Lecture 4 (Part 1)-Anesthesia Management Of The Pediatric Trauma Patient Flashcards

1
Q

___ is the #1 cause of death in those age 1-19 years

A

Trauma

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2
Q

Primary causes of death/long-term disability—traumatic brain injury ___%, thoracic injury___%, abdominal injury ___%

A

TBI 70%, thoracic injury 20%, abdominal injury 10%

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3
Q

Categories of trauma—blunt trauma is ___% of non-burn trauma in children; penetrating trauma is ___% of non-burn trauma in children; burns

A

Blunt trauma is 90% of non-burn trauma in children; penetrating trauma is 10% of non-burn trauma in children; burns

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4
Q

Phases of trauma care—___ survey with concurrent resuscitation; ___ survey; definitive care

A

Primary survey; secondary survey

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5
Q

Primary survey—ABCDE’s

A
A—airway
B—breathing
C—circulation
D—disability
E—expose
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6
Q

ABCDE’s—airway—ensure ___ airway

A

Ensure patent airway

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7
Q

ABCDE’s—breathing—assess and provide adequate ___

A

Respiration

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8
Q

ABCDE’s—circulation—assess and assist the circulation with ___ and ___ as needed

A

IV fluids and CPR as needed

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9
Q

ABCDE’s—disability—assess ___ injury

A

Neurologic

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10
Q

ABCDE’s—expose—remove ___ for complete visual exam and then take appropriate steps to prevent/treat ___thermia

A

Remove clothing; to prevent/treat hypothermia

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11
Q

Secondary survey—complete ___ exam; ___—medical, surgical, family; ___ tests; ___ imaging

A

Complete physical exam; history—medical, surgical, family; laboratory tests; radiologic imaging

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12
Q

Secure the airway—intubation indications = ___ation; ___ation; ____ precaution

A

Ventilation; oxygenation; aspiration precaution

Provider should be experienced!

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13
Q

Pediatric airway—relatively ___ (small/large) tongue; larynx and glottic opening are more ___ (cephalad/caudal)

A

Relatively large tongue; larynx and glottic opening are more cephalad

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14
Q

Pediatric airway—most narrow point in the airway is the ___ cartilage; do NOT ___ an ETT

A

Most narrow point in the airway is the cricoid cartilage; do NOT force an ETT!!!

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15
Q

Pediatric airway—___ (longer/shorter) overall airway length and ___ (smaller/larger) diameter; ___ is more significant in this patient population; higher likelihood for ___ (left/right) mainstem; ___ endotracheal tubes are more commonly used now

A

Shorter overall airway length and smaller diameter; edema is more significant in this patient population; higher likelihood for right mainstem; cuffed ETT are more commonly used now

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16
Q

Initial airway management—___ ventilation with ___% oxygen +/- ___ maneuver

A

Bag-valve-mask ventilation with 100% oxygen +/- jaw thrust maneuver

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17
Q

Intubation is indicated for those with ___ compromise, ___ collapse, ___ level of consciousness

A

Respiratory compromise, cardiovascular collapse, altered level of consciousness

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18
Q

Alternatives to intubation—___ does NOT protect against aspiration of gastric contents and therefore should be replaced as soon as experienced hands are available

A

LMA

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19
Q

Head and neck protection—children are more likely (because of their neck musculature, their disproportionately large head size, and elasticity of their supporting structures) to sustain cervical neck injuries above C___

A

Above C3

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20
Q

It is frequently difficult to rule out a spinal cord injury because 50% of these injuries exist in the absence of radiographic findings—T/F?

A

True

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21
Q

Always assume a spinal cord injury is present until a ___ scan can be obtained confirming that there is not such injury

A

CT scan

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22
Q

Intubation with C-spine injury—patient ___; head/neck in ___ position; avoid head ___ or chin ___ maneuvers; ___-person job with ___ stabilization

A

Patient supine; head/neck in neutral position; avoid head lift or chin lift maneuvers; two-person job with manual inline axial stabilization

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23
Q

Intubation with C-spine injury—direct laryngoscopy with ___; ___ Bronchoscopy; ___ laryngoscope…all are options depending heavily on acuity and injuries; common to utilize ___ so that others can visualize the airway as well

A

Direct laryngoscopy with RSI; fiberoptic bronchoscopy; Bullard laryngoscope; common to utilize the glidescope so that others can visualize the airway as well

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24
Q

Post-intubation—confirm placement via ___ exam/___; ___ radiograph; ___ decompression with OGT; secure the ___, may need to be creative

A

Confirm placement via physical exam/ETCO2; chest radiograph; gastric decompression with OGT; secure the ETT, may need to be creative

