Lecture 9: Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

define an antibiotic

A

a chemical compound made by another microorganism which inhibits or kills bacteria

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2
Q

the majority of antibiotics are derived from which bacterial species?

A

streptomyces

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3
Q

what does a bacteriostatic agent do?

A

restricts the growth and reproduction of bacteria but it is the patient’s own immune system which kills off the bacteria and leads to recovery from the infection

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4
Q

what does a bactericidal agent do?

A

causes bacterial cell death

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5
Q

del

A

del

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6
Q

del

A

del

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7
Q

examples of bactericidal antibiotics

A
  • penicillin
  • gentamicin
  • vancomycin
  • ciprofloxacin
  • metronidazole
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8
Q

examples of bacteriostatic antibiotics

A
  • doxycyline
  • calrithromycin
  • azithromycin
  • linezolid
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9
Q

which antibiotics inhibit cell wall synthesis?

A

Beta-lactams:
- penicillins
- cephalosporins
- carbapenems

Glycopeptides:
- vancomycin

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10
Q

which antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis?

A
  • gentamicin
  • doxycycline
  • clarithromycin
  • erythromycin
  • clindamycin
  • chloramphenicol
  • linezolid
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11
Q

which antibiotics inhibit DNA synthesis?

A
  • metronidazole
  • fluoroquinolones
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12
Q

which antibiotics inhibit folic acid synthesis?

A

trimethoprim
co-trimoxazole

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13
Q

how do beta-lactams work?

A

bind to penicillin binding proteins (PBP) in the cell wall or cell cytoplasm, thereby inhibiting cell wall formation
- inhibited by beta lactamases

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14
Q

cephalosporins all cover

A

Group A, B, C streptococci
Viridans group Streptococci
E.coli
Klebsiella
Proteus mirabilis

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15
Q

cephalosporins are LAME because they dont cover

A

Listeria
Atypicals
MRSA (except 5G)
Enterococcus

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16
Q

when is meropenem (a carbapenem) indicated?

A
  • active against gram positive, gram negative and pseudomonas
  • severe infections: unresponsive to other abx and haematology patients
  • lung infections in cystic fibrosis patients.
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17
Q

beta lactam adverse reactions

A
  • mild (5%): rash, fever
  • severe (0.05%): anaphylaxis
18
Q

beta-lactams drug interactions

A
  • carbapenems: valproate and probenecid
  • all beta-lactams: typhoid vaccine
19
Q

del

A

del

20
Q

which antibiotic is exclusively used to treat lower urinary tract infections?

A

nitrofurantoin

21
Q

gram-positive cocci include

A

staphylococcus
streptococcus
enterococcus

22
Q

gram-positive rods include

corny mike’s list of basic cars

A

corneybacteria
mycobacteria
listeria
bacillus
nocardia

23
Q

gram-positive anaerobes can be remembered with the CLAP mnemonic:

A

clostridium
lactobacillus
actinomyces
propionibacterium

24
Q

list some common gram-negative bacteria

A
  • Neisseria meningitidis
  • Neisseria gonorrhoea
  • Haemophilia influenza
  • E.coli
  • Klebsiella
  • Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • Moraxella catarrhalis
25
Q

del

A
26
Q

the five atypical bacteria causing atypical pneumonia can be remembered with the ‘legions of psitacci MCQs’ mnemonic

A

legionella pneumophilia
chlamydia psittaci
Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Chlamydophilia pneumoniae
Q fever (coxiella burnetti)

27
Q

antibiotics used to treat MRSA include:

A

doxycycline
clindamycin
vancomycin
teicoplanin
linezolid

28
Q

when is vancomycin used?

A
  • MRSA
  • 1st line for gram-positive infections in individuals with penicillin allergy: skin and soft tissue infections, streptococcus meningitis, infective endocarditis
  • C.diff when given orally
29
Q

vancomycin side-effects

A

red man syndrome:
- flushing
- erythema
- pruritus
- affecting upper body, neck and face > lower body
- myalgia, dyspnea, hypotension

30
Q

aminoglycosides toxicity e.g. gentamycin, streptomycin

A
  • nephrotoxicity
  • ototoxicity/vestibulotoxicity
  • neuromuscular blockade
31
Q

tetracycline class side effects

e.g. doxycycline

A
  • photosensitivity
  • gastritis, oesophageal ulceration
  • contraindicated in pregnancy
  • can cause permanent tooth staining in children < 8
32
Q

when is erythromycin indicated?

A
  • skin & soft tissue infections
  • community acquired pneumonia
33
Q

when is clarithromycin indicated?

A
  • skin & soft tissue infections
  • community acquired pneumonia
  • atypical pneumonia: listeria, mycoplasma, psitcossis
  • helicobacter pylori
  • toxoplasma gondii
34
Q

when is azithromycin indicated?

A
  • typhoid fever: salmonella typhi and paratyphi
  • STI: gonorhoea, chlamydia
35
Q

macrolides side effects

the mycins except gentamicin

A
  • jaundice
  • ototoxicity
  • prolonged QT syndrome
  • GI disturbance
  • avoid clarithromycin and azithromycin in pregnancy unless benefit outweighs risk
36
Q

when is metronidazole indicated?

A

bacteria- Clostridium, helicobacter
parasitic- giardia, entameoba

37
Q

when is trimethoprim used?

A

UTIs

38
Q

when is co-trimoxazole used?

A
  • pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia
  • toxoplasmosis
  • multi drug resistant organisms e.g. mycobacterium, stenotrophomonas
39
Q

what is the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)?

A

lowest concentration which prevents visible growth of a bacterium or bacteria

40
Q

doxycycline spectrum and usage

A

broad-spectrum
- soft tissue and skin infections
- CAP + atypicals
- genito-urinary infection
- rickettsia
- malaria prophylaxis and treatment
- bone and joint: septic arthritis and osteomyelitis