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Micro > Lecture Exam 2 > Flashcards

Lecture Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Prokaryotic Cell

A

Simple structure
No organelles, No nucleus
DNA is in cell wall
Peptidoglycan in cell wall
Diameter Size <1-5m
Reproduce process: Binary fission

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2
Q

Eukaryotic Cell

A

Complex structure
Many organelles
DNA inside nucleus
No Peptidoglycan
Diameter size 10-100m
Reproduce process: Mitosis

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3
Q

The cell wall of a bacterial cell is

A

Complex and semirigid

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4
Q

The 3 major groups of bacteria:

A

Gram-positive bacteria, Gram-negative bacteria, and Mycoplasmas

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5
Q

How do the 3 major groups of bacteria differ?

A

The structure of their cell walls

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6
Q

Gram-negative bacteria has the most complex wall structure

A
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7
Q

The cell wall of gram-negative bacteria is composed of

A

An OUTER MEMBRANE component and a THIN layer of peptidoglycan molecule.

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8
Q

The outer membrane is a bilayer composed of an outer layer and an inner layer.

A

Outer layer consists of: LPS, phospholipids, and membrane protein molecules
Inner layer consists of: phospholipid and membrane protein molecules

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9
Q

Each phospholipid molecule has a

A

Hydrophilic HEAD and 2 hydrophobic tails

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10
Q

The liquid portion of the LPS molecule

A

Lipid A

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11
Q

Endotoxin

A

LPS

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12
Q

Bacterial toxin

A

Endotoxin

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13
Q

Connects the outer membrane to the layer of peptidoglycan molecules

A

Lipoprotein molecule

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14
Q

The cell wall of gram positive consists of

A

A THICK layer of peptidoglycan molecules
NO outer membrane component

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15
Q

Mycoplasmas

A

DO NOT contain a cell wall

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16
Q

Mycoplasmas shapes:

A

are irregular or undefined due to lack of cell wall

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17
Q

Bacteria Mycoplasmas pneumoniae causes

A

Atypical pneumonia (pneumonia without its typical clinical symptoms

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18
Q

Why are mycoplasmas considered the third group of bacteria?

A

Because the lack of cell wall

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19
Q

Why do mycoplasmas stain PINK at the end of Gram-staining even though they are Gram-Positive?

A

The lack of cell wall makes it difficult for them to retain the purple crystal violet dye. The CV-I complex can be easily washed out of the cell after alcohol wash during the Gram Staining.

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20
Q

What are the functions of a bacterial cell wall?

A

Protection, Cell shape, Turgor pressure

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21
Q

What are the major cell shapes of bacteria?

A

Coccus, bacillus, and spiral shape (vibrio, spirillum, or spirochete)

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22
Q

What is turgor pressure?

A

aka osmotic pressure (water pressure inside a cell)

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23
Q

Cytoplasmic membrane (Plasma membrane)

A

The membrane that encloses the cytoplasm (the interior of the cell).

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24
Q

What is the function of the cytoplasmic membrane?

A

To regulate what comes in and out of the cell

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25
Q

Selective permeability

A

Specific and selective

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26
Q

What is the structure of cytoplasmic membrane?

A

A bilayer of phospholipid molecules with membrane proteins in between.

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27
Q

A fluid-filled space found between the outer membrane component and the cytoplasmic membrane.

A

Periplasm

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28
Q

Periplasm is ONLY found in

A

Gram-negative bacteria

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29
Q

What are the bacteria appendages?

A

Fimbriae, pili and flagella

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30
Q

Sit on the ends of the cell or are evenly distributed
Shorter, straighter and thinner than flagella