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25
Q

Secondary airway considerations—head injury—increased ___ d/t injury + airway manipulation; ___ skull fracture—strong indications are rhinorrhea, otorrhea, periorbital ecchymosis…avoid ___ instrumentation

A

Increased ICP; basilar skull fracture—avoid nasal instrumentation

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26
Q

Secondary airway considerations—neck injury—___ may indicate tracheal or bronchial interruption; consider intubation via flexible ___ bronchoscope in a spontaneously ventilating patient to avoid false passage of the endotracheal tube

A

Crepitus; consider intubation via flexible fiberoptic bronchoscope

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27
Q

Difficult airway management—transport patient to ___ if feasible; attending ENT surgeon or general surgeon dedicated to the airway; ___ induction with care to maintain ___ ventilation; avoid ___ until airway is secure; ___ and ___ can be used to facilitate short-acting IV induction while blunting ICP responses and maintaining spontaneous ventilation

A

Transport patient to OR if feasible; inhalation induction with care to maintain spontaneous ventilation; avoid muscle relaxants until airway is secure; propofol and remifentanil can be used to facilitate short-acting IV induction while blunting ICP responses and maintaining spontaneous ventilation

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28
Q

Injuries affecting ventilation—simple ___ pneumothorax; ___ pneumothorax; massive ___thorax; ___ chest; pulmonary ___

A

Simple tension pneumothorax; open pneumothorax; massive hemothorax; flail chest; pulmonary contusion

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29
Q

___ = widespread inadequate organ and tissue perfusion

A

Shock

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30
Q

Prompt recognition of ___volemic and ___ shock is essential

A

Hypovolemic and hemorrhagic shock

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31
Q

___-___% of total blood volume can be lost prior to evidence of hypotension

A

25-35%

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32
Q

___ = early sign of cardiovascular compromise and impending shock; generally indicates at least ___% loss of circulating blood volume

A

Tachycardia; generally indicates at least 10% loss of circulating blood volume

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33
Q

Signs of inadequate peripheral perfusion—___cardia; ___ capillary refill (> 2 sec.); ___ or ___ pulses; ___ing or ___osis; ___ consciousness

A

Tachycardia; delayed capillary refill (> 2 sec.); weak or thready pulses; mottling or cyanosis; impaired consciousness

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34
Q

___ in a child should be recognized as a late sign of hypovolemia and hemorrhage; it is an ominous sign of impending cardiovascular collapse

A

Hypotension

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35
Q

Hypotension indicates ___% blood volume loss in children (approximately ___ml/kg)

A

25% (approximately 20 ml/kg)

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36
Q

___ is a dangerous sign in children, indicating hypoxemia, impending cardiac arrest, or increased ICP

A

Bradycardia

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37
Q

Stages of pediatric blood volume loss and associated clinical signs—<20% = CV—___cardia; ___, ___ pulses; skin is ___ to touch, capillary refill ___ to ___ seconds; renal—slight ___ (increases/decreases) in urine output, ___ (increase/decrease) in urine specific gravity; CNS—___, may be ___

A

CV—tachycardia; weak, thready pulses

Skin is cool to touch, capillary refill 2 to 3 seconds

Renal—slight decreases in urine output, increase in urine specific gravity

CNS—irritable, may be combative

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38
Q

Stages of pediatric blood volume loss and associated clinical signs—25% = CV—___cardia; ___, ___ distal pulses; skin—___ (warm/cold) extremities, ___osis and ___ing; renal—___ (increase/decrease) in urine output; CNS—___ion, ___gy

A

CV—tachycardia; weak, thready distal pulses

Skin—cold extremities, cyanosis and mottling

Renal—decrease in urine output

CNS—confusion, lethargy

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39
Q

Stages of pediatric blood volume loss and associated clinical signs—40%—CV—frank ___tension, ___cardia may progress to ___cardia; skin—___, ___ (warm/cold); renal—___ urine output; CNS—___tose

A

CV—frank hypotension, tachycardia may progress to bradycardia

Skin—pale, cold

Renal—no urine output

CNS—comatose

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40
Q

Volume resuscitation—the initial fluid bolus should be ___ solution; ___ ml/kg; ___ or ___

A

Warmed isotonic crystalloid solution; 20 ml/kg; Lactated Ringers or Normal Saline

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41
Q

Volume resuscitation—if no response or transient improvement from initial bolus, give ___

A

Second bolus of 20 ml/kg

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42
Q

Volume resuscitation—if necessary, a ___ bolus can be administered for maintenance

A

Third

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43
Q

Volume resuscitation—additional volume resuscitation should begin with ___ ml/kg of ___

A

10 ml/kg of blood

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44
Q

Persistent shock—if volume resuscitation does not show marked improvement, further investigation is required for other causes—T/F?

