Lecture 6 (GI)- Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Enterobacteriaceae – G- rods
* Normally found where?
* What are some bacteria that cause disease?(3)
* What are the opportunistic bacteria?(3)

A
  • Normally found in intestinal flora
  • Some cause disease: Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia pestis
  • Some are opportunistic: E. coli, K. pneumoniae, P. mirabilis
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2
Q

Enterobacteriaceae – G- rods
* What does E.coli cause? (4)
* What is it the MCC?
* What are the types of AGEs?

A

E. coli: Cause UTI’s, Neonatal Meningitis, Sepsis, AGE
* MCC of G- sepsis and responsible for 80% of UTI’s
* Types of AGE (see next slide)
* ETEC (Enterotoxigenic)
* EPEC (Enteropathogenic)
* EAEC (Enteroaggregative)
* EHEC (Enterohemorrhagic)
* EIEC (Enteroinvasive)

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3
Q

Types of AGE
* What is ETEC?
* What is EPEC?

A
  • ETEC (Enterotoxigenic): Developing countries (traveler’s diarrhea, infant diarrhea). Consumption of fecally contaminated water or food produces secretory diarrhea. Can involve A-B enterotoxin that acts like cholera toxin (milder symptoms).
  • EPEC (Enteropathogenic): Underdeveloped countries (infant diarrhea); can be spread from person-to-person (easily spread). Bacteria attachment to intestinal cells results in loss of microvilli, followed by cell death.
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4
Q

Types of AGE
* What is EAEC?
* What is EIEC?

A
  • EAEC (Enteroaggregative): Developing countries (traveler’s diarrhea, infant diarrhea) with outbreaks also occurring in developed countries; associated with chronic diarrhea and growth retardation in children. Bacteria adhere to intestinal cells and aggregate, promote protective biofilm formation, and produce toxins.
  • EIEC (Enteroinvasive): Rare in developed and uncommon in developing countries. Watery diarrhea. E. coli enters into cytoplasm of colonic epithelium.
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5
Q

Types of AGE
* What is EHEC? What does it contain?

A

EHEC (Enterohemorrhagic): Most common pathogenic E. coli strains in developed countries. Consumption of undercooked ground beef or other meat, water, unpasteurized milk or fruit juices, uncooked vegetables (spinach), and fruits. Person to person spread can also occur. Mild symptoms to hemorrhagic colitis (bloody diarrhea and severe abdominal pain; no fever; 50% with vomiting). More common in warm months and in children under 5.
* EHEC contain Shiga toxin. Complications include hemolytic uremic syndrome (kidney failure) in 5-10% of infected children, which is lethal in 3-5% of cases.

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6
Q

Salmonella enterica
* What type of bacteria?
* Replicate where? What can they do?
* Inflammatory response confines where and causes what?

A

Pathogenic (not part of normal flora), ~2000 serotypes

Replicate in Peyer’s patches, therefore can invade lymphatic and circulatory systems
* Inflammatory response confines infection to gastrointestinal tract and promotes fluid secretion

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7
Q

Salmonella enterica
* Transmitted how? Liked to what?
* What is an important exception? How is it transmitted?
* Who is it most risk?

A

All are transmitted via ingestion
* Linked to food consumption during outdoor gatherings (summer and fall in US): poultry, eggs, dairy products, or surfaces contaminated with these

Important exception: Salmonella enterica, serovar Typhi and Paratyphi can be transmitted person-to-person or via food or drinks contaminated by infected food handler

Very young (under 5 years) and elderly (over 60 years) are most at risk

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8
Q

Salmonella enterica
* What are the 3 distinct clinical syndromes?

A

Gastroenteritis, Septicemia, Enteric (Typhoid) fever

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9
Q

Salmonella enterica: Gastroenteritis
* When does it occur?
* What are the sxs? (7)
* Most common what?
* 30% of infected individuals develop what?

