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Week 1-4 A&P > Lecture > Flashcards

Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

When it becomes necessary to enlist the fight-or-flight response, a hormone that is released during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome is ________.

A

Epinephrine

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2
Q

Which organ is responsible for synthesizing ANP?

A

The heart

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3
Q

Eicosanoids do not include

A

hydrocortisones

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4
Q

One of the least complicated of the endocrine control systems directly responds to changing blood levels of ions and nutrients. Which of the following describes this mechanism?

A

humoral stimulation

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5
Q

Aldosterone ____________

A

functions to increase sodium reabsorption

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6
Q

Which of the following is not a category of endocrine gland stimulus?

A

enzyme

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7
Q

Which of the following is not a change that may be caused by hormonal stimulus?

A

direct control of the nervous system

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8
Q

Which of the following is not a cardinal sign of diabetes mellitus?

A

polycythemia

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9
Q

oxytocin ___________

A

release is an example of a positive feedback control mechanism

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10
Q

Steroid hormones exert their action by ________.

A

entering the nucleus of a cell and initiating or altering the expression of a gene

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11
Q

Which organ does not produce hormones?

A

spleen

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12
Q

The most important mineralcorticoid regulator of electrolyte concentrations in extracellular fluids is ________.

A

aldosterone

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13
Q

Mineralocorticoid is to aldosterone as glucocorticoid is to ________.

A

cortisol

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14
Q

The major targets of growth hormone are ________.

A

bones and skeletal muscles

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15
Q

Gluconeogenesis occurs in the liver due to the action of ________.

A

cortisol

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16
Q

The single most important regulator of calcium levels in the blood is ________.

A

parathyroid hormone

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17
Q

Which of the following is not a parathyroid gland mechanism to maintain adequate levels of blood calcium?

A

inhibition of calcitonin synthesis

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18
Q

Several hormones are synthesized in the hypothalamus and transported to the anterior pituitary gland. The mechanism of transportation from hypothalamus to anterior pituitary gland is through the ________.

A

hypophyseal prtal system

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19
Q

The neurohypophysis or posterior lobe of the pituitary gland is not a true endocrine gland because ________.

A

it is only a hormone storage area that receives hormones from the hypothalamus for release

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20
Q

Which of the following hormones suppresses appetite and increases energy expenditure?

A

leptin

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21
Q

The ability of a specific tissue or organ to respond to the presence of a hormone is dependent on ________.

A

the presence of the appropriate receptors on the cells of the target tissue or organ

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22
Q

Addison’s disease is due to a insufficient output of glucocorticoids only.

A

false

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23
Q

Which of the following is not a change typically produced by a hormonal stimulus?

A

stimulates production of an action potential

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24
Q

Which of the following is not a type of hormone interaction?

A

feedback

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25
Q

The second-messenger mechanism of hormone action operates by ________.

A

binding to specific receptors and employing the services of G proteins and cAMP

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26
Q

Select the incorrect statement regarding blood cell formation.

A

Platelets are formed from myeloblasts.

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27
Q

Which of the following is not a functional characteristic of WBCs?

A

granulosis

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28
Q

Which of the following statements does not describe blood?

A

Blood carriers body cells to injured areas for repair

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29
Q

The primary source of RBCs in the adult human being is the bone marrow in the shafts of the long bones.

A

false

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30
Q

All of the following conditions impair coagulation except ________.

A

vascular spasm

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31
Q

Which sequence is correct for the following events?

  1. fibrinogen → fibrin
  2. clot retraction
  3. formation of thromboplastin
  4. prothrombin → thrombin
A

3, 4, 1, 2

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32
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?

A

They are nucleated.

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33
Q

The special type of hemoglobin present in fetal red blood cells is ________.

A

hemoglobin F

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34
Q

The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.

A

False

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35
Q

Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions involving white blood cells.

A

true

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36
Q

Which of the following is not a cause of bleeding disorders?

A

excess secretion of platelet-derived growth factor (PDGF)

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37
Q

Which of the following is true about blood plasma?

A

It is about 90% water.

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38
Q

An individual who is blood type AB negative can ________.

A

receive any blood type in moderate amounts except that with the Rh antigen

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39
Q

The plasma protein that is the major contributor to osmotic pressure is ________.

A

albumin

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40
Q

A lack of intrinsic factor, leading to a deficiency of vitamin B12 and causing an appearance of large pale cells called macrocytes, is characteristic of ________.

A

pernicious anemia

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41
Q

No visible cytoplasmic granules are present in ________.

