Exam Flashcards

1
Q

a patient presents with acute obstipation, abdominal pain and distention, nausea and vomiting and they have a sx history of a laparoscopic pelvic surgery. We decided to get a plain film xray which shows an inverted “U”. what is the diagnosis?

A

small bowel obstruction

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2
Q

what is the most common cause of small bowel obstructions?

A

adhesions

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3
Q

a patient presents with acute obstipation, abdominal pain and distention, nausea and vomiting and they have a sx history of a laparoscopic pelvic surgery. We decided to get a plain film xray which shows an inverted “U”. once the patient is admitted, what is the first treatment step for this patient?

A

resuscitation with NG tube

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4
Q

a patient presents with suspicious small bowel obstruction, what would their physical exams findings be? (4)

A

distention
abdominal scar
tenderness/pain on palpation
tympanic (hyperresonance) on percussion

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5
Q

what divides the upper and lower GI tract and is the starting point when running the bowel?

A

ligament of treitz

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6
Q

you are a PA working in gastroenterology. You have a patient who presents with multiple ulcers in the stomach and duodenum. The patient currently takes lisinopril, metformin, prilosec, zantac, and tums. We decide to order a gastrin level. Which medications should the patient discontinue before taking a serum gastrin level? (3)

A

H2 blocker
PPI
antacids

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7
Q

a patient presents with tachycardia, hypotension. On plain film xray, there is free air under the diaphragm, and the patient has a history of duodenal ulcers. We suspect a perforation of a duodenal ulcer. what is the treatment?

A

surgery by graham (omental) patch

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8
Q

an older woman comes in with abdominal distention for the last 3 days. She had her ovaries removed 4 years ago. She is mildly tachycardiac, but the rest of her vitals are normal. On upright films, we see air-fluid levels. what is the diagnosis?
what is the most likely cause of this?

A

small bowel obstruction

surgical adhesions

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9
Q

an older gentleman is having progressive dysphagia. First he was unable to eat solids and now is having difficulty swallowing liquids. On barium swallow, we see narrowing of the esophagus. On EDG biopsy, we note squamous cell carcinoma and are concerned for invasion. What is the imaging test of choice to see how deep the tumor is?

A

endoscopic ultrasound

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10
Q

a young boy is riding his bike and accidentally goes over the handle bars. He comes into the trauma bay with normal vital signs and the patient seems stable, and blood work looks good. Because of the mechanism, we are concerned so we get a CT scan which shows a grade 1 splenic laceration with no active bleed. After admitting for 24 hours and doing serial abdominal exams, the patient remains hemodynamically stable. What should we do?
a) splenectomy today
b) splenectomy in 2 weeks
c) partial splenectomy
d) call IR for embolization
e) non-operative management

A

e) non-operative management

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11
Q

a trauma patient in his mid-20s had a splenectomy. We notice he left AMA and were unable to give him post-op instructions. The patient comes to the follow-up appointment. What is the most important thing we need to do before he leaves the appointment?

A

vaccines against encapsulated bacteria

Strep pneumo
H. flu
Meningococcus

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12
Q

a patient in their late 80s with dementia and non-verbal, is brought in by his daughter because he seems like he is having painful swallowing. The patient wears dentures. He will not open his mouth but appears to be hemodynamically stable, but appears to be uncomfortable swallowing. What is the diagnosis? what is the diagnostic test of choice?

A

foreign body ingestion

xray

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13
Q

a male in his mid 40s presents with right upper quadrant pain that radiates to his back. the pain comes and goes and is worse after a big meal. what is the diagnostic test of choice?

A

ultrasound

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14
Q

a male in his mid 40s presents with right upper quadrant pain that radiates to his back. the pain comes and goes and is worse after a big meal. We are concerned for choledocholithiasis so we need an ERCP. What in the patient’s history would not allow us to perform an ERCP?

A

contrast allergy

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15
Q

a young man presents in the urgent care with a testicular mass that is getting larger. the patient denies history of trauma. There is a 2cm, firm, nontender mass that does not transilluminate. What is the concern? What test should we order?

A

testicular cancer
ultrasound

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16
Q

a middle aged woman with a history of an appendectomy 2 weeks ago, presents for a post-op appointment. After reviewing pathology, the patient has a 5ml (0.5 cm) carcinoid tumor of the appendix without involvement at the margins. what is the next step?

