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SMP - Neurophysio Exam 1 > Lecture 7 - Functional Neuroanatomy > Flashcards

Lecture 7 - Functional Neuroanatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 axes to describe anatomy?

A
  1. Ventral/dorsal
  2. Anterior/Posterior (or Rostral/Caudal)
  3. Lateral/Medial
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2
Q

What is the rostral side of the brain?

A

Front of head

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3
Q

What is the caudal side of the brain?

A

Back of head

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4
Q

Describe the directional terms in bipeds.

A

The directional terms are relative to the midline which bends 60 degrees at the forebrain

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5
Q

What is the dorsal part of the brain? Other name?

A

Toward sky = superior

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6
Q

What are the 3 major planes used in cutting/imaging of the brain?

A
  1. Coronal (rostral/caudal)
  2. Horizontal (dorsal/ventral)
  3. Sagittal (medial/lateral)
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7
Q

What is the ventral part of the brain? Other name?

A

Toward floor = inferior

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8
Q

What are the 2 primary functions of the NS?

A
  1. Bring sensory input to the body through afferent neurons for integration
  2. Controlling motor output by activating effector organs through efferent neurons
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9
Q

What are the 4 types of effector organs that the NS activates?

A
  1. Skeletal muscles
  2. Smooth muscles
  3. Cardiac muscles
  4. Glands
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10
Q

What are the 3 main components of the PNS?

A
  1. 31 pairs of spinal nerves
  2. 12 pairs of cranial nerves*
  3. Ganglia

*one of them, the optic tract, is actually part of the CNS

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11
Q

Describe the afferent pathway of the NS.

A

Internal/External environment => sensory receptors => sensory ganglia and nerves => cerebral hemispheres, diencephalon, cerebellum, brainstem, and spinal cord

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12
Q

What are the 2 parts of the PNS and what does each include?

A
  1. Somatic = skeletal muscles and skin

2. Visceral/Autonomic = smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, glands, hair raising muscles

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13
Q

When does the folding of the ectoderm happen? What is this called? What does it form? What does each become?

A

First month of gestation = neurulation

Forms:

  1. Neural tube = CNS
  2. Neural crest cells = PNS
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14
Q

Describe the closing of the neural tube. Is it complete?

A

Begins in the middle of the rostral-caudal axis and progresses in both the anterior and posterior directions

Complete in normal development

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15
Q

What 2 structures are formed through the closure of the neural tube? What does each become?

A
  1. Anterior neuropore = brain

2. Posterior neuropore = spinal cord

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16
Q

What is anencephaly? What is it due to? Survival rate?

A

Severe reduction in brain development due to failed closure of anterior neuropore

The babies die a few hours or days after birth

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17
Q

What are some diseases due to an improper closing of the neural tube?

A
  1. Anencephaly

2. Spina Bifida

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18
Q

What is spina bifida due to? What are the 3 types in order of increasing severity?

A

Failed closure of caudal neuropore

3 types:

  1. Occulta
  2. Meningocele
  3. Myelomeningocele (can cause infection)
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19
Q

How can neural tube abnormalities be prevented?

A

Folic acid

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20
Q

Where is folic acid found?

A
  1. Spinach
  2. Liver
  3. Yeast
  4. Eggs
  5. Beans
  6. All OTC vitamins
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21
Q

How does brain development start? Describe the different parts and what their fate is.

A

Differentiation of the anterior/rostral neural tube in the anterior neuropore forming 3 primary vesicles (from rostral to caudal):

  1. Prosencephalon = forebrain
  2. Mesencephalon = midbrain
  3. Rhombencephalon = hindbrain
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22
Q

What is the rhombencephalon connected to?

A

The spinal cord

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23
Q

What stage follows the 3 primary vesicle stage of brain development? Describe it.

A

5 secondary vesicle stage (from rostral to caudal):

  1. Telencephalon (from prosencephalon)
  2. Diencephalon (from prosencephalon)
  3. Mesencephalon
  4. Metencephalon (from rhombencephalon)
  5. Myelencephalon (from rhombencephalon)
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24
Q

What 2 flexures happen at the 3 vesicle stage of brain development? Where is each located?

A
  1. Cephalic flexure between mesencephalon and rhombencephalon
  2. Cervical flexure between rhombencephalon and spinal cord
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25
Q

What flexure happens at the 5 vesicle stage of brain development?

