, or sky; (2) movement; and (3) objects at least 25 feet (7.5 meters) from the exterior of the glazing
  • Unobstructed views located within the distance of three times the head height of the vision glazing
  • Views with a view factor of 3 or greater
86
Q
  1. What % of regularly occupied floor area must have direct line of sight to the outdoors via vision glazing for IEQ Credit Views?
A

75% = 1 Point

87
Q
  1. Views into the interior atria may be used to meet what percent of the required area for Quality Views?
88
Q
  1. What dBA must background noise from HVAC equipment be reduced to for Minimum Acoustic Performance?
89
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for achieving Exemplary Performance?
90
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for IN Credit Innovation for the innovation option?
91
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for Pilot Credits?
92
Q
  1. What is required for LEED Accredited Professional credit?
A

One LEED AP with a specialty appropriate for the project

93
Q
  1. What is the maximum number of points a project can earn for Regional Priority credits?
94
Q
  1. At a minimum, projects must provide dedicated area for collection and storage of what five (5) materials?
A 
Paper
Corrugated Cardboard
Glass
Plastics
Metals
95
Q
  1. What do calculations need to be done by for Construction and Demolition Waste Management?
A

Weight or Volume

96
Q
  1. What are the minimum % thresholds for debris to be recycled or salvaged for Construction and Demolition Waste Management?
A 
50% = 1 Point
75% = 2 Points
97
Q
  1. What is required for a project team to establish for Construction and Demolition Waste Management Planning?
A

Waste diversion goals

98
Q
  1. Who is NOT required to have a Chain of Custody documentation for FSC-certified wood?
99
Q
  1. What international alternative compliance path is available for material ingredient optimization?
A

REACH Optimization

100
Q
  1. For Innovation credit when pursuing Option 1 Innovation what must the team identify?
A

Intent of proposed innovation credit, proposed requirement(s) for compliance, proposed submittals, and strategies used to meet requirement(s)

101
Q
  1. What is a BAS?
A

Building Automation System (BAS), it uses computer-based monitoring to coordinate, organize, and optimize building control subsystems, including lighting, equipment scheduling, and alarm reporting.

102
Q
  1. What is WaterSense?
A

WaterSense is a partnership program sponsored by EPA, helping consumers identify water-efficient products and programs.

103
Q
  1. At what heights should CO2 sensors be placed at for breathing zone requirements?
A

Between 3 and 6 feet above the floor.

104
Q
  1. When can certification be revoked?
A

Certification may be revoked from any LEED project upon gaining knowledge of non-compliance with any applicable MPR. If such a circumstance occurs, registration and/or certification fees will not be refunded.

105
Q
  1. What is Technical Release (TR) 55?
A

An approach to hydrology in which watersheds are modeled to calculate storm runoff volume, peak rate of discharge, hydrographs, and storage volumes, developed by the former USDA Soil Conservation Service

106
Q
  1. What energy-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process?
A 
Site conditions
Massing and orientation
Basic envelope attributes
Lighting levels
Thermal comfort ranges
Plug and process load needs
107
Q
  1. What (4) water-related building aspects must be considered for Integrative Process?
A
  • Interior water demand
  • Outdoor water demand
  • Process water demand
  • Supply sources
108
Q
  1. How many potential strategies must be assessed for each energy-related building aspect for Integrative Design?
A

At least 2 strategies must be assessed for each of the six aspects.

109
Q
  1. What tool is used to benchmark building performance for Integrative Design?
A

EPA’s Target Finder

110
Q
  1. What LEED ND certification designations are eligible for LEED ND Location credit?
A
  • LEED ND Pilot, Stage 2 LEED ND Certified Plan
  • LEED ND Pilot, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Project
  • LEED 2009, Stage 2 Pre-certified LEED ND Plan
  • LEED 2009, Stage 3 LEED ND Certified Neighborhood Development
  • LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Plan
  • LEED v4 LEED ND Certified Built Project
111
Q
  1. What percent of a building must be maintained for historic building reuse?
A

There is no minimum requirement. The historic designation must be maintained however.

112
Q
  1. When renovating an abandoned or blighted building what percent of the building must be maintained?
A

At least 50% by surface area of the existing structure, enclosure, and interior structural elements.

113
Q
  1. What is the minimum percent reuse required for building and material reuse?
A

At least 25% from off site or on site as a percentage of the surface area.

114
Q
  1. What are the six impact categories of a life-cycle assessment?
A
  • Global warming potential (greenhouse gases)
  • Depletion of the stratospheric ozone layer
  • Acidification of land and water sources
  • Eutrophication
  • Formation of tropospheric ozone
  • Depletion of nonrenewable energy resources
115
Q
  1. When conducting a whole-building life-cycle assessment what are the min/max reductions of the impact categories?
A

A minimum of 10% in at least 3 impact categories (of which one must be GHG emissions) and do not exceed any impact category by more than 5% compared to a baseline building.