A

Fimbriae

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31
Q

Longer than fimbriae

A

Pili

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32
Q

Protein molecules that make up Fimbriae and Pili

A

Pilins

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33
Q

Joining two bacterial cells

A

Sex pili

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34
Q

Functions of Fimbriae and pili

A

For attachment purpose

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35
Q

Functions of Flagella

A

For locomotive purposes

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36
Q

Single flagellum at one end

A

Monotrichous

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37
Q

One or more flagella at both ends of cell

A

Amphitrichous

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38
Q

Many flagella at one end of cell

A

Lophotrichous

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39
Q

Flagella all over the surface of a cell

A

Peritrichous

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40
Q

A slippery mucoid substance that forms the outermost layer

A

Glycocalyx

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41
Q

Organized and firmly attached

A

Capsule

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42
Q

Unorganized and loosely attached

A

Slime layer

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43
Q

Function of a capsule

A

Protection of drying out and protection from phagocytosis

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44
Q

Forms inside the cell when environmental conditions are not favorable for growth

A

Endospore

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45
Q

Can be released to outside once formed

A

Endospore

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46
Q

Belonging to bacterial special genus Clostridium and genus Bacillus

A

Endospore

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47
Q

Do not form endospores

A

Vegetative cells

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48
Q

Formed by the process of sporulation

A

Endospore

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49
Q

The differences between endospores and spores tbc

A

Endospores are dormant, resting, and non-growing structures formed by certain bacterial species when environmental conditions are not favorable for growth. When conditions become favorable the endospores will germinate to form actively growing vegetative cells. Endospores are infectious and cause disease.

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50
Q

Staining

A

Coloring

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51
Q

Why do we need to stain microorganisms?

A

Because most microbes are colorless, and we use brightfield microscope in out lab to observe microbes. A stain must be used in order to create a light dark contrast between the background and the microbial specimen.

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52
Q

What are stains?

A

Stains are dye-molecules that bind to microbial cells or microbial cellular structures.

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53
Q

Stains are chemical salts

A

composed of a positively charged ion and a negatively charged ion. One of the two is responsible for the actual color in the dye.

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54
Q

Chromophore

A

The colored portion of a stain.
Could be negative or positive.

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55
Q

When color is in the positive ions

A

basic dye

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56
Q

when color is in the negative ions

A

acidic dye

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57
Q

Bacterial cells are

A

negatively charged and pH7

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58
Q

How does the basic dyes work?

A

Basic dyes are attached to the negatively charged bacteria and binds to the surface due to opposite electrical charges

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59
Q

How does the acidic dyes work?

A

Two negatives repel each other, therefore, the acidic dye stains the background.

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60
Q

Procedure for basic staining

A
  1. Prepare a microbial smear on a microscope slide
  2. Fix it
  3. Apply the stain
  4. Rinse with tap water
  5. Blot dry
  6. Observe
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61
Q

Why do we need to fix the microbes before staining?

A

Fixing is to kill the microbes and to attach them to the slide.

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62
Q

How do we fix the microorganisms?

A

By using heat provided by bacti-cinerator

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63
Q

What are the staining techniques?

A

Simple, Differential, and Special

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64
Q

What is the purpose of simple staining?

A

To highlight the entire microorganism so the cell shape and basic structures are visible.

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65
Q

What are the 2 most frequently used differential staining techniques?

A

Gram staining and Acid-fast staining

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66
Q

What does the Gram staining technique do?

A

It differentiates gram-positive bacteria from gram-negative bacteria

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67
Q

Gram staining procedure

A
  1. Apply Crystal violet to Heat fixed bacteria smear
  2. Rinse
  3. Cover with iodine
  4. Rinse
  5. Wash with alcohol
  6. Rinse
  7. Apply safranin
  8. Rinse
  9. Blot dry
  10. Observe
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68
Q

A stain that will stain ALL microbes the SAME color

A

Primary dye

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69
Q

What is a mordant?

A

a color intensifier

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70
Q

What is an example of a mordant?

A

Iodine

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71
Q

What is an example of a decolorizing agent?

A

Alcohol

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72
Q

A secondary stain is

A

also known as a counterstain

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73
Q

At the end of Gram-staining,

A

Gram-Positive bacteria RETAIN the primary dye. Gram-Negative RETAINS the counterstain. Gram-negative stays PURPLE. Gram-positive is not PINK

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74
Q

What is the concept behind Gram-Staining?

A

The results are dependent upon the structure of the cell wall of the bacteria.

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75
Q

How does acid-fast staining work?

A

Acid-fast bacteria can RETAIN the carbolfuchsin (red primary stain) in their waxy cell walls. Non-acid fast bacteria appears blue after alcohol wash and being stained with counterstain methylene blue.