A
  • 6 to 48 hours after contamination (can last 2-7 days)
  • Nausea, vomiting, and may have either bloody or non-bloody diarrhea (may include fever, abdominal cramps, myalgias (muscle pain), and headache)
  • Most common salmonellosis in US
  • 30% of infected individuals develop septic arthritis months after infection
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10
Q

Salmonella enterica
* What are the septicemia sxs?
* Enteric (typhoid) fever: Similar to what? Exam may revel what?(5)

A

Septicemia
* Symptoms generally resemble those of septicemia by other Gram – rods

Enteric (Typhoid) fever
* Similar to gastroenteritis but can last up to 2 weeks.
* Exam may reveal distended abdomen, splenomegaly, abdominal tenderness, bradycardia. Rash (rose spots) commonly occur in 2nd week of disease

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11
Q

Salmonella enterica
* How do you dx and tx it?

A

Dx: Stool Culture
* Leukopenia is typical

Tx: Supportive (IVF’s).

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12
Q

Salmonella enterica
* What does abx cause? What are the exceptions?
* What are the options?

A
  • ABX do not shorten, but actually extend disease duration
    * Exception: those with bacteremia, immunocompromised, malnourished or severely ill
  • Options: Bactrim, Cipro, ceftriaxone
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13
Q

Shigella
* Subspecies of what? What are the reservoirs? Who does it affect a lot of?
* What does the shiga toxin cause?

A

Subspecies of E. coli (EHEC), humans are only reservoirs
* 60% of cases affect children (hygiene and immune strength)

Shiga toxin of S. dysenteriae damages intestinal epithelium and may cause hemolytic uremic syndrome (kidney failure).

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14
Q

Shigella
* Shigellosis includes what sxs?timing?

A

Shigellosis includes abdominal cramps, diarrhea, fever, and bloody stools 1 to 3 days after ingestion
* Profuse watery diarrhea at beginning leading to lower cramps, tenesmus (straining to defecate), abundant pus and blood in stool

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15
Q

Shigella
* How do you dx and tx it?

A
  • Dx: Stool Culture
  • Tx: Self-limited infection but antibiotics help prevent spread to others (Azithromycin, Cipro, Ceftriaxone)
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16
Q

Yersinia
* What does it cause?
* Y. entercolitica and Y. pseudotuberculosis (rodents, pigs, rabits) are primarily what?
* Enterocolitis develops when?

A

Y. pestis (rats) causes highly fatal systemic disease via flea vector (causes plague)

Y. entercolitica and Y. pseudotuberculosis (rodents, pigs, rabits) are primarily enteric
* Enterocolitis develops 4-6 days after ingestion of contaminated food and water

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17
Q

Yersinia
* What are the sxs?
* How do you dx and tx it?

A
  • Expect fever, abdominal pain, and diarrhea, which is often bloody
  • Dx: Stool or blood culture
  • Tx: Streptomycin or Doxycycline or Bactrim
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18
Q

Vibrio
* Flourish where?
* What does V. cholerae produce?
* When do you clinical see it? timing?
* What are the sxs?

A

Flourish in waters with shellfish (oysters, clams, mussels)

V. cholerae produces cholera toxin (induces severe secretory diarrhea)
* At height of disease, adult may lose up to 1 L of fluid/hour.

Clinically see 2 to 3 day onset from exposure. Diarrheal stool becomes “rice-water” stool: colorless, odorless, speckled with mucus.
* 60% mortality unless treated (replace lost fluids and electrolytes)

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19
Q

Vibrio:
* How do you dx it? What is the prevention?
* How do you tx it?

A

Dx: Stool culture or PCR
* Prevention – a vaccine exists, short-lived, limited protection and expensive

Tx: Ciprofloxacin Or Doxycycline or Azithromycin AND Fluids Replacement
* Antimicrobials will shorten course – but are indicated only in Severe form of Cholera and pregnant patients or those with HIV.

CAD

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20
Q

Campylobacter
* Campylobacter jejuni is the most common cause of what? Distant cousin of what?
* What is the epidemiology?

A
  • Campylobacter jejuni is the most common cause of gastroenteritis in the U.S. stemming from contaminated poultry, milk or water.
  • H. pylori is a distant cousin
  • Epidemiology – one of the most widespread infectious diseases globally. Annual US #>845,000 at a cost ~1.7 billion dollars
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21
Q

Campylobacter
* What do you clinical see?
* How do you dx it?

A
  • Clinically see enteritis 2-5 days following ingestion, i.e. diarrhea, malaise, relapsing remitting fever, and abdominal pain. Stools may be bloody.
  • Dx: Stool Culture
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22
Q

Campylobacter
* What is the txt?