116
Q
  1. For a whole-building life-cycle assessment what is the service life of the baseline building?
117
Q
  1. What is the location valuation factor for the optimization and disclosure credits?
A

Products and materials that are extracted, manufactured, and purchased within 100 miles (160 km) of the project value are valued at 200% of their cost.

118
Q
  1. What is the minimum number of products required for the disclosure option of the MR credits?
A

At least 20 different permanently installed products sourced from at least 5 different manufacturers

119
Q
  1. What factor is used to determine the optimization of the MR credits?
A

Use products that comply with the criteria of each credit based on the cost of the products, compared to the total value of permanently installed products.

120
Q
  1. What are the three types of EPDs and what is the product value of each type?
A

Product-specific declaration: 1/4 of a product
Industry-wide (generic) EPD: 1/2 of a product
Product-specific Type III EPD: 1 product

121
Q
  1. How many qualifying products must be sourced for exemplary peformance for product disclosure?
A

At least 40 qualifying products

122
Q
  1. A cradle-to-gate assessment is required for what material disclosure?
A

Each of the three types of EPDs require at least a cradle-to-gate scope.

123
Q
  1. Structure and enclosure materials may not constitute more than what percent of compliant building products for material disclosure and optimization?
124
Q
  1. All EPDs must be consistent with what standards?
A

ISO standards 14025, 14040, 14044, and EN 15804 or ISO 21930

125
Q
  1. What are the acceptable corporate sustainability reporting (CSR) frameworks?
A
  • Global Reporting Initiative (GRI) Sustainability Report
  • Organization for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Guidelines for Multinational Enterprises
  • U.N. Global Compact: Communication of Progress
  • ISO 26000: 2010 Guidance on Social Responsibility
126
Q
  1. What are the types of responsible extraction criteria for sourcing of raw materials?
A
  • Extended producer responsibility
  • Bio-based materials
  • Wood products
  • Materials reuse
  • Recycled content
127
Q
  1. What standards are acceptable for material ingredient optimization?
A

GreenScreen v1.2 Benchmark
Cradle to Cradle Certified
REACH Optimization (International Alternative Compliance Path)

128
Q
  1. What Cradle-to-Cradle certified products count towards material ingredient optimization?
A
  • Cradle to Cradle v2 Gold: 100% of cost
  • Cradle to Cradle v2 Platinum: 150% of cost
  • Cradle to Cradle v3 Silver: 100% of cost
  • Cradle to Cradle v3 Gold or Platinum: 150% of cost
129
Q
  1. What information must be inventoried for a site assessment?
A
  • Topography
  • Hydrology
  • Climate
  • Vegetation
  • Soils
  • Human use
  • Human health effects
130
Q
  1. What should be used to estimate the water storage capacity of a site during a site assessment?
A

Urban Hydrology for Small Watersheds Technical Release 55 (TR-55) or local equivalent for projects outside the U.S.

131
Q
  1. What is a three-year aged SR (or SRI)?
A

A solar reflectance or solar reflectance index rating that is measured after three years of weather exposure

132
Q
  1. What should be used to designate a site as prime farmland and identify its soil classification?
A

Natural Resources Conservation Service (or local equivalent)

133
Q
  1. What reduction is required for demand response?
A

At least 10% of the estimated peak electricity demand

134
Q
  1. What types of demand response programs are acceptable?
A

Semi-automated and automated (not manual)

135
Q
  1. What is load shedding?
A

An intentional action by a utility to reduce the load on the system. Load shedding is usually conducted during emergency periods, such as capacity shortages, system instability, or voltage control.

136
Q
  1. What is the contract period for demand response?
A

A minimum of one year with the intention of multiyear renewal

137
Q
  1. What are the three options for high priority sites?
A

Option 1. Historic district
Option 2. Priority designation
Option 3. Brownfield remediation

138
Q
  1. What type of location must a historic district project be located in for High-Priority Site?
A

On an infill location

139
Q
  1. What are the priority designations for High-Priority Site?
A
  • Site listed by the EPA National Priorities List
  • Federal Empowerment Zone site
  • Federal Enterprise Community site
  • Federal Renewal Community site
  • Department of the Treasury Community Development Financial Institutions Fund Qualified Low-Income Community
  • Site in a U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development’s Qualified Census Tract or Difficult Development Area
  • Local equivalent program administered at the national level for projects outside the U.S
140
Q
  1. What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects with multiple transit types (bus, streetcar, rail, or ferry)?
A

72 weekday, 40 weekend

141
Q
  1. What are the minimum weekday and weekend trips for projects with commuter rail or ferry service only?
A

24 weekday, 6 weekend

142
Q
  1. When can planned stops and stations count towards Access to Quality Transit?
A

When they are sited, funded, and under construction by the date of the certificate of occupancy and are complete within 24 months of that date.

