Lecture 5 - Alloantibodies Flashcards

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1
Q

what is an alloantibody?

A

an antibody formed in response to a sensitising event

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2
Q

what are examples of alloantibodies?

A

Kell, cellano, duffy

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3
Q

what groups of antibodies are the most concerning?

A

IgG and IgM

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4
Q

what are the differences between IgG and IgM?

A

IgG can only cross placenta, IgM has lower optimal temperature and a higher immune response

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5
Q

what is the mechanism of an acute haemolytic reaction?

A

the activation of complement or the action of macrophages in a response to an alloantibody

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6
Q

how does complement activation cause an acute haemolytic reaction?

A

the final steps in the pathway initiate haemolysis of the red cells

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7
Q

what is involved in the clinical phase of haemolytic shock?

A

lysis of red cells causes free haemoglobin and remnants of red cell membrane, activation of coagulation cascade which causes DIC

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8
Q

what are the symptoms of haemolytic shock?

A

hypotension due to lack of red cells, vasodilation, tachycardia to maintain bp, rapid and shallow breathing due to stimulation of sympathetic nervous system, chest and lumbar pain

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9
Q

what is phase 2 of acute haemolytic shock?

A

post shock, evidence of haemolysis

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10
Q

what are the features of phase 2?

A

haemoglobinuria, drop in Hb, raised bilirubin, jaundice

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11
Q

what does the blood film of blood in stage 2 of acute haemolytic anaemia look like?

A

shows agglutination, spherocytes and red cell fragments

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12
Q

what is stage 3 of acute haemolytic anaemia? what happens?

A

oliguric, free Hb in the blood causes toxic acute tubular necrosis which leads to acute renal failure

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13
Q

what is stage 4 of acute haemolytic anaemia?

A

diuretic, renal tubules remain scarred causing loss of potassium, electrolyte imbalance, spontaneous urination

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14
Q

what is a delayed haemolytic reaction?

A

the mechanism of macrophages mainly in the spleen which monitor the red blood cells for IgG antibodies

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15
Q

what two actions can the spleen take if they detect an IgG antibody?

A

remove the cell from circulation or remove the part of the membrane with the antibody which forms spherocytes

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16
Q

what is extravascular haemolysis?

A

the action of the spleen on red blood cells

17
Q

what antibodies are associated with delayed transfusion reactions?

A

Jk antibodies

18
Q

what antibodies increase in titre following 1st exposure?

A

IgM followed by IgG, second exposure is larger amount of IgG

19
Q

what is eluate?

A

strong acid is used to remove the antibodies from the red cell so that they can be identified

20
Q

why can’t IgG antibodies be used for ABO grouping?

A

they cannot bridge the zeta potential between two red cells as they carry a slight negative charge

21
Q

what would you do to ABO group if you only have IgG antibodies?

A

perform an indirect Antiglobulin test

22
Q

how does an indirect anti globulin test work?

A

serum and red cells mixed and washed to remove unbound antibodies, anti-human antibody added that will bind to two antibodies if present, and if they are present this will cause agglutination of red cells

23
Q

what are antibody screening cells?

A

red cells that express specific antigens so that they can be mixed with patient plasma to detect alloantibodies

24
Q

what is the dosage effect?

A

a stronger reaction occurring with homozygous antigen expression as opposed to heterozygous

25
Q

what does papain do?

A

enhances reaction with Rh system antibodies and Kidd system antibodies, destroys antibodies associated with MNS and Duffy system

26
Q

how can autoantibodies cause false positive reactions?

A

autoantibodies react positively with all antigens

27
Q

how can identification of an antibody be conformed by phenotyping?

A

if a patient expresses an antibody then it should be antigen negative for that antibody