A

True

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45
Q

Other causes of persistent shock: ___ bone fractures; ___ fracture; pericardial effusion and tamponade occur more commonly with ___ than ___ trauma; ___ pneumothorax; intra-___ injuries to solid organs and vessels; ___ hemorrhage in infants with expandable fontanelles can lead to significant unrecognized blood loss

A

Long bone fractures; pelvic fracture; pericardial effusion and tamponade occur more commonly with penetrating than blunt trauma; tension pneumothorax; intra-abdominal injuries to solid organs and vessels; intracranial hemorrhage in infants with expandable fontanelles can lead to significant unrecognized blood loss

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46
Q

Peripheral IV access is useful but usually difficult in the child in shock—check the ___ first

A

AC

47
Q

Central lines should be placed in the ___ vessels; subclavian and neck vessels offer too many possible complications in the acute phase of resuscitation

A

Femoral vessels

48
Q

___ needle access is viable in all ages when placed properly

A

Intraosseous needle access

49
Q

Disability/diagnostic evaluation—plain film x-ray is generally limited to ___, ___, and lateral ___; further radiographs are directed to specific physical findings

A

Plain film x-ray is generally limited to chest, pelvis, and lateral c-spine

50
Q

Disability/diagnostic evaluation—CT scans can be done on ___ (loss of consciousness, altered mental status, focal neurologic deficits); ___ (to supplement plain film x-ray); and ___/___ (abdominal injuries or tenderness, as a screening in obtunded patients)

A

Head; neck; and abdomen/pelvis

51
Q

Disability/diagnostic evaluation—FAST = ___; less valuable in ___ patients as less free fluid is generated

A

FAST = focused abdominal sonogram for trauma; less valuable in smaller patients as less free fluid is generated

52
Q

Disability and diagnostic evaluation—laboratory testing—as most trauma patients are generally healthy prior to injuries, laboratory data is focused to ___ information—CBC, type & screen, ABG, urinalysis

A

Needed information

53
Q

Disability—neurologic assessment—AVPU (completed in ___ survey) = ___; GCS is completed during ___ survey

A

AVPU (completed in primary survey) = alert, responds to voice, responds to pain, unresponsive

GCS is completed during secondary survey

54
Q

Exposure—___ all of patient’s clothing, using shears if necessary to avoid additional injury; ___ the patient for direct assessment of the patient’s posterior surfaces; immediately upon completion of the assessment, ensure initiation of ___thermia treatment/prevention

A

Remove all of patient’s clothing, using shears if necessary to avoid additional injury; log-roll the patient for direct assessment of the patient’s posterior surfaces; immediately upon completion of the assessment, ensure initiation of hypothermia treatment/prevention

55
Q

Facial trauma categories—___ tissue, ___, ___ fractures

A

Soft tissue, dental, facial fractures

56
Q

For all categories of facial trauma, they occur more frequently in ___ (males/females)

A

Males

57
Q

Generally, facial trauma is less severe in children less than ___ years of age; ___% of children with facial injuries are less than ___ years of age; most common facial trauma = ___ injuries

A

Less than 5 years of age; 42% of children with facial injuries are less than 5 years of age; most common = soft tissue injuries

58
Q

Facial trauma mainly occurs d/t ___

A

Falls

59
Q

Increased incidence of facial trauma in ___ (what age group?)

A

Adolescence

60
Q

“Falling zone” — ___ to ___ is where most injuries are concentrated

A

Nose to mentum

61
Q

Dental trauma—___ (increasing/decreasing) rate throughout childhood

A

Decreasing

62
Q

Loss of dentition or severe injury can hinder airway security/intervention—T/F?

A

True

63
Q

Dental trauma patients may require ___scopy to clear debris from lower airways

A

Bronchoscopy

64
Q

___ are the least common type of facial injury in children

A

Facial fractures

65
Q

___ fractures are the most common type of facial fracture in children, followed by ___ and ___ fractures

A

Nasal fractures, followed by mandibular and maxillary fractures

66
Q

Oropharyngeal lacerations/impalement occur d/t falls complicated by objects in the mouth (i.e.: pencils, pens, toothbrushes, sticks, etc.); this creates complicated airways (difficult to work around foreign body); ___ should precede removal of objects, depending on the location

A

Angiogram

67
Q

___ injuries can be immediately life threatening because they impair ___ or ___

A

Chest because they impair breathing or circulation

68
Q

Generally, pediatric chest injuries can be treated with ___ or ___ tube

A

Observation or thoracotomy tube

69
Q

Signs and symptoms of ___ = diminished breath sounds, tracheal deviation to the opposite side, hypotension, decreased lung compliance (increased pulmonary artery pressure)

