Lecture Questions Flashcards

1
Q

In which operative case is a cephalosporin usually given as a preoperative antibiotic and discontinued within 24 hours
post-operatively?

A

elective hernia repair

because clean procedure

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2
Q

Patients undergoing which surgery would be best evaluated by the Revised Cardiac Risk Index for risk of perioperative
major adverse cardiac event, (MACE)?

a. aortic valve replacement
b. hip surgery
c. coronary stent placement
d. coronary artery bypass grafting

A

b. hip surgery

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3
Q

An adult male has “bloating” abdominal pain, anorexia, and nausea. On examination he is afebrile with a non-peritonitic but distended tympanic abdomen, no bowel sounds, and a mass in his right groin that cannot be reduced. what will abdominal radiographs most likely show?

A

dilated loops of bowel

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4
Q

A 53 year old female presents with vomiting and colicky abdominal pain for 2 days. She has had no flatus or bowel movements for a day. Her medical history includes hypertension and her surgical history is significant for cholecystectomy at age 31. She is tachycardic to 101 and afebrile. Her abdomen is distended and tympanic but not peritonitic. Obstructive series shows multiple distended loops of small
bowel, air-fluid levels, and no gas in the colon. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

small bowel obstruction

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5
Q

Which metabolic disorder is often associated with hypokalemia?

A

alkalosis

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6
Q

A 23-year-old female presents to the emergency department after falling off the back of a motorcycle. Her heart rate is 145, systolic blood pressure is 85 and she is tachypneic to 23 but oxygenating well on
room air at 97%. She is GCS 14, minus one for confusion. Her pupils are 3mm equal, round and reactive. Her capillary refill is greater than 2 seconds. Which intravenous fluid prescription strategies is most likely to be utilized initially in this patient?

A

fluid resuscitation

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7
Q

A 75-year-old lady is admitted for planned elective knee replacement surgery the next day. She has long-standing hypertension for which she takes amlodipine. She has no other medical problems. Laboratory parameters are all within normal limits. She is to be placed on intravenous fluids, and her weight at admission was 80 kg. Which one of the following
is the correct choice and rate per hour?

A

0.9% saline at 100mL/hour

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8
Q

A 64-year-old male develops supraventricular arrhythmias after undergoing open-heart surgery. The laboratory measurements
indicate that the potassium levels are 6.7. After administering calcium, what is the next step in management ?

A

insulin + glucose

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9
Q

A 36-year-old female presents to the primary care clinic complaining of a 2-month history of chest discomfort she describes as substernal, worsened by meals, and sometimes nocturnal but denies weight loss or odynophagia. She is currently asymptomatic. Her medical history is
non-contributory. She takes no daily medications. Her physical examination is without abnormality. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A

trial of H2 receptor antagonist

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10
Q

A patient with a history of alcoholism reports vomiting bright red blood after several hours of vomiting and retching. He presents to the emergency department with chest pain, low-grade fever, and nausea. What physical findings would suggest he has a rupture of the esophagus?

A

subcutaneous emphysema

popping due to air

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11
Q

A 62-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 6-hour history of sudden onset, severe abdominal pain. He reports a 3-month history of epigastric pain after meals, for which he has been taking over-the-counter antacids. His vital signs include a temperature of 38.1C, pulse 120 beats/min, respiratory rate 22/min, and blood pressure 100/50 mmHg. On exam, bowel sounds are absent, and the abdomen is rigid with involuntary guarding. Plain films show air under the diaphragm. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

perforated duodenal ulcer

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12
Q

Which of the following common causes of small bowel obstruction is most likely to occur in the adult population?

A

postsurgical adhesions

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13
Q

A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of an acute bowel obstruction. Her past surgical history is significant for a total
abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy three years previously. Which of the following is most likely present and best explains these findings in this patient?

A

adhesive intra-intestinal bands

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14
Q

According to the Ranson criteria, presence of which factor indicates a poor prognosis for an adult male with an acute episode of gallstone pancreatitis on admission?