A

Pontine flexure between metencephalon and myelecephalon

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26
Q

What do the eyes develop from in brain development?

A

The optic vesicles of the diencephalon

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27
Q

What controls brain development? What experience proves this?

A
  1. The dorsal blastopore lip governs the differentiation of neural tissue by secreting organizing factors
    - EXPERIMENT: If we replace the ventral epididermis of an fish embryo with a dorsal blastopore lip from a donor embryo we obtain a fish with 2 neural axis
  2. Inhibitors of Bone Morphogenetic Protein (BMP): noggin, follistatin, and chordin all block the ability of ectodermal cells to acquire an epidermal fate, thus promoting neural character
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28
Q

Fate of the telencephalon?

A

Cerebrum

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29
Q

2 parts of the cerebrum?

A
  1. Cerebral cortex

2. Basal ganglia

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30
Q

Fates of the diencephalon?

A
  1. Thalamus
  2. Hypo
  3. Pit
  4. Retina + optic tract
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31
Q

Fates of the mesencephalon?

A
  1. Tectum

2. Tegmentum

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32
Q

Fates of the metencephalon?

A
  1. Pons

2. Cerebellum

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33
Q

Fate of the myelencephalon?

A

Medulla

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34
Q

What are the 3 parts of the brainstem? What vesicles of the 5 vesicle stage does each correspond to?

A
  1. Midbrain from mesencephalon
  2. Pons from metencephalon
  3. Medulla from myelencephalon
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35
Q

What does the tectum form?

A

Roof of midbrain

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36
Q

What does the tegmentum form?

A

Floor of midbrain

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37
Q

What are the pons and cerebellum used for?

A

Motor coordination

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38
Q

What are the 3 main systems of the human NS?

A
  1. Sensory systems
  2. Motor systems
  3. Associational systems
39
Q

What is the role of associational systems?

A

Integration at the cortex level to achieve proper behavioral outcomes in response to sensory inputs

40
Q

What part of the cerebrum does the cerebral cortex make up?

A

The outer-most gray matter of the cerebrum

41
Q

Describe the structure of the cerebral cortex.

A

Contains convolutions: sulci and gyri and is divided into hemispheres and lobes by fissures (except for the occipital lobe)

42
Q

What are the 3 major functions of the cerebral cortex?

A
  1. Sensory systems
  2. Motor systems
  3. Associational systems
43
Q

What are the 2 components of the autonomic motor division of the PNS?

A
  1. Sympathetic

2. Parasympathetic

44
Q

What part of the cerebrum does the basal ganglia make up?

A

Deep gray matter

45
Q

Which is largest: the cerebral cortex or the basal ganglia?

A

Basal ganglia

46
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

Initiation/Regulation of voluntary movement

47
Q

What 2 pathologies are related to the basal ganglia? Describe each.

A
  1. Parkinson’s: hypokinesia = decrease in voluntary movement

2. Huntington’s: hyperkinesia = increase in unwanted movement

48
Q

What is the largest gray matter structure found in the brain?

A

Basal ganglia

49
Q

What part of the cerebrum is lateral to the diecenphalon?

A

Basal ganglia

50
Q

What is the main function of the thalamus?

A

Relay center connecting sensory systems to the cerebral cortex

51
Q

Describe the structure of the thalamus.

A

2 lobes

52
Q

What are the 2 functions of the hypo?

A
  1. Master controller of autonomic NS

2. Regulates hormone release

53
Q

What is the function of the midbrain?

A

Relay info between cerebrum and spinal cord

54
Q

Where is the midbrain located?

A

Right below the diencephalon and right above the pons

55
Q

What is the reticular formation made of?

A

Part of the midbrain and the medulla

56
Q

Functions of the tectum of the midbrain?

A

Auditory and visual processing

57
Q

What are the 4 structures of the tectum?

A

4 corpora quadrigemina = the four colliculi—two inferior, two superior

58
Q

Function of tegmentum?

A

Reflexes

59
Q

Function of pons?

A

Relay center connecting cerebral cortex to cerebellum

60
Q

Relay stations of the brain?

A
  1. Thalamus

2. Pons

61
Q

What part of the brain touches the spinal cord?

A

Medulla

62
Q

What is the function of the reticular formation?