A

Tx: Self limiting, supportive management advised. Severe disease treated with erythromycin
* Alt: either Azithromycin 1 gram as a single dose or Cipro 500mg BID x 3 days (27% resistance in U.S.)

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23
Q

Enterococcus and other G+ Cocci
* Related to what?
* Commonnly colonizes where?
* Can proliferate when?

A
  • Related to streptococcus (Known as Group D Strep)
  • Commonly colonizes intestinal tract
  • Can proliferate when patient is on broad spectrum ABX, and is one of the more common nosocomial bugs
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24
Q

Enterococcus and other G+ Cocci
* Clinically causes what? (3)
* Dx?
* How do you tx it?

A

Clinically cause UTI’s, peritonitis and endocarditis

Dx via Culture

Tx: Aminoglycoside (Gent) + Cell Wall ABX (Ampicillin or Vanc) OR Linezolid OR Cipro
* 25% have resistance to aminoglycosides
* E. faecium resistant to Ampicillin and Vanc

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25
Q

Bacillus Species: Bacillus antracis and cereus
* What is the morphology?
* GI effects due to what?
* What are the sxs?(7)

A
  • Gram + rods releasing both edema and lethal toxins
  • GI effects due to ingestion, mortality nearly 100%
  • Ulcers in mouth or esophagus with regional LAD, edema and sepsis, N/V, malaise etc.
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26
Q

Bacillus Species: Bacillus antracis and cereus
* B.cereus most commonly found where? Diarrheal form found where?
* Dx?
* How do you tx it?

A
  • B. cereus most commonly found in rice, causes emetic form
  • Diarrheal form found in meat and vegetables
  • Dx: Culture or PCR
  • Tx: Cipro + PCN or Doxycycline
  • PCN is not effective
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27
Q

Listeria monocytogenes
* Wide range of what?
* What is the mortality rate? With what?
* Replicated where?

A
  • Wide range of growth (1 to 45 °C)
  • Mortality rate 20-30% with contaminated or unpasteurized milk products or unwashed veggies
  • Replicate within the cell. Not just the body, so hard to target
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28
Q

Listeria monocytogenes
* Disease is restricted to who? (4)
* What are the sxs?

A

Disease restricted to neonates (in-utero acquired), elderly, pregnant women, and patients with defective cellular immunity.
* Neonates: Meningitis
* Pregnant/Elderly: Severe flu-like symptoms/meningitis/bacteremia

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29
Q

Listeria monocytogenes
* How do you dx and tx it?

A
  • Dx: CSF gram-stain will be negative, PCR is diagnostic
  • Tx: Gentamicin + penicillin or ampicillin
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30
Q

Fecal Incontinence
* What is it?
* Most stem from what? (2)
* In some causes, what can contribute? (3)
* What are some other risk factors?(3)

A

Involuntary passage of stool due to lack of sphincter control
* Most stem from CNS or peripheral nerve destruction (MS)
* In some cases, hemorrhoids and rectal prolapse can contribute as well as use of laxatives or parasitic conditions
* Other risk factors are vaginal or cesarean delivery or anal trauma

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31
Q
A
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32
Q

Fecal Incontinence
* What is passive and urge incontinence?
* What is fecal seepage?

A
  • Passive incontinence: Passive discharge of fecal material without any awareness; indicates neurological disease, impaired anorectal reflexes or sphincter dysfunction
  • Urge incontinence: Inability to retain stool despite active attempts with preserved sensation; indicates sphincter dysfunction or inability of the rectum to hold stool
  • Fecal seepage: Undesired leakage of stool often after abowel movement with normal continence
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33
Q

Fecal Incontinence
* What do you need to do for exam?

A
  • Inspect for abnormalities and perform detailed neurological and rectal exam
  • May use anal wink reflex, assess tone by having patient contract the sphincter
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34
Q

Fecal Incontinence: Dx
* Focus to r/o what?
* If incontinence without diarrhea, what should be performed?
* What is reserved for refractory or pre-operative assessment

A
  • Focus to r/o infection, osmolality, steatorrhea of pancreatic insufficiency
  • If incontinence without diarrhea, anorectal manometry with endoscopic ultrasound should be performed
  • Defecography reserved for refractory or pre-operative assessment
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35
Q

Fecal Incontinence
* What are the supportive measures?
* What can do for medical management? (3)
* What can also be done?