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76
Q

What are examples of acid-fast bacteria?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium leprae

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77
Q

What is the purpose of special staining?

A

To color, detect, and demonstrate the presence of various structures in bacteria like capsule, endospore, and flagella.

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78
Q

How do we stain capsule itself?

A

We use a technique called negative staining

79
Q

Negative staining procedure:

A
  1. Use a basic dye to stain the bacterial cell itself.
  2. Then use an acidic dye to stain the background.
80
Q

What is microbial growth?

A

An increase in the numbers of a microbial cell

81
Q

What is media?

A

The nutrients

82
Q

What is Culture?

A

When microbes grow in the presence of nutrients

83
Q

What are the requirements for the medium?

A
  1. Must provide an energy source
  2. Must be sterile
84
Q

How many forms can medium come in?

A

2; solid and liquid

85
Q

What is a broth?

A

a liquid form of medium

86
Q

How can a medium come if in solid form?

A

as a deep or slant in a test tube or a petri dish

87
Q

What is agar?

A

A polysaccharide (a polymer of sugar molecules)

88
Q

Agar itself is a

A

solidifying agent

89
Q

What are the advantages of using agar medium?

A
  1. Microorganisms do not break down the structure of agar.
  2. It is easier to observe microbial growth, as colonies.
  3. Provides an increased surface area for microbial growth
90
Q

What is a colony?

A

a visible mass of microbial cell growth belonging to a single microbial species

90
Q

What does fastidious bacteria require?

A

Special culturing conditions such as longer incubation time, special media requirements, or anaerobic environment.

91
Q

What are the 4 types of media?

A

Complex, Enriched, Selective, and Differential

92
Q

What is the purpose of using complex media?

A

For cultivating bacterial sample collected from the environment or culturing bacteria in a lab on a regular basis.

93
Q

What are examples of complex media?

A

Nutrient broth, nutrient agar and tsa, or tryptic soy broth

94
Q

What is the purpose for using enriched media?

A

For cultivation of pathogenic bacteria from human clinical samples such as urine, blood, sputum, nose sample etc.

95
Q

Why use enriched media to cultivate human clinical samples?

A

Enriched medium is used to encourage the growth of a particular microbial species of interest from a mixed population.

96
Q

What is an example of enriched media?

A

Blood agar

97
Q

What are the chemical components of blood agar?

A

5-10% animal blood

98
Q

What is the purpose of using selective media?

A

To select for a particular type of bacteria or microorganism due to its chemical ingredients.

99
Q

What are examples of selective media?

A

Sabouraud dextrose agar

100
Q

What are the chemical components in Sabouraud dextrose agar?

A

acidic pH and antibiotics

101
Q

MacConkey agar selects for which bacteria using which chemicals?

A

Gram-negative bacteria;
Bile salt and crystal violet

102
Q

What is an example of gram-negative bacteria?

A

E.coli

103
Q

What is an example of gram-positive bacteria?

A

Staphylococcus

104
Q

What does EMB agar select for and using which chemical components?

A

Gram-negative bacteria;
Eosin and methylene blue

105
Q

What does HE agar select for and which chemicals does it contain?

A

Gram-negative bacteria;
Bile salt

106
Q

MacConkey agar, EMB agar and HE agar all 3

A

Selects for Gram-Negative bacteria first then Differentiates among them based on lactose fermentation or not.

107
Q

Blood agar differentiates bacteria based on

A

hemolyzation of red blood cells or not.

108
Q

What color does lactose-fermenting bacteria turn on MacConkey agar and why?

A

Pink;
Because MacConkey agar contains a pH indicator called Neutral Red. Neutral red is colorless and neutral pH and turns PINK at acidic pH.
Lactose fermenting gram-negative bacteria are able to ferment sugar lactose and produce lactic acid which turns neutral red pink.

109
Q

HE agar can also differentiate

A

genus Salmonella from genus Shigella

110
Q

How can HE agar differentiate bacteria belonging to genus Salmonella from bacteria belonging to genus Shigella?

A

Based on sulfur to sulfide conversion

111
Q

What are examples of lactose-fermenting gram-negative bacteria?

A

E.coli and genus Klebsiella

112
Q

What are examples of non lactose-fermenting gram-negative bacteria?

