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Farm Animal Nursing > Lecture Final > Flashcards

Lecture Final Flashcards

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1
Q

What type of bacteria causes Infectious Necrotic Hepatitis?

A

Clostridium novyi Type B

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2
Q

What disease is Infectious Necrotic Hepatitis secondary to?

A

Liver Flukes

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3
Q

Why is the common name for Infectious Necrotic Hepatitis referred to as Black Disease?

A

Because of the dark discoloration of the skin caused by the rupture of capillaries in the SQ tissues

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4
Q

How quickly will an animal infected with Infectious Necrotic Hepatitis die?

A

Rapidly and within 48 hours, and no clinical signs may be noted within that time frame

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5
Q

What drug can be used to treat Infectious Necrotic Hepatitis?

A

Penicillin in high parenteral doses

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6
Q

T/F: All animals are susceptible to contracting the rabies virus

A

True

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7
Q

T/F: All mammals can act as a host for the rabies virus

A

False, only mammals from the families Canidae, Mustelidae, Viverridae, and Procyonidae, and the order Chiroptera can act as reservoir hosts

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8
Q

What is true about the furious form of rabies?

A

It is more frequently seen in cats

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9
Q

What will a ruminant with paralytic form of rabies present with?

A

Separation from the herd, bellowing, and slowing or stopping of rumination

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10
Q

A 2+ grade of staining intensity in the dFa rabies test means what?

A

The diagnosis is not definitive

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11
Q

What is true regarding the treatment of rabies in domestic animals?

A

If the animal is not showing symptoms, it is appropriate to quarantine the animal for 45 days to determine whether or not they have contracted rabies

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12
Q

What species is fowl typhoid found in?

A

Poultry, most commonly chickens

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13
Q

Is fowl typhoid reportable?

A

Yes, it is reportable

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14
Q

What is the bacteria that fowl typhoid and pullorum disease are very closely related to?

A

Salmonella Gallinarum

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15
Q

Is fowl typhoid zoonotic?

A

No, it is not zoonotic

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16
Q

What is the best way to diagnose fowl typhoid?

A

Identification of which clutch an infected bird belongs to can give the farmer or doctor a better idea as to which birds may develop or are showing signs of this disease. It is said that stereotyping is also used as well to diagnose any possible carriers of this disease

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17
Q

Which species of animal does Mycoplasma bacterium infect?

A

Avian

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18
Q

What clinical sign is the most common amount the strains of Mycoplasma that can affect poultry?

A

Airsacculittis

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19
Q

What is the best prevention technique for Mycoplasma bacterium?

A

Biosecurity

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20
Q

Is Mycoplasma bacterium zoonotic?

A

Yes

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21
Q

Can an outbreak of Mycoplasma bacterium negatively affect the overall farming industry?

A

Yes

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22
Q

How long can a mange mite survive in its host animal?

A

Its entire life cycle

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23
Q

What is another word for leather, thickening of the skin often seen in mange?

A

Lichenification

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24
Q

How long should a new animal be kept isolated to rule out suspected mange?

A

10 days

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25
Q

Why is vat dipping not been being used to treat mange as much now?

A

It is too expensive and very difficult for the rancher to monitor the concentrations of the medicines in the vats

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26
Q

When should farmers be treating preventably for mange mites?

A

In late autumn every year

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27
Q

What causes Hemophilus parasuis in swine?

A

Glassers disease

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28
Q

Who is most likely to develop Hemophilus parasuis?

A

Piglets

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29
Q

What is the inflammatory response of Hemophilus parasuis?

A

Pericarditis

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30
Q

Is Hemophilus parasuis zoonotic?

A

No

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31
Q

How is Hemophilus parasuis confirmed?

A

By clinical signs, post mortem by doing a culture of organisms

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32
Q

T/F: BG agar is a highly selective streaking medium used to isolate salmonella

A

True

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33
Q

What are the 2 most common strains of salmonella affecting pigs?

A

S choleraesuis and S typhimurium

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34
Q

How are live vaccines administered to prevent salmonella infection?

A

Oral or intranasal

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35
Q

What color will salmonella appear when streaked on MacConkey agar and BG agar tests?

A

MacConkey will appear white, BG will appear pink

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36
Q

What is the mode of transmission of equine HYPP?

A

It is a genetic disease and it can only be passed from breeding a horse that carries the gene

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37
Q

What are the 3 main adjustments for a horse with HYPP?

A

Avoid high potassium foods, increase meals, and exercise the horse daily

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38
Q

How is a horse treated for HYPP?

A

Acetazolamide and hydrochlorthiazide

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39
Q

What does HYPP affect?

A

Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis is a disease affecting the muscles

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40
Q

How can if be prevented from future generations?