A

Supportive measures: avoidance of provocations and treat underlying cause (if known)

Medical management
* Bulking agents (methycellulose)
* Loperamide or diphenoxylate
* If both urinary and fecal incontinece, amitriptyline is helpful

Biofeedback and surgery

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36
Q

Malabsorption
* Impaired what?

A

Impaired mucosal absorption of nutrients

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37
Q

Malabsorption
* What are the the phases that impairment can occur? (3)

A
  • Luminal Phase: Nutrients are hydrolyzed and solubilized
  • Mucosal Phase: Further break down of nutrients at the cell membrane and transported to the cell
  • Transport Phase: Nutrients are transported to the vascular or lymphatic circulation
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38
Q

Luminal phase:
* What are the reduced nutrient availability causes?
* What are the defective nutrient hydrolysis causes? (3)

A

Reduced nutrient availability
* Cofactor deficiency (Pernicious Anemia) – intrinsic factor
* Nutrient consumption (Bacterial Overgrowth Syndrome) – not moving stuff well.

Defective nutrient hydrolysis
* Lipase
* Enzyme deficiency
* Improper mixing or rapid transit

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39
Q

Luminal phase:
* What is the impaired fat solubilization causes (5)

A
  • Reduced bile salt
  • Impaired bile salt secretion
  • Bile salt inactivation
  • Impaired CCK release
  • Increased bile salt losses
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40
Q

Mucosal Phase
* WHat are the causes? (3)

A
  • Extensive mucosal loss
  • Diffuse mucosal disease
  • Enterocyte defects
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41
Q

What are the mucosal phase enterocyte defects? (4)

A
  • Microvillous inclusion disease
  • Brush border hydrolase deficiency
  • Transport defects
  • Epithelial processing
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42
Q

Transport Phase
* What are the issues? (2)

A

Vascular
Lymphatic

43
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Malabsorption
* What are the sxs?

A
  • Diarrhea
  • Steatorrhea – foul-smelling, pale, bulky, greasy stools.
  • Abdominal bloating
  • Gas
  • Weight loss
44
Q

Clinical Manifestations of Malabsorption
* Symptoms resulting from nutritional deficiencies (A,D,E,K) – could have what?(7)

A

Symptoms resulting from nutritional deficiencies (A,D,E,K) – could have osteoporosis, easy bruising and high PT, Night blindness (Vit. A), Psychiatric/Neuro issues with Vit.E. Also Iron deficiency anemia, B12 deficiency and neuro symptoms.

45
Q

Diagnosing Malabsorption Syndrome
* Clinical what?
* Blood tests to look for what?
* What type of testing?
* Cause dx with what?

A
  • Clinical Signs/Manifestations
  • Blood tests to look for consequences of malabsorption (Vit. K – PT), Vit D directly, beta-Carotene level for Vit A, transferrin, ferritin, serum iron, B12/folate etc.
  • Fecal fat testing
  • Cause diagnosed with endoscopy w/ biopsy, barium contrast x-rays, and other tests
46
Q

Diagnostic Tests of malabsorption: Fecal Fat Stain
* Pros?
* What is + and - results?

A
  • Simple and easy
  • If results are + for excessive fat (>15-20 orange fatty acid droplets/hpf), patient has steatorrhea
  • Negative tests less helpful
47
Q

72 hr stool collection-Malabsorption
* Quantitates what? What is recommended?
* What needs to happen 2 days before and during the collection?

A
  • Quantitates fecal fat excretion (require an intake of 60 -100 g of fat/day)
  • 44-77g of fat is recommended in a 2000 calorie diet
  • 2 days before and during patient must ingest extra fats
48
Q

72 hr stool collection- malabsorption
* What is normal fecal fat?
* What are the results if steatorrhea is present?
* Once steatorrhea is recognized, what needs to happen?

A
  • Normal fecal fat < 7 grams per 24 hours (typical American diet of 75-100 grams of fat)
  • If patients produce > 7 grams per 24 hours or >21g per 72hrs, steatorrhea is present
  • Once steatorrhea is recognized further testing is performed depending on etiology suspected
49
Q

Small Bowel Biopsy: malabsorption
* If structural disorder of jejunal epithelial cell suspected, what can can you do?
* What can it help you confirm?