A

monocytes

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42
Q

What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?

A

kidney

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43
Q

Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?

A

hemocytoblast

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44
Q

A person with type B blood could receive blood from a person with either type B or type O blood.

A

true

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45
Q

When can erythroblastosis fetalis not possibly happen in the child of an Rh negative mother?

A

if the father is Rh-

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46
Q

Blood volume restorers include all of the following except ________.

A

packed cells

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47
Q

Thromboembolic disorders ________.

A

include embolus formation, a clot moving within the circulatory system

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48
Q

Platelets ________.

A

stick to the damaged area of a blood vessel and help seal the break

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49
Q

Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes.

A

true

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50
Q

Which of the following might trigger erythropoiesis?

A

hypoxia of EPO-producing cells

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51
Q

Norepinephrine acts on the heart by ________.

A

causing threshold to be reached more quickly

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52
Q

The condition where fluid compresses the heart and limits its ability to contract is called ________.

A

cardiac tamponade

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53
Q

The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ________.

A

pump blood with greater pressure

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54
Q

During contraction of heart muscle cells ________.

A

some calcium enters the cell from the extracellular space and triggers the release of larger amounts of calcium from intracellular stores

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55
Q

Hemorrhage with a large loss of blood causes ________.

A

a lowering of blood pressure due to change in cardiac output

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56
Q

As pressure in the aorta rises due to atherosclerosis, more ventricular pressure is required to open the aortic valve.

A

true

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57
Q

Commotio cordis is heart failure due to a ________.

A

relatively mild blow to the chest that occurs during a vulnerable interval (2 ms) when the heart is repolarizing

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58
Q

Normal heart sounds are caused by which of the following events?

A

closure of the heart valves

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59
Q

Which of the following is not part of the conduction system of the heart?

A

AV valve

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60
Q

The P wave of a normal electrocardiogram indicates ________.

A

atrial depolarization

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61
Q

Paroxysmal atrial tachycardia is characterized by bursts of atrial contractions with little pause between them.

A

true

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62
Q

Isovolumetric contraction ________.

A

refers to the short period during ventricular systole when the ventricles are completely closed chambers

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63
Q

Compared to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle ________.

A

has gap junctions that allow it to act as a functional syncytium

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64
Q

If we were able to artificially alter the membrane permeability of pacemaker cells so that sodium influx is more rapid, ________.

A

threshold is reached more quickly and heart rate would increase

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65
Q

Select the correct statement about the heart valves.

A

The AV valves are supported by chordae tendineae so that regurgitation of blood into the atria during ventricular contraction does not occur.

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66
Q

Select the correct statement about cardiac output.

A

A slow heart rate increases end diastolic volume, stroke volume, and force of contraction

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67
Q

The fact that the left ventricle of the heart is thicker than the right ventricle reveals that it ________.

A

pumps blood against a greater resistance

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68
Q

The tricuspid valve is closed ________.

A

when the ventricle is in systole

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69
Q

If the length of the absolute refractory period in cardiac muscle cells was the same as it is for skeletal muscle cells, ________.

A

tetanic contractions might occur, which would stop the heart’s pumping action

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70
Q

Select the correct statement about the structure of the heart wall.

A

The myocardium is the layer of the heart that actually contracts.

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71
Q

Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are open?

A

Ventricles are in diastole.

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72
Q

Which of the following factors does not influence heart rate?

A

skin color

73
Q

The term for pain associated with deficient blood delivery to the heart that may be caused by the transient spasm of coronary arteries is ________.

A

angina pectoris

74
Q

Which vessel(s) of the heart receive(s) blood during right ventricular systole?

A

pulmonary trunk

75
Q

To auscultate the aortic semilunar valve, you would place your stethoscope in the ________.

A

second intercostal space to the right of the sternum

76
Q

Which of the following do not influence arterial pulse rate?

A

the vessel selected to palpate

77
Q

The pulse pressure is ________.

A

systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure

78
Q

Factors that aid venous return include all except ________.

A

urinary output

79
Q

Cerebral blood flow is regulated by ________.

A

intrinsic autoregulatory mechanisms

80
Q

Secondary hypertension can be caused by ________.

A

arteriosclerosis

81
Q

Peripheral resistance ________.

A

increases as blood viscosity increases

82
Q

Which of the choices below does not involve tissue perfusion?

A

blood clotting

83
Q

Which of the following blood pressure readings would be indicative of hypertension?