A

genus Salmonella, Proteus and Shigella

113
Q

What is alpha-hemolysis?

A

The partial breakdown of rbc

114
Q

Name an example of an alpha-hemolytic bacteria

A

Streptococcus pneumonia

115
Q

What is beta-hemolysis?

A

The complete breakdown of rbc

116
Q

Name an example of a beta-hemolytic bacteria

A

Staphylococcus aureus

117
Q

What is gamma-hemolysis?

A

No breakdown of rbc

118
Q

What is an example of gamma-hemolysis bacteria?

A

Staphylococcus epidermis

119
Q

What is metabolism?

A

The sum of all chemical reactions

120
Q

What does Catabolic reactions do? (Energy-yielding)

A

Releases energy by breaking down complex organic molecules into simple ones

121
Q

Examples of Catabolic Reaction

A

Starch (a complex carb) —-> Glucose (a simple carb) + energy released
Protein (a complex molecule) —> Amino acids (simple molecules) + energy released

122
Q

What does Anabolic reactions do? (energy-consuming)

A

Build complex organic molecules from simple ones.

123
Q

What are some examples of Anabolic reactions?

A

Glucose (a simple carb) + Energy consumed —> Starch (a complex carb)
Amino acids (simple molecule) + Energy consumed —-> Protein (a complex molecule)

124
Q

What is energy coupling?

A

Energy released from a catabolic reactions can be used to drive anabolic reactions

125
Q

What is responsible for carrying out energy coupling?

A

ATP molecules

126
Q

ATP stands for

A

Adenosine triphosphate

127
Q

What is ATP?

A

A chemical molecule

128
Q

What is ATP composed of?

A
  1. a 5 carbon sugar called Ribose
  2. a Nitrogenous base (opposite of acid) called Adenine
  3. 3 phosphate groups
129
Q

The chemical bonds formed between the phosphate groups of ATP molecule are rich in

A

energy and CAN be broken to yield energy ONLY in the presence of water molecule.

130
Q

What is the terminal phosphate bond?

A

The very last phosphate bond.

131
Q

What happens when the terminal phosphate bond is broken?

A

The terminal phosphate group (Pi) is removed from the rest of the ATP molecule. This is when ATP becomes ADP in the presence of water and energy is released.

132
Q

What is ADP

A

Adenosine Diphosphate

133
Q

What is ATP hydrolysis?

A

When ATP is broken down into ADP and Pi in the presence of water. Energy is released at the end of this chemical reaction

134
Q

ATP hydrolysis is an example of which reaction?

A

Catabolic reaction (energy-yielding)

135
Q

What is ATP recycling?

A

When an ATP molecules is recycled back from ADP and Pi, which requires energy.

136
Q

Which of these require energy?
A. ATP recycling
B. ATP generation
C. ATP synthesis
D. ATP formation

A

All of them

137
Q

ATP recycling, ATP generation, ATP synthesis and ATP formation are examples of which reaction?

A

Anabolic reaction because it is energy consuming

138
Q

What is the ATP cycle?

A

When combining ATP hydrolysis with ATP recycling.

139
Q

What are enzymes?

A

Protein molecules

140
Q

What do enzymes do?

A

Speed up chemical reaction without becoming involved.

141
Q

What is a chemical reaction about?

A

Chemical bond breaking and bond formation.

142
Q

What is a typical chemical reaction?

A

Reactants—–>Products

143
Q

In a typical chemical reaction

A

the OLD bonds of the Reactant molecules will break to form the NEW bonds in the Products

144
Q

How much energy is enough to break the bonds?

A

Depends upon the reactant molecules

145
Q

What is activation energy (Ea)?

A

The amount of energy needed for bond breaking. Different reactant molecules require different amount of energy for bond breaking.

146
Q

What does an energy profile of a typical chemical reaction show you?

A

Shows the progress of a chemical reaction going from its REACTANTS to PRODUCTS

147
Q

How can enzyme fit into an energy profile of a typical chemical reaction?

A

An enzyme can speed up a chemical reaction by reducing the activation energy.

148
Q

What are substrates?

A

Reactant molecules in the presence of enzymes.

149
Q

Enzymes speed up a chemical reaction by doing what 1st?