A

WBC of 25,000/microliter

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15
Q

In the patient with epigastric pain, which of the following is most useful in differentiating the etiology from chronic pancreatitis to acute pancreatitis?

A

elevated serum amylase and lipase

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16
Q

Which of the following associations with chronic pancreatitis is most important to consider prior to surgical treatment?

A

pancreatic duct abnormality

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17
Q

A 56-year-old male with known pancreatic cancer is scheduled for a distal pancreatectomy. He asks you why this procedure has been recommended. What is the most likely explanation for recommending this procedure to this patient?

A

his previous pancreaticoduodenectomy has failed

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18
Q

A 21-year-old male is brought to the emergency room after being struck on
his left chest with a baseball bat. Clinical suspicion is high for splenic injury. Presence of which of the following findings is most likely to indicate an alternative diagnosis?

a. WBC count of 16,000
b. left 8th and 9th transverse rib fractures
c. presence of Kehr sign
d. free air below diaphragm
e. diffuse peritonitis

A

free air below the diaphragm

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19
Q

A patient with left upper quadrant pain and fever is found to have splenic abscess. Which of the following is the best treatment for this condition?

A

splenectomy

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20
Q

A 53-year-old man presents with a distended abdomen. Examination reveals a protuberant abdomen without specific point tenderness. A
fluid wave is appreciated. Right upper quadrant percussion demonstrates hepatomegaly. There is yellowing of the skin, reddening of the palms, and the proximal nail beds are rounded. Which of the following is most likely included in this patients past medical history?

a. diverticulosis
b. asbestos exposure
c. croh’s disease
d. alcohol abuse

A

alcohol abuse

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21
Q

Which of the following is the least likely component of gallstones?

a. triglycerides
b. cholesterol
c. bilirubin
d. calcium

A

triglycerides

22
Q

What is the most appropriate treatment for
uncomplicated acute cholecystitis?

A

IV antibiotics
surgery within 72 hours

23
Q

A 52-year-old female complains of an 8-hour history of nausea and right upper quadrant pain. She has no significant past medical history. The patient has a low-grade fever and rebound tenderness in the right upper quadrant. There is no evidence of clinical jaundice. White blood cell count is 11,000/mm3, liver functions are normal, and urinalysis is normal. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

acute cholecystitis

24
Q

Which two laboratory studies have the highest yield for making a diagnosis of appendicitis in adults?

A

WBC count
C-reactive protein

25
Q

What imaging has the highest accuracy rate when diagnosing acute appendicitis?

A

abdominopelvic CT

26
Q

In a 32 year old female with abdominal pain, presence of which finding is most helpful to clinically distinguish ovarian cyst from appendicitis?

A

oral temperature of 98.6

more likely to have an elevated temp in appendicitis

27
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate imaging study and is the test of choice for confirming the diagnosis of acute diverticulitis?

A

contrast enhanced abdominopelvic CT

28
Q

A 75-year-old man is admitted for abdominal pain. He is febrile at 103 F. His blood pressure falls to 90/60 mmHg with a pulse of 130 beats/min. He seems restless and agitated. A urinalysis shows many bacteria and WBCs. He also has thick, brown discharge in his Foley catheter. CT abdomen confirms active diverticulitis with a colovesicalfistula. Which of the following is the best next step in managing this patient? (2)

A

IV fluids and antibiotics

29
Q

In a 61-year-old male with a 2-month history of altered bowel habits, blood in the stools, and pencil thin stools, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A

colorectal malignancy

30
Q

Which of the following is the best diagnostic study for colorectal cancer?

A

colonoscopy

31
Q

Which of the following is the best curative treatment for a patient with stage I colorectal cancer?

A

surgery

32
Q

What are the 3 most common symptoms of Crohn disease?

A

abdominal pain
diarrhea
weight loss

33
Q

What treatment option is contraindicated for a patient with clinical concern for a complete large bowel obstruction?

A

stimulant laxatives

34
Q

What diagnostic procedure is most commonly used to detect and evaluate polyps?