A

Tension pneumothorax

70
Q

Tension pneumothorax etiology = air trapping in ___ space from the injured lung; each breath increases the ___

A

Pleural space; each breath increases the pressure

71
Q

Treatment of tension pneumothorax = needle decompression at the ___ intercostal space, ___ line

A

Needle decompression at the second intercostal space, mid-clavicular line

72
Q

___ pneumothorax = defect in the chest wall equalizes pressure of the lung/pleural space with the outside environment

A

Open

73
Q

Treatment of open pneumothorax = cover the defect with an ___ dressing and secure on ___ sides with tape

A

Cover the defect with an occlusive dressing and secure on three sides with tape

74
Q

Abdominal injuries are the cause of death in ___% of trauma fatalities

A

10%

75
Q

___ trauma is the most common cause of abdominal injuries

A

Blunt

76
Q

Careful ___ management is usually the treatment of choice for abdominal injuries in pediatric patients

A

Medical

77
Q

Solid organ injuries always require surgical intervention in blunt trauma—T/F?

A

False—rarely require surgical intervention

78
Q

___ is the leading cause of mortality in the pediatric trauma patient— > ___% of deaths

A

TBI— > 70% of deaths

79
Q

TBI is mainly caused by ___, but in children < 4 years of age, 30-50% of TBI cases are attributed to ___ or ___ (non-accidental trauma)

A

TBI is mainly caused by motor vehicle accidents, but in children < 4 years of age, 30-50% of TBI cases are attributed to falls or abuse (non-accidental trauma)

80
Q

Multisystem trauma is almost always associated with ___ in children

A

TBI

81
Q

Disproportionately large head and weak neck musculature, added to a high center of gravity yields a high risk of ___ injury, even at a low velocity

A

Coup-contrecoup

82
Q

Children are at increased risk for TBI because they have ___ (thinner/thicker) cranial bones and ___ (more/less) myelinated nerve tissue

A

Thinner cranial bones and less myelinated nerve tissue

83
Q

Phases of TBI—primary injury; secondary injury—___ response to trauma; secondary injury—___ response to trauma

A

Primary injury; secondary injury—cerebral response to trauma; secondary injury—systemic response to trauma

84
Q

Goal of care for the patient with TBI = minimize effects of ___ injury

A

Secondary

85
Q

TBI patients have a ___ (high/low) threshold for intubation

A

Low threshold

86
Q

Recall that a suspected basilar skull fracture is a contraindication for ___ intubation, ___ airway, ___ suction tube

A

Nasal intubation, nasal airway, gastric suction tube

87
Q

TBI—prompt treatment of systemic abnormalities such as ___, ___tension, ___emia, ___carbia

A

Shock, hypotension, hypoxemia, hypercarbia

88
Q

Cervical spine fractures occur in ___-___% of children with TBI

A

7-10%

89
Q

Assume ___/___ injury in the pediatric trauma patient

A

Vertebral/cord injury

90
Q

Fulcrum of cervical mobility in children is C___-C___, while it is C___-C___ in adults; for this reason, 60-70% of pediatric cervical fractures occur in C___-C___ in children vs. 16% in adults

A

C2-C3 in children, C5-C7 in adults; 60-70% of pediatric cervical fractures occur in C1-C2 in children

91
Q

Lawnmower injuries—___x injury rate with riding mowers vs. walk behind mowers

A

3x

92
Q

Skeletal injuries are rarely ___ threatening but may be ___ threatening d/t neurovascular compromise

A

Rarely life threatening but may be limb threatening d/t neurovascular compromise

93
Q

Skeletal injuries—control of ___ should occur as part of the primary survey

A

Hemorrhage

94
Q

Skeletal injuries—urgent or emergent surgical intervention is required for ___/___ fractures; fracture complicated by ___ impairment; fracture complicated by limb ___; ___ fractures; joint dislocations that cannot be ___; ___ syndromes

A

Complex/displaced fractures; fracture complicated by neurovascular impairment; fracture complicated by limb ischemia; open fractures; joint dislocations that cannot be reduced; compartment syndromes

95
Q

Vascular involvement typically with these types of fractures: supracondylar distal ___ fractures; distal ___; proximal ___; displaced ___ fractures; ___ dislocations

A

Supracondylar distal humerus fractures; distal femur; proximal tibia; displaced pelvic fractures; knee dislocations

96
Q

Perioperative management of the pediatric trauma patient—___ status; anesthetic agents; patient ___; ___ and ___ resuscitation