A

If structural disorder of jejunal epithelial cell suspected, SMALL BOWEL BIOPSY based on tissue obtained via endoscopy can confirm diagnosis in:
* Celiac sprue
* Whipple’s disease
* Abetalipoproteinemia – cannot absorb and process fat

50
Q

Small Bowel Biopsy
* What can be sent out and for what?

A

Aspirate of the small bowel can be sent for bacterial culture (to evaluate for bacterial overgrowth)

51
Q

D- Xylose Absorption Test: malabsorpion
* Best noninvasive test to determine what?
* D- Xylose is absorbed where?
* Why can it be measured in the urine?

A
  • Best noninvasive test to determine small bowel malabsorption
  • D-Xylose, a sugar absorbed in the duodenum and jejunum (that does not require pancreatic enzymes for digestion), is administered orally.
  • It is not completely metabolized and is excreted in the urine in its intact form. So, it can be measured in the urine
52
Q

D- Xylose Absorption Test: Malabsorption
* In patients with mucosal intestinal disease, what will happen?
* This test required what?
* If it is and not in the urine?

A

In patients with mucosal intestinal disease, the d-xylose will not be absorbed and will therefore have low or absent levels in the urine (<4g after a 25g dose).

This test requires normal renal function
* If not urine -> bowel mucosal disease
* If in urine -> may indicate pancreatic disease

53
Q

Schilling Test
* How does it work? (part 1)

A

Part 1: radiolabeled B12 is given orally. The urine is collected for 24 to 48 hours and then counted to measure the patient’s absorption of B12.
* If part 1 is low, absorption is impaired (it is unknown whether the cause is a deficiency of intrinsic factor).

54
Q

Schilling Test
* When B12 is low, what should you give to see if it improves?
* What are the results? (2)

A
  • Part 2: intrinsic factor is given, along with the tracer dose, to see if absorption is improved.
  • The marked improvement of urine B12 with the administration of intrinsic factor is diagnostic of intrinsic factor deficiency (Pernicious Anemia).
  • The lack of improvement with the administration of intrinsic factor is likely due to Intestinal factors (malabsorption syndrome/taperworm).
55
Q

Hydrogen 14 C-xylose breath test: malabsorption
* How is it done?
* Is measured to evaluate what?

A
  • A carbohydrate is administered orally to the patient (lactose, fructose) and then the patient’s expired air is measured for H2.
  • Is measured to evaluate malabsorption/mucosal damage, which causes it not to be absorbed, then move to intestines where it is metabolized to H2 and CH4
56
Q

Hydrogen 14 C-xylose breath test: malabsorption
* What does this test rely on?
* Helpful in what?

A
  • The test relies on colonic (or small intestinal, in the case of small intestinal bacterial overgrowth syndrome) bacterial fermentation of non-absorbed carbohydrate.
  • Helpful in bacterial overgrowth syndrome and lactose intolerance
57
Q

Bacterial Overgrowth Syndrome
* What is it? Can spontaneouly occur in who?

A
  • Normal motor function, gastric acid, an intestinal immunoglobulins all help prevent bacterial overgrowth in the proximal small bowel
  • Can spontaneously occur in patients with Scleroderma/DM neuropathy which naturally slows down the gut
58
Q

Bacterial Overgrowth Syndrome
* How do you dx it?
* What is the txt?

A

Diagnosis
* Hydrogen 14 C-xylose breath test
* May consider empirical therapeutic trial with antibiotics (14 days of Augmentin)

Treatment
* Antibiotics (effective against aerobic and anaerobic enteric organisms)
* Avoid giving antimotility agents to patients with infectious bowel disease

59
Q

What are the specific types of malabsorption? (5)

A
  • Pancreatic Insufficiency
  • Celiac Sprue
  • Tropical Sprue
  • Whipple’s Disease
  • Bacterial Overgrowth
60
Q

Pancreatic Exocrine Insufficiency
* What is the msot frequent cause?
* What does the history show? (2)

A

Chronic pancreatitis is the most frequent cause

History
* History of excessive alcohol intake
* Previous episodes of pancreatitis/abdominal pain

