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Agriculture (Zach's) > Lecture Final > Flashcards

Lecture Final Flashcards

0
Q

Why is the incidences of food poisoning increasing today even though there is more sterile techniques?

A

More reported cases, stronger bacteria

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1
Q

What is the infective dose?

A

The number if bacteria required to cause an illness

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4
Q

What is the term for inflammation of the stomach, small intestines, or large intestines?

A

Gastroenteritis

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5
Q

What is one ya to treat E. Coli?

A

Clostridium difficile

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7
Q

What is a differential medium?

A

Allows all growth but causes a color changes where target bacteria is present

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9
Q

What is a selective medium?

A

Only allows the growth of a specific strain of organisms

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10
Q

What are the properties of MSA (mannitol salt agar)?

A

Selective and differential medium
Salt only allows halophiles to grow
Some use them manninol to produce acid-changes pH

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11
Q

What strain of E. Coli can cause kidney failure in small children?

A

E. Coli 0157:H7

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12
Q

What does HAACP do?

A

Increases food safety in production lines by aiming to prevent contamination rather than detect contamination

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13
Q

Bacteria is ubiquitous, true or false?1

A

True, it can never be completely eliminated

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14
Q

What does HACCP stand for?

A

Hazard analysis critical control points

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16
Q

What is the effective dose of E. Coli 0157:H7?

A

50 organisms

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17
Q

When was the sanitary revolution?

A

Early 1900s

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18
Q

What are the two types of medium used to identify the presence of a specific pathogen?

A

Selective medium, and differential medium

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19
Q

What are steps that are crucial to food safety?

A

Critical control points

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20
Q

What are critical control points?

A

Steps that are crucial to food safety

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21
Q

What is a DNA probe

A

Short strands of DNA that are complementary to the genes present in the microbe

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22
Q

What is hybridization?

A

The annealing of complementary strands

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23
Q

What must be done before probes are added

A

Microbe cells must be lysed to release their DNA

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24
Q

What is the gene track system used for?

A

Detecting pathogens in food samples

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25
Q

How long does do gene trak system take to compete?

A

24-48 hours

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26
Q

What does NaOH do?

A

Separates the DNA from two strands into one (like helicase)

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27
Q

What is done after probes are added?

A

A dipstick with a poly T sequence is added

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28
Q

What does the poly T sequence do if bacteria is present?

A

Removes DNA strands that have hybridized to both probes

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29
Q

What does the ploy T sequence do if no bacteria is present?

A

Captures unhybridized probes

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30
Q

What are the advantages to the Gene Trak System?

A

Very specific and reduces The time requires for microbe identification

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31
Q

What are there disadvantages to Th Gene Trak System?

A

Requires a lot of time for enrichment and can provide false positives

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32
Q

What does real time PCR do?

A

Combines amplification and probing in one process.

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33
Q

What does the quencher flourophone do .

A

Reduces flouroscence from the reporter when the two are in close proximity

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34
Q

What are the two types of flouroscence molecules attached to e probes in TaqMan PCR?

A

Quencher and reporter

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35
Q

What are the problems with PCR?

A

Does not distinguish between live an d dead cells

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36
Q

What does a microarray do?

A

A technique that allows for the simultaneous detection of expression of thousands of gene

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37
Q

What is cDNA and how is it made?

A

DNA with the introns- copied directly from mRNA

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38
Q

How are antibodies produced?

A

By the immune system

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39
Q

What does IgG stand for?

A

Immoglobulin

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40
Q

What are antibodies that are obtained from different B cells

A

Polyclonal antibodies

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41
Q

What are antibodies produced from a cloned hybrid cell?

A

Monoclonal antibodies

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42
Q

What is a hybridoma?

A

A B cell fused with a myeloma cell

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43
Q

What happens to the B cells which remain unfused?

A

They die

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44
Q

The rate of ________________ affects whether or not transcription is completed.

A

The rate of translation affects whether or not transcription is completed.

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45
Q

What are there three levels of regulation of amino acid production in E. coli?

A
  1. Regulation of enzyme activity through feedback inhibition
  2. Regulation of transcription
  3. Attenuation
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46
Q

When does attenuation regulate?

A

During transcription

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47
Q

How many regions does the mRNA transcript contain?

A

4

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48
Q

What happened if the ribosome incorporates trp at section 1 quickly, what happens?