A

colonoscopy

35
Q

What is the most common organism associated with a breast abscess?

A

staphylococcus

36
Q

What is least helpful to detect
metastatic breast cancer?

a. chest xray
b. bone scan
c. positron emission tomography scan
d. serum markers CEA, CA 15-3, and CA 27-29

A

serum markers CEA, CA 15-3, and CA 27-29

37
Q

A 39-year-old presents to you with a palpable, firm, 2 cm, irregular breast mass. She claims she has had it for 2 months. Which of the following is the best initial approach to managing this mass?

A

mammography

38
Q

A 65-year-old female has a 2-cm mass in her left breast. A fine needle aspiration was done, but the results were inconclusive. Two months later, the patient returns with the same mass, which appears unchanged. Which of the following is the best next step in her management?

A

core biopsy

39
Q

What is a positive (good) prognostic feature in
patients with breast cancer?

A

presence of estrogen and progesterone receptors

40
Q

Which breast cancer has a
tendency to occur in both breasts?

A

lobular

41
Q

A 34 year old female sustains a thermal burn. While counseling the patient, which of the following features is best associated with a
second-degree deep partial-thickness burn?

a. it usually heals in 21-30 days
b. epithelium peels off in small scales, leaving no residual scarring
c. wound is red and painful
d. involves the epidermis only

A

it usually heals in 21-30 days

42
Q

A 17-year-old female is seen in the emergency department with a third degree burn on her foot that occurred 8 days ago. She now has an eschar covering most of the wound. She is febrile and has an elevated white blood
cell count. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient? (2)

A

surgical excision of burned skin
apply silver sulfadiazine

43
Q

A patient has suffered a 45 percent second-degree burn and is being resuscitated with the Parkland formula. Which of the following is the best parameter to monitor adequacy of volume resuscitation?

A

urine output

44
Q

What changes to the components of the cranium best
explains the pathology of “intracranial hypertension”?

A

increased pressure within the cranuim

45
Q

A 68-year-old has been hit on the head and his Glasgow coma score is 12. His pupils are equal and reactive and his hemodynamics are
stable. One hour later his blood pressure is 190/100 mmHg and right pupil is larger than the left. His GCS drops to 8. Which of the following is most likely to be performed following the secondary survey?

A

CT head

46
Q

A 65-year-old male with a history of depression and schizophrenia is being admitted after craniotomy due to firearm injury to the head. On physical examination, he has a heart rate of 98 bpm and blood pressure of 128/84 mmHg. There are no signs of raised intracranial pressure on fundoscopy. Which of the following is the most common complication for a patient following a traumatic brain injury?

A

seizure

47
Q

A 60-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department after being the unrestrained driver in a motor vehicle collision. Her Glasgow coma score at the scene was 4 and she was intubated for airway protection. What physical exam findings is most concerning for increased intracranial pressure?

A

bradycardia

48
Q

Following a motor vehicle accident, a 35-year-old male is agitated and has multiple cerebral contusions on CT of the head. Hemodynamic measurements show a heart rate of 85 beats/min and a mean arterial pressure (MAP) of 84 mmHg. An intracranial pressure monitor reveals a pressure of 28 mmHg. What is the most appropriate management regimen over the next few days?

A

administer mannitol

49
Q

A patient has blunt head trauma. On presentation Glasgow coma scale is 13, he is hemodynamically stable, and his pupils are equal and reactive. Two hours later his left pupil is larger and his blood pressure is
180/105 mmHg. He is tachypnic with an SPO2 of 89% on 100% oxygen. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

A

intubate and start mannitol

50
Q

A 71-year-old patient undergoes surgery for colorectal cancer. Postoperatively, the patient develops an intra-abdominal abscess. Despite antibiotic therapy, the patient has persistent fever and develops hematemesis and melena in association with a purpuric skin rash. Laboratory tests reveal 70,000 platelets/microliter, prolonged prothrombin time (PT), and decreased fibrinogen. What is the appropriate treatment for this patient’s suspected condition?

A

drain the abscess