61
Q

Pancreatic Exocrine Insufficiency: Dx
* How do dx chronic pancreatitis?
* How do you dx for pancreatic insufficiency? (invasive and non-invasive)

A

Chronic pancreatitis - Pancreatic Enzymes (amylase and lipase) may be elevated & Pancreatic calcifications may be seen on KUB or CT scan

Test for pancreatic insufficiency:
Invasive:
* Secretin stimulation test: Secretin is administered intravenously and pancreatic juice is aspirated from the duodenum and analyzed for bicarbonate and amylase levels produced by ductal cells. Low levels indicate pancreatic exocrine insufficiency.
* CCK test measures the ability of the acinar cells to secrete digestive enzyme.

Non-invasive: measurement of fecal chymotrypsin and/or fecal elastase

62
Q

What does this show?

A

KUB: Pancreatic Calcifications in Chronic Pancreatitis

Only in chronic. In Acute KUB is nl.

63
Q

Celiac Sprue
* Most common type of what?
* What are other names?
* What is it?
* Affected persons have what?

A
  • Most common type of mucosal malabsorption
  • AKA - Nontropical Sprue or Gluten-Sensitive Enteropathy
  • Immunologic intolerance to gluten
  • Affected persons have a genetic predisposition
64
Q

Celiac sprue:
* What is the pathophysio?

A

Exposure to gliadin protein which is an alcohol-soluble fraction of gluten (found in wheat, barley, rye, oats) evokes a cellular immune response that causes mucosal damage mainly in the proximal intestine.

65
Q

Celiac Sprue: presention
* What is happening with GI?
* Skin?
* Blood?

A
  • Crampy abdominal pain, diarrhea, flatulence, bloating, weight loss, steatorrhea.
  • Dermatitis Herpetiformis – blistering, pruritic skin rash (Gluten rash)
  • Iron deficiency anemia
66
Q

Celiac Sprue: Presentation
* What happens with bones?
* Nerves?
* skin? (2)

A
  • Osteoporosis (vitamin D malabsorption)
  • Peripheral neuropathy (B12 deficiency)
  • Easy bruising (vitamin K malabsorption)
  • Edema (malabsorption of protein).
67
Q

Celiac Sprue
* How do you dx it?

A

EGD w/ Intestinal biopsy

TTG (tissue Transglutaminase) IgA Endomysial antibodies are present

Serologic blood tests
* Tissue transglutaminase antibodies
* Anti-gliadin antibodies (IgA and IgG)
* Anti-endomysial antibodies (IgA)

68
Q

Celiac Sprue
* what is the txt?

A
  • Strict gluten-free diet for life.
  • Correct micronutrient deficiencies
69
Q

What happens to the mucosa in celiac sprue?

A
  • Characterized by villous atrophy & crypt hyperplasia in proximal small bowel (right image)
  • Blunting & flattening of villi with celiac disease, & in severe cases a loss of villi with flattening of mucosa
70
Q

Tropical Sprue
* Mechanism is what?
* May produce what?
* occurs in who?
* Onset? Response to what?
* What is the tx?

A
  • Mechanism is mucosal malabsorption
  • May produce a histologic & clinical syndrome like Celiac sprue
  • Occurs in residents of or travelers to tropical climates
  • Often abrupt onset & response to antibiotics suggests infectious etiology.
    * Tx: Tetracyclines
71
Q

Whipple’s Disease
* Due to what?
* Less common cause of what?
* Typically occurs in what?
* Frequently associated with what?(4)

A
  • Due to the actinomycete Tropheryma whippleii & histiocytic infiltration of small bowel mucosa
  • Less common cause of steatorrhea
  • Typically occurs in young or middle-aged men
  • Frequently associated with arthralgias, fever, lymphadenopathy, & extreme fatigue
72
Q

Whipple’s Disease
* May affect what?
* Dx how?
* How do you tx it?

A
  • May affect CNS & endocardium.
  • Dx: Biopsy or a PCR test
  • Tx: ceftriaxone for 2 weeks and Bactrim for 1-2 years
73
Q

Altered Motility
* What causes increased colonic motility?
* What causes decreased small bowel motility?

A
  • Increased colonic motility: Irritable bowel syndrome
  • Decreased small bowel motility: Scleroderma with bacterial overgrowth
74
Q

Altered Motility
* What causes increased small bowel motility?