A

Sections 3 and 4 form a loop and stop transcription

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49
Q

What happens if the ribosome stalls at section 1?

A

Section 3 will bind with section 2 and allow transcription to complete

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50
Q

Why can’t LAB be be transformed with a pUC plasmid .

A
  1. Because in the pUC plasmid the ampicillin gene cannot be removed and is growing continually in the presence of the ampR gene. This is not allowed by the FDA
  2. We do not want an ori site
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51
Q

What are stereoisomers?

A

Molecules that have the same molecular formula and sequence of bonded atoms, but differ in their 3D orientation of atoms.

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52
Q

What happens if an excess of proline is present?

A

Transcription will shut off

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53
Q

What are some reasons for the overproduction of amino acids?

A
  1. Flavor enhancers
  2. Supplements
  3. Sweeteners
  4. Parenteral nutrition
  5. Industry uses
  6. Pharmaceuticals
54
Q

Why don’t researchers synthetically create amino acids?

A

Stereoisomers

55
Q

Why don’t microbes produce excess amounts of amino acids?

A

Waste of energy

56
Q

what is substantial equvalence?

A

d

57
Q

What is the ci region on the pEM76:ci plasmid?

A

Is it is the gene we are targeting

58
Q

What does attenuation do?

A

Controls the rate translation and can either slow it down or speed it up depending on the amount of tRNA

59
Q

What color does S. Marcescens turn on agar?

A

Red

60
Q

How does S. Marsescens regulate amino acid production?

A

Feedback inhibition

61
Q

Why does E. Coli need three levels of regulation while S. Marsescens only uses one?

A
  1. Where they grow

2. Environments each must adapt to

62
Q

What are osmoprotectants?

A

Small molecules that help organisms survive extreme osmotic stress

63
Q

Why is S. Marsescens grown in the presence of high salt concentrations?

A

To make the bacteria produce excess proline in reeder to avoid dehydration

64
Q

What is an isotonic solution?

A

Equal pressure

65
Q

What is an hypotonic solution?

A

Higher pressure outside than inside. Water moves into the cell

66
Q

What is hydroponic solutions?

A

Higher pressure inside the cell than outside. Water moves out of the cell

67
Q

What do the bacteria cells do under conditions of low oxygen?

A

Produce more glut amine

68
Q

What type of cycle do many bacteria use under aerobic conditions?

A

TCA cycle

69
Q

No is aspartame produced?

A

Fumarate + ammonia + asparate =asparate

70
Q

why are the benefits to making aspartate chemically?

A
  1. Fumarate and ammonia are cheap
  2. Purification of aspartate is easy
  3. No growth media
71
Q

What’s are osmoprotectants and how do thy work?

A

Overproduce an amino acid in order to equal out osmotic pressure in and out of cell to prevent dehydration

72
Q

What conditions are required to overproduce glutamine from C. Glutamicium

A

Low oxygen and low biotin levels while growing colony on molasses

73
Q

what is epigenetics?

A

the study of changes in phenotypes or gene expression caused by factors other than the DNA

74
Q

what is genetic imprinting?

A

the genetic phenomenon in which certain genes are expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner

75
Q

what is maternal imprinting?

A

the gene from the mom is inactive

76
Q

what is paternal imprinting?

A

the gene derived from the dad is inactive

77
Q

if is gene is only expressed if inherited from the father, the gene is ___________________

A

if is gene is only expressed if inherited from the father, the gene is maternally imprinted

78
Q

what is monoallelic inheritance?

A

when genes are expressed as if there is only one copy of the gene present even though there are two

79
Q

what does DNA methylation do?

A

adds a methyl group to the DNA and reduces gene expression

80
Q

ICR stands for…

A

imprinting coding region

81
Q

what does the ICR site do?

A

its the binding site for a protein which inhibits imprinting

82
Q

what is the protein which binds to the ICR site?

A

CTCF

83
Q

what happens when CTFC binds to the ICR site in maternal germ cells?

A

it blocks igf2 leaving H19 on

84
Q

what happens when CTFC binds to the ICR site in paternal germ cells?

A

CTFC cannot bind to the ICR site in paternal germ cells

85
Q

what happens to the ICR site in males?

A

it becomes methylated, inhibiting CTFC from binding

86
Q

what does the methylation of the ICR site do to the igf2 and H19 sites?