A

none needed

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17
Q

a middle aged woman plays pickleball and comes in a day later with abdominal pain. She c/o anorexia, nausea, and right lower quadrant pain. Her WBC count is normal. She has a bulge located on the superficial part of her abdomen. When the patient tenses her rectus muscles by raising her head, the swelling becomes more tender and distinct on palpation. The US shows a mass of the abdominal wall. What is the diagnosis?

A

abdominal wall (rectus sheath) hematoma

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18
Q

which hernia passes through the deep and superficial rings (internal inguinal ring)?

A

indirect inguinal hernia

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19
Q

which hernia goes through Hesselbach’s triangle?

A

direct inguinal hernia

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20
Q

what are the 2 disease processes that originate from a patent process vaginalis?

A

hydrocele
indirect inguinal hernia

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21
Q

a young man in high school has a recurrence of a painful mass in the midline, above his gluteal folds. on exam, we see some midline pits and some protruding hair without masses, fluctuance, tenderness, or redness. what is the diagnosis? what is the next step?

A

pilonidal disease

benign conservative treatment (d/t no issues)

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22
Q

a 30 yo female presents with bloody diarrhea, abdominal discomfort. colonoscopy shows colitis in the descending colon. the gastroenterologist takes a biopsy and diagnoses the patient with Crohn’s disease. what finding on colonoscopy + biopsy would be consistent with Crohn’s disease on pathology?

A

noncaseating granulomas

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23
Q

what is the cut off for carcinoid tumor of the appendix that separates from benign and malignant?

A

< 2cm is likely benign

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24
Q

a 23 yr old presents with a spleen injury and is unstable and bleeding in his abdomen. On xray, spleen is in pieces so they did a splenectomy. In clinic 2 weeks later, what should we make sure that he has done?

A

vaccines against encapsulated bacteria

Strep pneumo
H. flu
Meningococcus

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25
Q

a patient presents with a small bowel obstruction, most likely from adhesions. the NG tube is suctioning and patient is doing better. When he came in, he had a foley and urine output over the last 10 hours is 20cc/hour, is this appropriate, low or high? what should we provide this patient with?

A

low

fluid bolus

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26
Q

a patient rectum is biopsied and the pathology shows carcinoid tumor. what are the symptoms associated with carcinoid syndrome?

A

arrhythmias
bronchospasms
hot flashes

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27
Q

a patient presents to ER with left lower quadrant pain, fever, and vomiting. their CT scan shows a thickened sigmoid colon with inflamed diverticula that is large with a 7cm fluid collection in their pelvis. Dx? what is the treatment if the patient is stable (2)?

A

complicated diverticula

antibiotics
percutaneous drain

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28
Q

a patient presents to ER with left lower quadrant pain, fever, and vomiting. their CT scan shows a thickened sigmoid colon with inflamed diverticula that is large with a 7cm fluid collection in their pelvis. they receive antibiotics and percutaneous drain. 1 month later, he is asymptomatic. what should we do for this patient?

A

colonoscopy in 6 weeks

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29
Q

a patient presents to ER with left lower quadrant pain, fever, and vomiting. their CT scan shows a thickened sigmoid colon with inflamed diverticula that is large with a 7cm fluid collection in their pelvis. they receive antibiotics and percutaneous drain. 1 month later, he is asymptomatic so we do a colonoscopy in 6 weeks, which shows 1 large diverticula in the sigmoid colon. The patient is scared it will happen again, what should we recommend?

A

refer to surgery for possible sigmoid resection

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30
Q

a patient presents with Crohn’s disease and they ask in what situation they would need an immediate colectomy?

A

acute abdomen

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31
Q

what does imaging show to indicate an acute abdomen?
what does physical exam show to indicate acute abdomen? (3)

A

free air

rigidity
rebound tenderness
guarding

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32
Q

a patient with anal cancer; poorly differentiated squamous cell carcinoma. What is the treatment?

A

radiation + chemotherapy

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33
Q

what is the best purpose of a CEA in a patient with adenocarcinoma of the colon? treatment?

A

looking for reoccurrence

surgery

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34
Q

where does a post-pyloric feeding tube go?

A

duodenum

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35
Q

what is the 2nd most common cause of small bowel obstruction?
3rd most common?

A

bowel-containing hernia
cancer

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36
Q

if a patient has had a splenectomy, they will need clotting prophylaxis. what should we put them on?

A

aspirin

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37
Q

what disease process is an ERCP typically used for?

A

choledocholithiasis

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38
Q

what is the most likely complication of an ERCP?