A

Increased small bowel motility - diarrhea
* Hyperthyroidism
* Autonomic diabetic neuropathy
* Vagotomy or partial gastrectomy

75
Q

Evaluation of Diarrhea
* What are the two types?
* What should be done for routine and specialized microbiologic cultures
* Stool specimens for what?

A
  • Acute (infectious #1) vs Chronic
  • Stool specimens for routine and specialized microbiologic cultures
  • Stool specimens for stool electrolytes to calculate fecal osmotic gap->Osmotic vs Secretory
76
Q

Evaluation of Diarrhea
* What medicine do you need to r/o?
* What do you need to look for blood tests?

A

R/O medications
* Olmesartan, metformin, clindamycin/augmentin, sertraline (Zoloft), metoprolol, omeprazole, lithium, Synthroid etc.

Blood tests to evaluate for :
* Anemia
* Electrolyte disturbances
* Prothrombin time (vitamin K)
* Albumin
* Iron, Ferritin, Folate, vitamin B12
* Beta carotene

77
Q

Evaluation of Diarrhea
* What are the dx imaging that can be done?

A

Upper Endoscopy, Colonoscopy (if blood is present w/ stool is present or to evaluate cause of malabsorption syndrome via biopsy)

78
Q

Evaluation of Diarrhea
* What tests do you need to do for malabsorption?

A
  • D-xylose absorption test
  • Fat Sudan stain
  • 72 hour stool fat collection (abnormal: greater than 7 grams of fat/24hrs)
  • H2tests
  • Tests for pancreatic insufficiency
  • Test for etiology of B12 deficiency
79
Q

Evaluation of Diarrhea: Tests for malabsorption
* What are the Tests for pancreatic insufficiency?
* What are the tests for etiology of B12 deficiency?

A

Tests for pancreatic insufficiency:
* Invasive: secretin stimulation test
* Non-invasive: measurement of fecal chymotrypsin and/or fecal elastase

Test for etiology of B12 deficiency:
* Schilling test

80
Q

Treatment of Diarrhea
* Depends on what?
* Ensure what?
* Correct what?

A
  • Depends on underlying cause
  • Ensure adequate hydration and correct electrolyte imbalance
  • Correct nutritional deficiencies in malabsorption syndromes
81
Q

Treatment of Diarrhea
* What are the sxs treatment?

A

Symptomatic treatment - Anti-diarrheal agents to slow motility
* Do not use anti-diarrheal agents that slow motility in patients with infectious diarrhea (fever, acute bloody diarrhea) – C.diff

82
Q

Malnutrition
* What is primary and secondary deficiency?

A
  • Primary deficiency - results directly from dietary lack of a specific essential nutrient.
  • Secondary deficiency - results from the inability of the body to use specific nutrients properly.
83
Q

Malnutrition: Secondary deficiency
* What is failed? (2)

A
  • failure to absorb the nutrient from the alimentary tract into the blood (i.e. malabsorption syndrome)
  • failure to metabolize the nutrient normally after it has been absorbed (i.e. phenylketonuria).
84
Q

What is the difference between Marasmus vs Kwashiorkor

A

Marasmus: Caused primarily by a severe deficiency in total calorie intake (both protein and energy). It’s a result of prolonged starvation or insufficient intake of all nutrients.

Kwashiorkor: Primarily caused by severe protein deficiency despite an adequate intake of calories. It typically occurs when a child is weaned off breast milk onto a diet high in carbohydrates but low in protein.

85
Q

Thiamine (Vitamin B1) Deficiency
* What is wet vs dry?

A

Wet Beriberi - heart
* Edema and heart failure with prompt resolution after B1 administration
* Can get Dilated cardiomyopathy

Dry Beriberi - neuro
* Neurologic manifestations (neuropathy), mental confusion

86
Q

Thiamine (Vitamin B1) Deficiency
* Infantile beriberi occurs in who? Symptoms?

A

Infantile beriberi occurs in infants breastfed by thiamin-deficient mothers. Heart failure and absent deep tendon reflexes are common.

87
Q

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
* Seen in who?
* What are the sxs?

A

Seen in alcoholics who do not consume foods with thiamin.