A

by binding to it substrate molecule

150
Q

Are enzymes substrate specific?

A

Yes, they will only help their own substrate

151
Q

what size protein molecules and what kind of shape are proteins?

A

Large protein molecules
Specific 3-d shape

152
Q

Where does the enzyme molecule bind with the substrate molecule?

A

The active site of an enzyme

153
Q

Shape-Shape recognition

A

Specificity and compatible fit

154
Q

Apoenzyme

A

The protein portion of an enzyme

155
Q

Cofactor

A

The non protein part of an enzyme

156
Q

The apoenzyme is INACTIVE by itself until it joins with

A

The cofactor

157
Q

What is the active holoenzyme?

A

The apoenzyme and cofactor join

158
Q

What are the 2 types of cofactors?

A

Organic molecule (containing carbon) and Inorganic molecule metal ion

159
Q

What are some example of inorganic cofactors

A

zinc, iron, copper

160
Q

Coenzyme

A

When a cofactor is organic

161
Q

What are examples of coenzymes?

A

NAD+, FAD, CoA

162
Q

What are the factors that can influence enzyme action?

A

Temperature, pH, substrate concentration and enzyme inhibitors

163
Q

What happens if the temperature goes up too high?

A

The enzyme gets denatured (shape is changed) and the speed will slow down.

164
Q

What does “enzyme in saturation” mean?

A

When the active site of an enzyme is ALWAYS occupied by its substrate.

165
Q

How does competitive inhibitor work?

A

They resemble and compete with the substrate molecule for the active site.

166
Q

How does non competitive inhibitors work?

A

They do not compete with the substrate and they do not fit into the active site of enzyme.

167
Q

What is the allosteric site?

A

Any other site that is not the active site.

168
Q

What is carbohydrate catabolism?

A

THe breaking down of carbs

169
Q

Glucose molecules provide what?

A

A good source of energy for microbial cells

170
Q

What are the 2 ways microbes break down glucose?

A

By Cellular respiration and Fermentation

171
Q

Cellular respiration and Fermentation share what?

A

The first stage of glycolysis

172
Q

Does cellular respiration take place in Aerobic Respiration or Anaerobic Respiration?

A

Takes place in both

173
Q

Does fermentation take place in presence of oxygen or not?

A

Takes place in the absence of oxygen

174
Q

Aerobic Respiration is

A

the breakdown of sugar glucose in the presence of oxygen

175
Q

Energy is released or yielded at the end of

A

Aerobic respiration

176
Q

What is the chemical reaction for Aerobic Respiration?

A

6CO + 6H O + energy yielded
2 2

177
Q

THe 3 sequential stages of Aerobic Respiration are:

A
  1. Glycolysis
  2. Krebs Cycle
  3. Electron Transport Chain
178
Q

What are the reactants for Glycolysis?

A

1 molecule of glucose (6 carbons)

179
Q

What are the products for Glycolysis?

A

2 molecules of pyruvate (3 carbons each)

180
Q

How much energy does Glycolysis yield?

A

2 ATP molecules and 2 NADH molecules

181
Q

What does pyruvate convert to before entering the Krebs cycle?

A

acetyl CoA

182
Q

What are the reactants for Krebs cycle?

A

2 pyruvate molecules

183
Q

What are the products for Krebs cycle?

A

2 Acetyl CoA

184
Q

How much energy does Krebs cycle yield?

A

2 ATP molecules and 6 NADH molecules

185
Q

What is oxidation?

A

electron losing

186
Q

What is reduction?

A

electron gaining

187
Q

During the Electron Transport Chain stage of Aerobic Respiration,

A

glucose is oxidized and oxygen is reduced.

188
Q

What is the initial electron acceptor?

A

NAD+

189
Q

NAD+ reduces to form NADH

A
190
Q

What is the final electron acceptor?

A

Oxygen

191
Q

Once oxygen accepts electrons coming down the electron transport chain

A

Oxygen is reduced to form water

192
Q

How much energy does the Electron Transport Chain stage yield?

A

34 ATP molecules

193
Q

How much energy is yielded during the entire Aerobic respiration of one molecule of glucose?

A

38 ATP

Micro (4 decks)

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