A

170/96 in a 50-year-old man

84
Q

The form of circulatory shock known as hypovolemic shock is ________.

A

shock that results from large-scale loss of blood volume, or after severe vomiting or diarrhea

85
Q

Modified capillaries that are lined with phagocytes are called ________.

A

sinusoids

86
Q

Normal average blood pressure for a newborn baby is ________.

A

90/55

87
Q

Select the correct statement about factors that influence blood pressure.

A

Excess red cell production would cause a blood pressure increase.

88
Q

A thrombus (blood clot) in the first branch of the arch of the aorta would affect the flow of blood to the ________.

A

right side of the head and neck and right upper arm

89
Q

Which of the following is not one of the three main factors influencing blood pressure?

A

emotional state

90
Q

The arteries that are also called distributing arteries are the ________.

A

muscular arteries

91
Q

Which of the following chemicals does not help regulate blood pressure?

A

nitric acid

92
Q

The velocity of blood flow is ________.

A

slowest in the capillaries because the total cross-sectional area is the greatest

93
Q

Which of the following is likely during vigorous exercise?

A

Capillaries of the active muscles will be engorged with blood.

94
Q

Where in the body would you find low oxygen levels causing vasoconstriction and high levels causing vasodilation?

A

lungs

95
Q

Which of the choices below explains why the arterioles are known as resistance vessels?

A

The contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in their walls can change their diameter.

96
Q

Which of the choices below does not explain why low capillary pressures are desirable?

A
97
Q

Blood flow through the entire vascular system is equivalent to cardiac output.

A

Select the correct statement about blood flow.

98
Q

Which tunic of an artery is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure and continuous blood circulation?

A

tunica media

99
Q

The baroreceptors in the carotid sinus and aortic arch are sensitive to which of the following?

A

changes in arterial pressure

100
Q

Which statement best describes arteries?

A

All carry blood away from the heart.

101
Q

If even a small part of the spleen is left in a ten-year-old child, it will most likely regenerate itself.

A

true

102
Q

The simplest lymphoid organs are the lymph nodes.

A

false

103
Q

The most important role of the spleen is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response.

A

false

104
Q

Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ________.

A

tonsil

105
Q

Digestive tract-associated lymphatic tissue includes all of the following except ________.

A

islets of Langerhans

106
Q

Like blood, lymph flows both to and from the heart.

A

false

107
Q

There are more efferent lymphatic vessels leaving a lymph node than there are afferent vessels entering a lymph node.

A

false

108
Q

When tissues are inflamed, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that permit uptake of large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells.

A

true

109
Q

When the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________.

A

severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb

110
Q

Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?

A

pancreas

111
Q

Because lymph vessels are very low-pressure conduits, movements of adjacent tissues are important in propelling lymph through the lymphatics.

A

true

112
Q

A sentinel node is ________.

A

the first node to receive lymph from an area suspected to be cancerous

113
Q

Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue.

A

Lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue.

114
Q

The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.

A

lingual tonsils

115
Q

All the lymphoid organs are well developed before birth.

A

false

116
Q

small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed ________.

A

lymph nodes

117
Q

Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax?

A

right lymphatic duct

118
Q

Which of the following are functions of lymphoid tissue?

A

A and C

119
Q

The thymus is most active during ________.

A

childhood

120
Q

Antibodies that act against a particular foreign substance are released by ________.

A

plasma cells

121
Q

Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones?

A

lymphocytes

122
Q

The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not ________.

A

directly fight antigens

123
Q

Lymph transport involves all but which of the following?

A

** thorax pressure changes during breathing**

124
Q

Lymph capillaries are absent in all except which of the following?

A

bones and teeth

125
Q

The lymphatic capillaries are ________.

A

as permeable as blood capillaries

126
Q

The most important role of the spleen is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response.

A

False

127
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

A

transporting respiratory gases

128
Q

When tissues are inflamed, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that permit uptake of large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells.

A

true

129
Q

Lymph leaves a lymph node via ________.

A

efferent lymphatic vessels

130
Q

Peyer’s patches are found in the ________.

A

ileum of the small intestine

131
Q

If even a small part of the spleen is left in a ten-year-old child, it will most likely regenerate itself.

A

True

132
Q

The simplest lymphoid organs are the lymph nodes.

A

False

133
Q

The most important role of the spleen is to provide a site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune surveillance and response.

A

False

134
Q

Lymphoid tissue that appears as a swelling of the mucosa in the oral cavity is called a(n) ________.