A

By not breeding animals affected by it or carrying the genes

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41
Q

T/F: Equine influenza is not contagious

A

False, it is highly contagious

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42
Q

Where does equine influenza multiply?

A

In the upper respiratory tract

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43
Q

T/F: Sneezing is a clinical sign of equine influenza

A

False

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44
Q

What is the best method of recovery for equine influenza?

A

Avoid strain their bodies since they need to regenerate the epithelium cells in the respiratory tract

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45
Q

Is equine influenza reportable?

A

Yes

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46
Q

What bacteria cause enterotoxemia?

A

Clostridium perfringens types C and D

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47
Q

What triggers the bacteria in enterotoxemia?

A

A change in the animal’s diet, most commonly, an increase in the amount of grain, protein supplement, milk or milk replacer, and/or grass that the sheep or goat is eating

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48
Q

What is a common sign of enterotoxemia?

A

A loss of appetite, the animal may become lethargic; abdominal pain, shown by kicking at their belly, arching the back, laying down and getting up repeatedly, laying on their sides, panting and crying out; diarrhea, blood may be visible in stool

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49
Q

Is antacid a viable treatment for enterotoxemia?

A

Yes, it can help

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50
Q

What is the name of the main bacteria that causes Foot Rot?

A

Fusobacterium necrophorum

51
Q

What is the dose for Foot Rot per body weight for LA-200, Biomycin 200, and Oxycure 200?

A

4.5 cc per 100lbs of body weight

52
Q

What is another name for Foot Rot?

A

Infectious pododermatitis

53
Q

Where does Foot Rot effect on bovine?

A

The interdigital skin between the two toes

54
Q

How much Zinc Methionine should be fed to cattle every day to help prevent Foot Rot?

A

5.4gm of zinc methionine

55
Q

Is it mandatory to euthanize any animal infected with bovine Tuberculosis?

A

Yes

56
Q

What is the most common way of bovine Tuberculosis to spread?

A

Inhalation of infected droplets

57
Q

T/F: Tuberculosis is unable to infect any animal other than bovines

A

False

58
Q

T/F: Tuberculin is used as a way to vaccinate animals infected with TB

A

False

59
Q

T/F: Animals that are labeled as “reactors” on the Tuberculin test are not always guaranteed to host the organism

A

True

60
Q

Has bovine TB been completely eradicated in the USA?

A

No, California and Michigan still have cases

61
Q

T/F: Bovine TB is easily transmissible to humans through eating infected meat

A

False

62
Q

T/F: Bovine TB was once the most expensive and destructive infectious disease to cattle in the US.

A

True

63
Q

What two types of herpesvirus are Rhinopneumonitis?

A

EHV-1 and EHV-2

64
Q

Which herpesvirus is associated with neurological clinical signs of Rhinopneumonitis?

A

EHV-1

65
Q

How long is the incubation period of Rhinopneumonitis?

A

2-10 days

66
Q

How long is it suggested to quarantine returning or new animals to prevent possible exposure of Rhinopneumonitis to the herd?

A

21 days

67
Q

Which herpesvirus of Rhinopneumonitis can cause abortion for a pregnant mare?

A

EHV-1

68
Q

Is there a definite cure to navicular syndrome in horses?

A

No cure, but being “barefoot” can benefit a horse, corrective shoeing may help treat navicular syndrome

69
Q

What can you see on the navicular bone when taking X-rays that will lead you to think it can be navicular syndrome?

A

Holes that are lolli-popped shaped

70
Q

Do the fore limbs or hind limbs of a horse carry more weight?

A

The fore limbs

71
Q

What does the navicular bone look like?

A

A canoe

72
Q

What can we use to treat Babesiosis?

A

Quinuronium sulfate SQ

73
Q

What is the most common clinical sign of a complicated infection of Babesiosis?

A

Renal failure

74
Q

T/F: Susceptibility of Babesiosis depends on the breed of animal

A

True

75
Q

What is the best way to prevent Babesiosis?

A

Flea and tick prevention

76
Q

Does colic affect young foals?

A

Colic can affect any horse, at any age, at any time

77
Q

What is the purpose of parasite control in equine?

A

To prevent horses from attaining very high parasite problems that can ultimately causes colic, diarrhea and weight loss

78
Q

Is there only one type of colic?

A

No there are several types of colic

79
Q

Is equine colic zoonotic and/or reportable?

A

No equine colic is not zoonotic and is not reportable

80
Q

T/F: Colic is a disorder of the urinary tract

A

False, colic is a disorder of the GI tract

81
Q

T/F: EIA is not a reportable disease

A

False

82
Q

T/F: The ELISA test is more accurate than the AGID/Coggins test when it comes to testing for EIA

A

False, the ELISA test can detect antibodies earlier than the AGID/Coggins test, but false positives may occur

83
Q

T/F: The acute form of EIA has a higher mortality rate than the chronic form of EIA, but no matter what they will always be a carrier

A

True

84
Q

What is the best way to prevent EIA?