A

igf2 is on, H19 is off

87
Q

what was the difference between the yellow and brown mice in the example?

A

In yellow mice, the agouti gene is unmethylated and turn on all the time. In brown mice, the agouti gene in completely methylated and shut down.

88
Q

how did the amount of BPA fed to a pregnant mouse relate to the offspring?

A

higher increase of yellow mice, DNA methylation was decreased resulting in high health risks.

89
Q

what is heterochromation?

A

domains of the chromosome that are bundled to be highly condensed. No expression

90
Q

what is euchromatin?

A

domains of the chromosomes that are less condesned. Expression.

91
Q

what is genetic silencing?

A

a process which genes are turned off due to a position effect that depends on the neighborhood in which the gene is located

92
Q

what is position effect variegation (PEV)?

A

when heterochromatin from the centromere region spreads into the euchromatin region and silences the white eyed gene

93
Q

how are calico cats made?

A

through dosage compensation

94
Q

what is the term used to describe inactive chromosomes?

A

Barr body

95
Q

what is a Barr body?

A

inactive chromosomes

96
Q

how is dosage compensation achieved in mammals?

A

through X-inactivation

97
Q

What can protect bacterial DNA from restriction enzymes?

A

methylation

98
Q

What are starter cultures of LAB used for?

A

inoculating milk

99
Q

What do calcium chelators do?

A

suppress the growth of bacteriophages

100
Q

What are starter cultures sometimes grown in the presence of to prevent the growth of pages?

A

calcium chelators

101
Q

what are three methods used to prevent the growth of phages?

A

Phage resistant strains of LAB Phage inhibitory media Recombinant LAB

102
Q

How Is there ampicillin resistance gene removed for the pEM76:cl plasmid?

A

the B-recombinase gene from PEM68

103
Q

what region is the pEM76:cI plasmid missing and why?

A

The original site because it is being inserted into a chromosome and we do not want this plasmid to replicate independently.

104
Q

what are the main differences between the PBR322R plasmid and pUC plasmid?

A

pUC has better ori site pUC has MCS site instead of BamH1 pUC has lac-z gene instead of tetracycline gene

105
Q

what does BIM stand for?

A

Bacteriophage-insensitive mutants

106
Q

what percentage of our DNA is actually coding?

A

less than 5%

107
Q

what are transposable elements (TEs)?

A

sequences of DNA that move from one location in the genome to another

108
Q

who discovered transposons?

A

Barbara McClintock

109
Q

what were the two factors that McClintock noticed in Indian corn?

A

the Ds region and Ac region

110
Q

what are autonomous elements?

A

segments that require no other elements for their mobility

111
Q

what are non-autonomous elements?

A

segments of DNA that do not encode the functions necessary for their own movement

112
Q

what causes spotted kernels in corn?

A

autonomous regions, or non-autonomous regions with with an activator

113
Q

what does transposase do?

A

allows non-autonomous sequences to move. It is the activator.

114
Q

what’s a composite transposon?

A

they contain a variety of genes that reside between two nearly identical IS sequences that are orientated in opposite direction

115
Q

what is an insertion sequence (IS)?

A

segments of bacteria DNA that can move from one position on a chromosome to a different position on the same chromosome or a different chromosome.

116
Q

what are simple transposons?

A

regions that contain several genes which are flanked by IR sequences.

117
Q

what are the two mechanisms of transposons?

A

replicative-makes a copy and stays sending the copy elsewhere
conservative-transposon completely moves from one site to another

118
Q

what are the two classes of transposons in eukaryotes?

A

tetrotransposons, and DNA transposons

119
Q

what are the three genes of retroviruses?

A

gag, pol, and env

120
Q

what is hybrid dysgenesis?

A

refers to the high rate of mutation in germ cells when wild type males are mated with laboratory strain females

121
Q

m strain females + p strain males = ?

A

sterile flies with frequent mutations

122
Q

p strain females + m strain males = ?

A

normal flies

123
Q

what is a C-value?

A

the amount of DNA content in a genome

124
Q

what are the two transposons in humans?

A

1) long interspread elements (LINES’s)-move like a retrotransposon
2) short interspersed elements (SINE’s)-non-autonomous LINE’s that do not encode a reverse transcriptase

Agriculture (Zach's) (2 decks)

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