SXS : ataxia, nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, impaired consciousness, mental confusion (all are Wernicke part), and confabulation with impaired memory of recent events (Korsakoff part).
* If you give them D50 initially, patient will get more confused

88
Q

What is the txt of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?

A

TX: Thiamine
* Do so before D50
* Helps to metabolize glucose

89
Q

Riboflavin (B2) Deficiency
* What are the sxs?

A

Angular stomatitis and chelitis

90
Q

Niacin (B3) Deficiency
* What are the sxs?

A
  • photosensitive Dermatitis (in sun exposed areas)
  • Diarrhea
  • Dementia
  • Last D could be Death

4 D’s

91
Q

Niacin (B3) Deficiency
* What are the SE of niacin?

A
  • flushing
  • tachycardia
  • Sweating
92
Q

B12 (Cobalamine) Deficiency
* What does it cause? Why does this happen?

A
  • System is unable to develop RBCs due to lack of B12
  • Most common cause is lack of intrinsic factor (gastric protein) in absorption cascade which is a co-factor for B12 absorption
  • Can also be seen in tapeworm infection
93
Q

B12 (Cobalamine) Deficiency
* Expect what type of anemia and sxs?
* How do you differentiate B1 and B12 ?

A

Expects macrocytic anemia and neurological symptoms

Differentiate B1 and B12 deficiencies via testing of MMA and homocysteine
* Both are elevated in B12 deficiency
* Only homocysteine is elevated = folate deficiency

94
Q

Vitamin C Deficiency
* What are the sxs?

A

Scurvy
* Bleeding and bruising easily due to weakened blood vessels, cartilage, and other tissues containing collagen
* Perifollicular Hemorrhage
* “Corkscrew Hairs”
* Bleeding Gums

95
Q

Vitamin C Deficiency
* mimics what? What makes it different?

A

Mimics Vit K deficiency, but administration of Vit K does not improve symptoms
* Also see normal PT/INR

96
Q

Vitamin A Deficiency
* What happens to Bowels?
* What are the sxs?

A

Typically malabsorptive
* Steatorrhea

Symptoms
* Night Blindness
* Follicular Hyperkeratosis

97
Q

Vitamin D Deficiency
* What are two diseases that can occur?

A
  • Rickets
  • Osteomalacia
98
Q

Vitamin K Deficiency
* What is prolonged?
* What are the causes?(4)

A

Prolonged PT/INR

Causes
* Malabsorption
* Fat malabsorption
* Long antibiotic therapy (destroys vitamin K synthesizing bacteria in the intestine)
* Vitamin K Antagonists

99
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU)
* What is it? what is a sxs?
* What does it lead to?

A
  • Inborn error of the metabolism of phenylalanine
  • Musty smell of urine in newborns
  • May lead to significant development delays & mental retardation, and seizures
100
Q

Phenylketonuria (PKU)
* What is the txt?

A

TX - Reducing phenylalanine intake (eliminating meat, fish, poultry, milk, eggs, cheese, ice cream, legumes, nuts)

101
Q

Refeeding Syndrome
* Medical complications resulting from what?
* Seen in who?

A

Medical complications resulting from fluid and electrolyte shifts as a result of prolonged period of starvation.

Seen in patients with eating disorders and renal patients on hemodialysis or those on post-TPN.
* Also seen in post-surgical state, IBD patients, in patients who abuse alcohol

102
Q

Refeeding Syndrome
* What is the hallmark of the disease?
* What is the mortality rate?

A
  • Hypophosphatemia is the hallmark of the disease with many other metabolic issues such as hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia and thiamine deficiency resulting in cardiopulmonary and neurological sequela.
  • Carries a high-mortality rate (WW2 prison camps after liberation as high as 20% died from nutritional replenishment)
103
Q

Refeeding Syndrome
* What is the dx criteria?

A

Diagnostic criteria (NICE guideline)
* Low body mass index (BMI)
* Unintentional weight loss
* Starvation
* History of alcohol abuse
* Low initial electrolyte concentrations (typically phosphate)

104
Q

Refeeding Syndrome
* What is the txt?
* How can you monitor it?

A
  • Supportive: limiting calories and nutrient intake
  • Supplementation of arginine and glutamine as well as thiamine
  • Can monitor for refeeding syndrome by tracking phosphate levels in patients in prolonged hospitalization or ICU