143
Q
  1. What must a bicycle network connect to?
A

At least one of the following:

  • at least 10 diverse uses
  • a school or employment center, if the project total floor area is 50% or more residential
  • a bus rapid transit stop, light or heavy rail station, commuter rail station, or ferry terminal
144
Q
  1. How close does a functional entry or bicycle storage need to be to a bicycle network?
A

Within 200-yards (180-meters) walking or bicycling distance

145
Q
  1. What is the maximum distance on a bicycle network destinations (diverse use, school/employment center, quality transit) must be?
A

Within a 3-mile (4,800 meter) bicycling distance of the project boundary.

146
Q
  1. Where must short-term bicycle storage be located?
A

Within 100 feet (30 meters) walking distance of any main entrance.

147
Q
  1. Where must long-term bicycle storage be located?
A

Within 100 feet (30 meters) walkin distance of any functional entry.

148
Q
  1. What is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
A
  1. Do not exceed the minimum local code requirements

2. A percent reduction from a baseline (20% or 40% depending on what other credits are achieved)

149
Q
  1. When is a 40% reduction from the base ratios of the ITE Transportation Planning Handbook required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
A

When a project earns EITHER LT Credit Surrounding Density and Diverse Uses or LT Credit Access to Quality Transit

150
Q
  1. How much preferred parking is required for Reduced Parking Footprint?
A

5% of the total parking spaces AFTER reductions are made from the base ratios.

151
Q
  1. What percent of Open Space must be vegetated?
A

25% minimum

152
Q
  1. How much outdoor space must be provided for Open Space?
A

30% of the total site area (including the building footprint) or greater.

153
Q
  1. What must outdoor space be to qualify for Open Space?
A

Physically accessible

154
Q
  1. What types of outdoor spaces qualify for Open Space?
A
  • paving or turf that accommodates outdoor social activities
  • paving or turf that encourages physical activity
  • year-round garden space
  • community gardens
  • preserved or created habitat
155
Q
  1. When can a vegetated roof count towards vegetation for Open Space?
A

When a project has a density of 1.5 FAR

156
Q
  1. How much rainfall must be managed for a project with a zero-lot-line with a minimum density of 1.5 FAR?
A

85th Percentile

157
Q
  1. What are some ways to capture rainwater to prevent runoff?
A

LID and green infrastructure

158
Q
  1. For a project with open space what minimum rainfall must be managed?
A

95th Percentile

159
Q
  1. When managing rainwater using natural land cover conditions what must be done?
A

Manage on site the annual increase in runoff volume from the natural land cover condition to the postdeveloped condition.

160
Q
  1. When managing a percentile of rainfall events what minimum amount of historical rainfall data is required?
A

10 years worth

161
Q
  1. What percent of runoff must be managed for the 95th percentile rainfall event?
162
Q
  1. What minimum percent of parking spaces must be placed under cover for Heat Island Reduction Option 2. Parking Under Cover?
163
Q
  1. Shade and architectural devices used for Heat Island Reduction must have at least what three-year aged solar reflectance?
A

0.28. If the three-year aged value information is not available use materials with an initial SR of at least 0.33

164
Q
  1. How is the total vehicle parking spaces calculated for Heat Island Reduction?
A

The number of parking spaces in the LEED project boundary (includes motorcycle parking). Do not count bicycle parking spaces.

165
Q
  1. Any roof used to shade covered parking for Heat Island Reduction must meet what requirements?
A
    1. Three year aged SRI of at least 32
    1. Or a vegetated roof
    1. Or covered by energy generation systems
166
Q
  1. What are the light pollution reduction requirements for internally illuminated exterior signs?
A

Do not exceed a luminance of 200 cd/m2 (nits) during nighttime hours and 2000 cd/m2 (nits) during daytime hours.

167
Q
  1. What exterior lighting is exempted from uplight and light tresspass requirements?
A
  • Specialized lighting for transportation
  • Lighting for façade and landscape lighting in MLO lighting zones 3 and 4
  • Lighting for theatrical purposes
  • Government-mandated roadway lighting
  • Hospital emergency departments, including associated helipads
  • Lighting for the national flag in MLO lighting zones 2, 3, or 4
  • Internally illuminated signage
168
Q
  1. How many conditions are there where the lighting boundarycan be different than the property boundary?
A

There are 3 conditions. The exceptions are not listed here due to their length (see the reference guide).

169
Q
  1. When using the calculation method for light pollution reduction how far apart can the calculation points be?
A

No more than 5 feet (1.5 meters) apart.

170
Q
  1. If the BUG rating method is used to meet the Uplight requirements does the method have to be used to mee the Light Tresspass requirements?
A

No. Project teams can use the BUG method or calculation method for Uplight, and use the same or different method for Light Tresspass.