A

Contains centers that regulate heart rate and breathing

63
Q

What are the 3 elements of the cerebral ventricular system? Where is each located?

A
  1. 2 lateral ventricles in forebrain
  2. Third ventricle in forebrain
  3. Fourth ventricle in hindbrain
64
Q

What connects the 3rd and 4th ventrical?

A

The cerebral aqueduct

65
Q

What is the cerebrospinal fluid produced by?

A

Ependymal cells of the choroid plexus in each brain ventricle and the central canal of the spinal cord

66
Q

What are the 2 parts of each 2 lateral ventricles?

A
  1. Anterior horns

2. Inferior horns

67
Q

What are the 3 functions of the cerebrospinal fluid?

A
  1. Shock absorber
  2. Delivers nutrients and removes wastes
  3. Compensates for changes in intracranial pressure by flowing from brain to spinal cord
68
Q

How much cerebrospinal fluid do ependymal cells make each day?

A

700 mL

69
Q

What is the pathway of CSF through the brain?

A

Ependymal cells of choroid plexus in lateral ventricles => interventricular foramina => 3rd ventricle => cerebral aqueduct => 4th ventricle => central canal OR through apertures (Foramina of Luschka and Magendie) to subarachnoid space => subarachnoid villi => venous fluid compartment = BBB

70
Q

Where is the subarachnoid space?

A

All around the brain

71
Q

What is another name for the interventricular foramina?

A

Foramina of Monro

72
Q

What is the purpose of the interventricular foramina?

A

Connects the 2 lateral ventricles to each other and to the 3rd ventricle

73
Q

What is hydrocephalus?

A

Excess CSF causes enlargement of ventricles due to a clog in movement or drainage of CSF

74
Q

What is the effect of hydrocephalus in adults?

A

Increased intracranial pressure => cell death

75
Q

What are 4 underlying causes of hydrocephalus?

A
  1. Meningitis
  2. Tumors
  3. Inflammation
  4. Trauma
76
Q

What is the treatment for hydrocephalus?

A

Shunt to abdomen to drain the fluid into the peritoneal space

77
Q

What are the 2 types of hydrocephali?

A
  1. Congenital

2. Acquired

78
Q

What are the meninges?

A

Protective coating of the CNS

79
Q

What are the 3 different meninges?

A
  1. Dura mater
  2. Arachnoid mater
  3. Pia mater
80
Q

What is meningitis? 2 types? Most severe?

A

Infection of the meninges:

  1. Bacterial (severe)
  2. Viral
81
Q

Describe the dura mater.

A

Thick and tough

82
Q

Describe the arachnoid mater.

A

Spider-web like

83
Q

Describe the pia mater. Where is it located?

A

Thin and slightly associated in all grooves

84
Q

Where is the dura mater located?

A

Outermost layer of the brain

85
Q

Where is the arachnoid mater located?

A

Surrounds the subarachnoid space

86
Q

List the 6 layers of the head.

A
  1. Skin
  2. Periosteum
  3. Bone
  4. Epidural space (potential space because they are fused together)
  5. Dura mater
  6. Arachnoid mater
  7. Subarachnoid space
  8. Pia mater
87
Q

Does the spinal cord have meninges?

A

YUP, same ones

88
Q

What do the spinal meninges coat?

A

Nerves that exit from the spinal cord including their ventral and dorsal roots, dorsal root ganglion, and spinal nerve

89
Q

Why is a lumbar puncture performed?

A

To assay the presence of bacterial or viral infection of the CSF

90
Q

Where is a lumbar puncture performed? Why?

A

Between spinal nerves L3 and 4 into the subarachnoid space because at this point we are below the conus medullaris/terminalis (caudal most extent of spinal cord proper) and where the cauda equina are (spinal nerves at the base of the spinal cord)

91
Q

What are 2 side effects of a lumbar puncture? Explain each

A
  1. Paresthesia = altered sensation which may indicate damage to cauda equina and is generally temporary
  2. Hemorrhage = abnormal vasculature causing paralysis
92
Q

Where is epidural anesthesia done?

A

Any level of the spinal cord

93
Q

Why is epidural anesthesia referred to as segmental anesthesia?

A

Because it reduces sensation of the spinal nerves surrounding the injection

94
Q

How far does the needle go in the epidural anesthesia?

A

Epidural space

SMP - Neurophysio Exam 1 (13 decks)

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