A

tonsil

135
Q

Digestive tract-associated lymphatic tissue includes all of the following except ________.

A

islets of Langerhans

136
Q

Like blood, lymph flows both to and from the heart.

A

false

137
Q

There are more efferent lymphatic vessels leaving a lymph node than there are afferent vessels entering a lymph node.

A

false

138
Q

When tissues are inflamed, lymphatic capillaries develop openings that permit uptake of large particles such as cell debris, pathogens, and cancer cells.

A

true

139
Q

When the lymphatic structures of a limb are blocked due to tumors, the result is ________.

A

severe localized edema distal to the blockage of that limb

140
Q

Which of the following would not be classified as a lymphatic structure?

A

pancreas

141
Q

The lymphatic capillaries are ________.

A

as permeable as blood capillaries

(wrong answer!)

142
Q

Because lymph vessels are very low-pressure conduits, movements of adjacent tissues are important in propelling lymph through the lymphatics.

A

True

143
Q

A sentinel node is ________.

A

the first node to receive lymph from an area suspected to be cancerous

144
Q

Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue.

A

Lymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue.

145
Q

The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the ________.

A

lingual tonsils

146
Q

All the lymphoid organs are well developed before birth.

A

False

147
Q

Small organs associated with lymphatic vessels are termed ________.

A

lymph nodes

148
Q

Which lymphatic structure drains lymph from the right upper limb and the right side of the head and thorax?

A

right lymphatic duct

149
Q

Which of the following are functions of lymphoid tissue?

A

A & C

150
Q

Lymph capillaries are absent in all except which of the following?

A

bones and teeth

(WRONG ANSWER!)

151
Q

The thymus is most active during ________.

A

childhood

152
Q

Which cells become immunocompetent due to thymic hormones?

A

lymphocytes

153
Q

The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does not ________.

A

directly fight antigens

154
Q

Lymph transport involves all but which of the following?

A

thorax pressure changes during breathing

(wrong answer)

155
Q

Fever ________.

A

production is regulated by chemicals that reset the body’s thermostat to a higher setting

156
Q

Select the correct statement about antigens.

A

One antigen may have many different antigenic determinants and may therefore cause the formation of more than one antibody.

157
Q

Which of the following would be classified as a delayed hypersensitivity reaction?

A

allergic contact dermatitis

158
Q

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in phagocytosis?

A

chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, killing

159
Q

Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?

A

ype II diabetes

160
Q

Which of the following statements regarding NK cells is a false or incorrect statement?

A

NK cells are a type of neutrophil.

161
Q

Which of the following is true of immediate hypersensitivities?

A

They involve IgE antibodies and the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils.

162
Q

Which of the following is associated with passive immunity?

A

passage of IgG antibodies from a pregnant mother to her fetus

163
Q

Which of the following is not a type of T cell?

A

antigenic

164
Q

What is the role of interferon in defense against disease?

A

protects cells that have not yet been infected by viruses

165
Q

Which of the following does not respond to cell-mediated immunity?

A

intracellular pathogens that reside within host cells

(WRONG ANSWER)

166
Q

Which of the following cells predominate at the sites of chronic infections?

A

Macrophages

167
Q

Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?

A

phagocytes

168
Q

The redness and heat of an inflamed area are due to a local hyperemia caused by ________.

A

vasodilation

169
Q

Regulatory T cells ________.

A

may function in preventing autoimmune reactions

170
Q

B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ________.

A

bone marrow

171
Q

The primary immune response ________.

A

occurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response

(WRONG ANSWER)

172
Q

Interferons ________.

A

interfere with viral replication within cells

173
Q

The process whereby neutrophils and other white blood cells are attracted to an inflammatory site is called ________.

A

diapedesis

(WRONG ANSWER)

174
Q

Select the correct statement about active and passive immunity.

A

Active and passive humoral immunity are both mechanisms of adaptive immunity that use antibodies.

175
Q

Which of the statements below does not describe antigens?

A

Antigens only come from microbes.

176
Q

Cancer cells and virus-infected body cells can be killed before activation of adaptive immunity by ________.

A

natural killer cells

177
Q

Select the correct statement about the function of antibodies.

A

Complement fixation is the main mechanism by which antibodies provide protection

178
Q

Which of the following is not a method by which antibodies work?

A

enhancing phagocytosis

(WRONG ANSWER)

179
Q

Natural killer (NK) cells ________.

A

are also called cytotoxic T cells

(WRONG ANSWER)

Week 1-4 A&P (2 decks)

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