A

pancreatitis

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39
Q

what other imaging can be used if we want to assess a patient’s biliary tree but they have a contrast allergy?

A

MRCP

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40
Q

in general, how long should surgery be postponed after an MI?

A

> 6 months

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41
Q

fibers located in the walls and capsules; pain is slow in onset, dull, poorly localized and protracted

A

visceral pain

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42
Q

described as more acute, sharper, better localized pain sensation

A

parietal pain

43
Q

what does a tensely distended abdomen with an old surgical scar indicate?

A

adhesions; small bowel obstruction

44
Q

what does a scaphoid contracted abdomen indicate? (abdomen is sucked inwards)

A

perforated ulcer

45
Q

what does visible peristalsis indicate?

A

advanced bowel obstruction

46
Q

what does a soft doughy fullness indicate on abdominal exam? (2)

A

early paralytic ileus
mesenteric thrombosis

47
Q

what does an everted umbilicus indicate?

A

increased intra-abdominal pressure

48
Q

what should we rule out if air is not seen in the stomach and colon?

A

gastric outlet obstruction

49
Q

what imaging should we order to identify the need for early NG tube placement?

A

plain film xray

50
Q

where is air not normally seen and if present, we should rule out an ileus or obstruction?

A

small intestine

51
Q

what causes ischemia, bowel wall necrosis, and perforation?

A

strangulated bowel

52
Q

what are the 3 most common causes of a large bowel obstruction?

A

cancer
diverticular stricture
volvulus

53
Q

why should diabetic patients taking oral hypoglycemic agents like metformin hold their dose 24 hours prior to and after IV contrast?

A

IV contrast is nephrotoxic and can lead to lactic acidosis

54
Q

what is the best indicator of fluid volume status?

A

urine output

55
Q

what is the treatment for a postop patient with hyponatremia?

A

free water restriction

56
Q

what is the treatment for a postop patient whose urine output is decreased?

A

IVF bolus

57
Q

short-term feeding tube that is post pyloric (Dobhoff tube)

A

duodenal/jejunal nasoenteric tube

58
Q

placed to decompress the stomach, relieves nausea and vomiting, can be placed pre-op if patient ate within 6 hours of surgery and commonly placed in patients with ileus or obstruction

A

gastric tube (NG tube or OG tube)

59
Q

a lactating patient presents with cellulitis around her nipple. what are the 2 most likely organisms? Dx? treatment? (3)

A

staph aureus / strep

acute mastitis

antibiotics
moist heat
continue breastfeeding

60
Q

a female patient presents with a raised tender mass near her nipple. She also has a fever, chills, sweats, and leukocytosis on CBC. Dx? treatment? (3)

A

breast abscess

stop breastfeeding
admit + IV antibiotics
I&D in the OR

61
Q

what is the name of the system used to categorize patients who have done imaging of their breast?

what are the categories and numbers?

A

BI-RADS category

0 - more imaging needed
1 - negative / normal
2 - benign findings
3 - probably benign
4 - suspicious
5 - highly suggestive of malignancy
6 - biopsy proven malignancy

62
Q

resembles pulmonary edema that does not respond to diuretics and is an inflammatory reaction. Dx? treatment?

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome

mechanical ventilation

63
Q

a patient with a history of long bone/pelvic fracture presents with respiratory insufficiency, neurological changes (confusion, coma), and petechiae. Dx? treatment? (3)

A

fat embolus

positive pressure ventilation
diuretics
external fixation or ORIF

64
Q

how does a fat embolus occur?

A

fat globules from marrow migrate into pulmonary capillary bed

65
Q

what is the most common cause of c. difficile pseudomembranous colitis? what are 2 treatment options?

A

antibiotics

vancomycin or metronidazole

66
Q

the most severely damaged area in a thermal injury; the zone of coagulation where cells int he area are coagulated or necrotic and the tissue must be debrided

A

central zone

67
Q

the zone that has vasoconstriction and ischemia; the tissue is initially viable but may be converted to coagulation

A

zone of stasis

68
Q

the zone that has vasoconstriction and typically remains viable

A

zone of hyperemia

69
Q

burns that extend through the epidermis and into the papillary dermis; blistering is the hallmark

A

second degree / partial thickness

70
Q

a patient presents with a burn that is pink, moist, and painful. Dx? how does it heal?

A

superficial partial thickness (2nd degree)

heals within 2-3 weeks without scarring or functional impairment

71
Q

a patient presents with a burn that is mottled pick and white, dry, and variably painful. Dx? how does it heal?