A

Test any equine before bringing them to a farm, clean and sterilize all equipment properly, spray insect control, and keep positive animals at least 200 yards from all other animals

85
Q

How is avian Chlamydiosis transmitted?

A

Through both mucus and feces

86
Q

Is chlamydiosis zoonotic?

A

Yes

87
Q

Is there a treatment for avian chlamydiosis?

A

Doxycycline, chlortetracycline (medicated feed) or oxytetracycline

88
Q

What kind of animals are primarily at risk for chlamydiosis?

A

Birds

89
Q

What is the minimum amount of days for an animal infected with chlamydiosis to receive medication?

A

45 days

90
Q

What mammals are mainly effected by leptospirosis?

A

Dogs and cows

91
Q

T/F: Leptospirosis is zoonotic

A

Yes

92
Q

Who are the main carriers or leptospirosis?

A

Rodents

93
Q

T/F: Leptospirosis is easily treated

A

False

94
Q

What is the most common vaccine used for Marek’s disease?

A

HTV

95
Q

What are some key signs when diagnosing Marek’s disease?

A

Tumors in the heart, ovaries, lungs, and liver

96
Q

How is Marek’s disease transmitted?

A

Inhalation of dander

97
Q

T/F: There are 4 types of clinical signs and 3 strains of Marek’s disease

A

False

98
Q

At what age should chicks be vaccinated for Marek’s disease?

A

In the first 12-36 hours of life

99
Q

What species is not susceptible to foot and mouth disease?

A

Equine

100
Q

The vesicles of foot and mouth disease:

A

Can occur on the prepuce or vulva of an infected animal

101
Q

T/F: Because foot and mouth disease is very zoonotic and devastating to the human population, it is considered a reportable disease

A

False, it is not zoonotic, but it is reportable because it spreads very quickly

102
Q

Foot and mouth disease is transmitted by what?

A

Inhalation of airborne virus, ingestion of contaminated feed, or direct contact with mucous membranes of an infected animal

103
Q

How is equine west nile virus transmitted?

A

Mosquitoes are vectors, birds are reservoirs

104
Q

T/F: Lack of coordination is a clinical sign of equine west nile virus

A

True

105
Q

How can equine west nile virus be treated?

A

With supportive care

106
Q

Is there a vaccine for equine west nile virus?

A

Yes, West Nile Innovator

107
Q

T/F: Humans can pass West Nile virus on to horses and vice versa

A

False, humans and horses are dead end hosts

108
Q

What is the name of the bacteria that causes anthrax?

A

Bacillus anthracis

109
Q

What is the name of the French scientist who created the first live bacterial vaccine?

A

Louis Pasteur

110
Q

What kind of animals does anthrax mostly affect?

A

Herbivores such as cattle, sheep, goats, and horses.

111
Q

What causes the anthrax bacteria to turn into spores?

A

Appropriate conditions

112
Q

What is the antibiotic of choice when treating anthrax?

A

Long acting penicillin is the antibiotic of choice, and tetracyclines may also be used

113
Q

What are the clinical signs of tetanus?

A

Muscle rigidity, stiffness, lockjaw, erect ears, recumbent, muscle spasm

114
Q

What is the bacterium of tetanus?

A

Clostridium tetani

115
Q

What is localized tetanus vs generalized tetanus?

A

Localized tetanus is local stiffness usually in the neck, hind legs, and in regions of the infection; generalized tetanus is closer to the CNS, lockjaw, muscle stiffness, might be still with no movement

116
Q

Is tetanus reportable?

A

Yes in the equine to the CDC

117
Q

What is the difference in ascending tetanus and descending tetanus?

A

In ascending tetanus, muscle spams occur in the lower part of the body and then upward toward the head and neck; Descending tetanus is muscle spams that occur in the head and neck 1st, and then down backwards towards other muscles

118
Q

T/F: Blackleg is contagious throughout the herd

A

False

119
Q

How is blackleg spread?

A

Through the soil

120
Q

When will an animal start showing signs of paratuberculosis?

A

Stage II

121
Q

How is paratuberculosis transmitted?

A

Ingestion of contaminated feces, colostrum or milk

122
Q

Is paratuberculosis treatable?

A

No known treatment, but it is preventable

123
Q

Is paratuberculosis zoonotic?

A

No, however, the organism that causes Johne’s disease (M. paratuberculosis) has been found on occasions in patients with Crohn’s disease.

Farm Animal Nursing (2 decks)

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