A

NPO status; anesthetic agents; patient monitoring; fluid and blood resuscitation

97
Q

NPO status—assume ___ stomach and take ___ precautions in all maneuvers

A

Assume full stomach and take aspiration precautions in all maneuvers

98
Q

Every trauma experiences delayed ___

A

Gastric emptying

99
Q

Anesthetic agents for the pediatric trauma patient—thiopental—___ protective; direct ___ depressant

A

Neuro protective; direct myocardial depressant

100
Q

Anesthetic agents for the pediatric trauma patient—propofol—___ protective; profound vaso___

A

Neuro protective; profound vasodilator

101
Q

Anesthetic agents for the pediatric trauma patient—etomidate—___ stability; ___ protective; ___ suppression

A

Hemodynamic stability; neuro protective; adrenal suppression

102
Q

Anesthetic agents for the pediatric trauma patient—ketamine—___ outflow; not ___ protective; can caused marked ___tension with ___ (increased/decreased) CBF

A

Sympathetic outflow; not neuroprotective; can cause marked hypotension with increased CBF

103
Q

Maintenance of anesthesia in the pediatric trauma patient is based on the nature and proposed ___ of the procedure; extent of ___; child’s ___tory, ___dynamic, and ___logic status; likelihood of postoperative ___

A

Based on the nature and proposed duration of the procedure; extent of injuries; child’s ventilatory, hemodynamic, and neurologic status; likelihood of postoperative mechanical ventilation

104
Q

Patient monitoring—___ monitoring and prevention/treatment of ___thermia are extremely important in trauma care—___ exposure at scene; ___, open wounds; rapid infusion of ___ fluids; exposure of body cavities and ___ losses

A

Temperature monitoring and prevention/treatment of hypothermia are extremely important in trauma care—cold exposure at scene; large, open wounds; rapid infusion of cold fluids; exposure of body cavities and evaporative losses

105
Q

Shock = a metabolic demand that exceeds either oxygen ___ or ___

A

Supply or delivery

106
Q

Assess initial fluid resuscitation in ED and continue prior to induction; goal is to ___, then induce

A

Volume resuscitate, then induce

107
Q

___volemia is end-point desired—achieve using ___ fluids (___ or ___); ___ is also acceptable; avoid ___ and ___

A

Normovolemia—achieve using isotonic fluids (LR or NS); 5% albumin is also acceptable; avoid dextrose and hetastarch

108
Q

Purpose of blood administration in trauma patients is to restore/maintain ___ capacity

A

Oxygen carrying capacity

109
Q

ABL up to ___% can usually be replaced with only crystalloids…evaluate carefully

A

40%

110
Q

Individuals with preexisting conditions (i.e.: cyanotic heart disease, blood dyscrasias) may require blood administration prior to ___% ABL

A

40%

111
Q

Type ___ non-crossmatched blood is preferred for emergencies

A

Type O-negative

112
Q

PRBCs—approximately ___ ml volume; Hct ___-___%; citrate in PRBCs binds ___, so must have it ready to administer; usually begin with ___-___ml/kg of blood depending on rapidity of blood loss

A

Approximately 250 ml volume; Hct 60-80%; citrate in PRBCs binds calcium, so must have it ready to administer; usually begin with 10-20 ml/kg of blood depending on rapidity of blood loss

113
Q

FFP—___ minute thaw time (from stored temp of -___C); must be used within ___ hours of thaw; provides ___ factors; transfuse when clotting studies become ___ (PT, aPTT prolonged); nonsurgical bleeding in children who receive more than one blood volume of PRBCs frequently require FFP d/t factor ___ and ___ deficiency; initial dose should be ___ to ___ ml/kg

A

45 minute thaw time (from stored temp of -18 C); must be used within 24 hours of thaw; provides clotting factors; transfuse when clotting studies become abnormal; nonsurgical bleeding in children who receive more than one blood volume of PRBCs frequently require FFP d/t factor V and VIII deficiency; initial dose should be 10 to 15 ml/kg

114
Q

Platelets—derived from centrifugation and recentrifugation of ___; thrombocytopenia is usually ___ and most likely cause of nonsurgical micro vascular bleeding following massive transfusion; platelets are usually required prior to ___; transfusion of 0.1 units/kg will raise the platelet count by ___; do NOT ___

A

Fresh whole blood; thrombocytopenia is usually dilutional and most likely cause of nonsurgical micro vascular bleeding following massive transfusion; platelets are usually required prior to FFP; transfusion of 0.1 units/kg will raise the platelet count by 20,000; do NOT refrigerate!!!