A

deep partial thickness (2nd degree)

heals in 4-8 weeks with severe scarring and loss of function

72
Q

what is the treatment for a partial thickness burn (2nd degree) that has not healed by 3 weeks?

A

surgical excision + skin grafting

73
Q

burn that extends through the entire dermis and into the subcutaneous tissues.

A

third degree / full thickness

74
Q

a patient presents with a burn that is white/black, dry, and painless. upon palpation, the burn does not blanch with pressure. Dx? treatment?

A

full thickness burn (3rd degree)

surgical excision + grafting

75
Q

what is a complication of burns that can impair circulation? what causes it?
treatment?

A

circumferential burns / compartment syndrome

capillary leak = tourniquet effect

escharotomy

76
Q

a complication of burns is hypermetabolism. what can be used to decrease catabolism?

A

beta blocker

77
Q

what is the formula used to resuscitate a patient who has suffered severe burns?

calculate the total volume needed per hour for a patient that weights 100 pounds and TBSA is 25.

A

parkland formula

4ml (TBSA) (body weight in kg)

4ml x 25 x 45kg = 4,500 mL / 8 hr
= 563 mL/hr x 8 hours

78
Q

calculate the target urinary output for a patient that weighs 100 pounds.

A

0.5 mL/kg/hr
0.5 x 45 = 22.5 cc/hr

79
Q

an electrician presents with burns on his body and entry and exit wounds on noticed on PE. Dx? management (3)?

A

electrical injury

admit to burn unit
continuous cardiac monitoring
fluid resuscitation

80
Q

what is the first line imaging for a patient that presents with a decreased level of conciousness?

A

CT

81
Q

what is the treatment for a patient that presents with elevated intracranial pressure while they are on their way to the OR? (4)

A

elevate head of bed
elevate injured extremity
secure airway
hyperventilate if possible herniation

82
Q

at what GCS score does a patient need to be intubated?

A

GCS 8

83
Q

what is our main concern with a TBI?

A

preventing seizures

84
Q

being awake vs asleep vs comatose

A

arousal

85
Q

seeing a blue circle vs a red triangle

A

awareness

86
Q

awake and immediately responsive to stimuli

A

alert

87
Q

less alert by still responds to stimulation

A

stupor

88
Q

appears asleep but still responds to noxious stimuli

A

obtunded

89
Q

arousal without awareness

A

vegetative

90
Q

rupture of veins in the brain

A

subdural hematoma

91
Q

rupture of the middle meningeal artery and presents with a lucid interval

A

epidural hematoma

92
Q

a patient presents with pain that radiates to the back, crepitus, tachycardia, tachypnea, dyspnea, and hypotension. Dx? imaging (4)? treatment (2)?

A

spontaneous perforation of esophagus (boerhaave syndrome)

xray
esophagogram
CT
thoracentesis

broad spectrum antibiotics
surgery

93
Q

what is the most sensitive test for carcinoma of the esophagus?

A

endoscopic ultrasound

94
Q

what is the treatment for a bleeding duodenal ulcer? (2)

A

ligation of bleed + pyloroplasty

95
Q

what is the treatment for a gastrinoma AKA zollinger-ellison syndrome)?

A

surgical resection

96
Q

continuous mucosal inflammation limited to the colon that begins in the rectum and progresses proximally, without granulomas

A

ulcerative colitis

97
Q

deeply ulcerating leading to fistulas, strictures, and the ulcers look like a bear claw; with the presence of granulomas

A

crohn disease

98
Q

what does iron deficiency anemia indicate until proven otherwise?

A

colon cancer

99
Q

what is the treatment for anal cancer that is T1 or early T2 lesions?

A

wide local excision

100
Q

what is often related to infertility in men?

A

varicocele

101
Q

patient presents with extreme testicular pain with nausea, vomiting, and sweating. They have spent the last 2 days moving to their new house. on PE, there is tenderness in the inguinal canal. Dx? imaging? 2 treatment options?

A

testicular torsion

ultrasound w/ doppler

orchiopexy if viable
orchiectomy if ischemic

102
Q

what is the imaging of choice for choledocholithiasis?

A

ultrasound

103
Q

patient presents with abdominal pain and elevated serum amylase/lipase. Dx? treatment for mild and severe?

A

acute pancreatitis

lap cholecystectomy - mild
ERCP +/- endoscopic sphincterotomy - severe