171
Q
  1. What is a BUG rating?
A

A luminaire classification system that classifies luminaires in terms of backlight (B), uplight (U), and glare (G) (taken from IES/IDA Model Lighting Ordinance). BUG ratings supersede the former cutoff ratings.

172
Q
  1. What optional systems can be submetered for Water Metering?
A

Two or more of the following:

  • Irrigation
  • Indoor plumbing fixtures and fittings
  • Domestic hot water
  • Boilers
  • Reclaimed water
  • Other process water
173
Q
  1. What percent of water distribution must be submetered for irrigation, indoor plumbing fixtures, domestic hot water, or other process water?
A

80% must be submetered

174
Q
  1. What frequency must metered data be compiled for Building-Level-Water Metering?
A

Monthly and annual summaries

175
Q
  1. How long must a project commit to sharing metering data with USGBC and when must the sharing begin?
A

A five-year period beginning on the date the project accepts LEED certification or typical occupancy, whichever comes first

176
Q
  1. What type of water is municipally supplied reclaimed/recycled water?
A

Using EPA’s WaterSense Water Budget Tool

177
Q
  1. What minimum percent reduction of outdoor water use is required from a calculated baseline?
A

30% reduction from the calculated baseline for the site’s peak watering month

178
Q
  1. How can reductions be achieved for WE Prerequisite Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
A
  1. Plant species selection
    AND
  2. Irrigation efficiency
    Alternative water sources CANNOT be used for the prerequisite
179
Q
  1. What areas are excluded from outdoor water use reduction calculations?
A

Non-vegetated surfaces (permeable and impermeable pavement) are excluded. Athletic fields, food gardens, and playgrounds can be included or excluded at the project teams’ discretion.

180
Q
  1. What percent reduction is required for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
A

50% from the calculated baseline for the site’s peak watering month.

181
Q
  1. How can reductions be achieved beyond 30% be achieved for outdoor water use reduction?
A

Any combination of efficiency, alternative water sources, and smart scheduling technologies

182
Q
  1. What reduction is automatically earned when installing smart irrigation controls for WE Credit Outdoor Water Use Reduction?
A

15% from the baseline

183
Q
  1. What indoor water use reduction percent earns exemplary performance?
184
Q
  1. What must be conducted for Cooling Tower Water Use?
A

A one-time potable water analysis measuring at least the required five control parameters

185
Q
  1. What minimum number of cooling tower cycles would earn a project 2 points?
A

A 10-cycle minimum.

186
Q
  1. Any individual energy end use that represents ____ percent of the total annual consumption of the building must have an advanced energy meter?
187
Q
  1. How long must an advanced energy metering system store data?
188
Q
  1. What energy sources must be metered in a building?
A
  • Electricity
  • Natural gas, fuel oil, other fossil fuels
  • Biofuels
  • District chilled water, steam, and hot water
189
Q
  1. How often must advanced meters be able to report data?
A

Hourly, daily, monthly, and annually

190
Q
  1. What three components are part of monitoring-based commissioning (MBCx)?
A

Permanent energy monitoring systems, real-time energy analysis, and ongoing commissioning

191
Q
  1. Does building envelope commissioning have to be completed for Fundamental Commissioning?
A

No. It must be documented in the OPR and BOD. It is not required unless the project team pursues EA Credit Enhanced Commissioning, Option 2.

192
Q
  1. What minimum number of waste streams must be diverted for C&D Waste Management?
A

Divert at least 50% of the total C&D material, including at least three material streams

193
Q
  1. When reducing total waste material for C&D Waste Management what is the maximum amount of waste allowed?
A

2.5 lbs / SF (12.2 kg / m2) of waste for the building’s floor area

194
Q
  1. What does not qualify as material diverted from disposal for C&D Waste Management Planning?
A

Alternative daily cover (ACD) and land-clearing debris.

195
Q
  1. What hazardous waste stream categories require safe collection, storage, and disposal?
A

Choose two of these three: Batteries, mercury-containing lamps, or electronic waste

196
Q
  1. What two simulations are required for Daylighting, Option 1 Simulation?
A

sDA and ASE

197
Q
  1. What is the threshold for an sDA simulation?
A

300 lux for 50% of the hours between 8 AM and 6 PM local time for a full calendar year

198
Q
  1. What is the threshold for an ASE simulation?
A

1,000 lux of direct sunlight for more than 250 hours of the year between 8 AM and 6 PM local time for a full calendar year

199
Q
  1. When do the daylight simulations for Option 2 Simulation: Illuminance calculations occur?
A

9 AM on the first equinox (March 21 or September 21) and 3 PM on the second equinox

200
Q
  1. At what height should daylight measurements be taken?
A

30 inches (750 mm) above the finished floor for the default workplane height

LEED (2 decks)

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