Lecture 3 (Part 2)-Peds Ortho Surgeries Flashcards

1
Q

Congenital dislocation of the hip—cause = prolonged displacement of the fetal ___ head from the acetabulum, resulting in posterior dislocation during hip flexion

A

Fetal femoral head

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2
Q

Severity of congenital dislocation of the hip ranges from joint ___ to ___ displacement

A

Joint laxity to irreducible displacement

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3
Q

Treatment of congenital dislocation of hip = ___ harness; fluoroscopy guided closed reduction and ___ casting

A

Pavlick harness; spica casting

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4
Q

Congenital dislocation of hip is common in ___ deliveries

A

Breech

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5
Q

Congenital dislocation of hip could lead to degenerative hip ___ if missed

A

Arthritis

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6
Q

Sign of congenital dislocation of hip = ___ click as the femoral head moves in and out of the acetabulum

A

Ortolani click

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7
Q

Pavlick harness prevents ___ and ___ of hip joint while allowing some slight movement in the “safe zone”

A

Prevents extension and adduction of hip joint

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8
Q

Anesthetic management for congenital hip dislocation—greatest concern = loss of ___ because patient will be lifted from the OR table to the spica casting frame and then back to the OR table

A

Airway

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9
Q

Anesthetic management for congenital hip dislocation—___ anesthetic maintained via mask, LMA, ETT; patient must be kept ___ (stage ___) so that manipulation does not produce ___

A

Inhalation anesthetic; patient must be kept deep (stage III) so that manipulation does not produce laryngospasm

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10
Q

Congenital hip dislocation—make sure airway device is ___ so that it does not become dislodged during position changes; disconnect ___ during position changes; d/c ___ prior to circuit disconnect

A

Make sure airway device is secured so that it does not become dislodged during position changes; disconnect circuit during position changes; d/c nitrous prior to circuit disconnect

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11
Q

What condition is this describing?—structural deformity—shortened medial tendons of the lower leg, shortened Achilles’ tendon; foot pointed downward, rotated inward

A

Congenital clubfoot

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12
Q

Congenital clubfoot = foot pointed ___, rotated ___

A

Foot pointed downward, rotated inward

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13
Q

Treatment of congenital clubfoot = manipulation and casting done at ___-___ months of age

A

Manipulation and casting done at 3-6 months of age

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14
Q

Anesthetic management for congenital clubfoot = general + regional—___ anesthetic and then one shot caudal with ___—provides analgesia for ___-___ hours, ___ (increases/decreases) inhaled anesthetic requirement

A

General + regional—inhaled anesthetic and then one shot caudal with bupivicaine 0.25% 1 ml/kg—provides analgesia for 4-6 hours, decreases inhaled anesthetic requirement

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15
Q

Congenital clubfoot—can use ___ instead of caudal

A

IV opioids

Fentanyl 2-5 mcg/kg

Mag sulfate 0.1 mg/kg

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16
Q

Patients with congenital clubfoot have immense post-op pain—consider consulting pain team for epidural catheter—T/F?

A

True

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17
Q

Anesthetic management for congenital clubfoot—___ are utilized; stabilization of ___, continuous monitoring of breath sounds; positioning and padding of ___ extremities (position can sometimes be prone); intraoperative ___ monitoring and use of ___ containing solution (procedure can take 4 hours if bilateral); temperature ___

A

Tourniquets are utilized; stabilization of ETT, continuous monitoring of breath sounds; positioning and padding of upper extremities; intraoperative glucose monitoring and use of glucose containing solution; temperature conservation

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18
Q

Congenital clubfoot surgery is usually done at ___-___ months

A

3-6 months

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19
Q

What condition is this describing?—defect of collagen production, resulting in abnormal bones, ligaments, teeth, and sclera; patients suffer fractures after innocuous [unharmful] contact or trauma

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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20
Q

In osteogenesis imperfecta, ___ in the bone don’t work well

A

Fibroblasts

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21
Q

OI clinical presentation—___ of long bones and kypho___; oto___ and deafness; ___metabolic (not MH); ___ abnormalities and decreased Factor ___ levels in 30%

A

Bowing of long bones and kyphoscoliosis; otosclerosis and deafness; Hypermetabolic (not MH); platelet abnormalities and decreased factor VIII levels in 30%

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22
Q

OI—the normal excessive prevention of hypothermia should be tempered because these patients have a Hypermetabolic state and their temps may rise easily (can be mistaken for MH but is just a Hypermetabolic state)—T/F?

A

True

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23
Q

Bleeding d/t platelet/factor VIII abnormalities is rare in those with osteogenesis imperfecta—T/F?

A

True even though 30% of patients with OI have these abnormalities

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24
Q

OI anesthetic management—gentle manipulation of the C-spine and airway is vital—patients will have atlantooccipital ___; cervical and mandibular fractures occur ___; airway cartilages and teeth are easily ___

A

Patients will have atlantooccipital instability; cervical and mandibular fractures occur easily; airway cartilages and teeth are easily damaged

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25
Q

OI anesthetic management—normal airway = routine ___ or ___ induction and intubation

A

Routine inhalation or IV induction and intubation

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26
Q

OI anesthetic management—difficult airway = ___ intubation

A

Awake fiber optic

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27
Q

OI anesthetic management—give muscle relaxants only after adequate ___ is established

A

Adequate mask ventilation

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28
Q

Analgesia for OI =

A

IV opioids

Fentanyl 2-5 mcg/kg

Mag sulfate 0.1 mg/kg

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29
Q

OI—applying a tourniquet cannot cause a fracture—T/F?

A

False—tourniquet application can cause fractures in patients with OI

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30
Q

OI—consider using a ___ laryngoscope to decrease the need for excessive extension of neck

A

Video laryngoscope

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31
Q

OI—consider ___ for pain management

A

Peripheral nerve blocks

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32
Q

OI anesthetic management—pay meticulous attention to ___ and ___ of the extremities; avoid aggressive ___ measures and anti-___ (because these patients are Hypermetabolic); ___ are utilized; ___-induced fasciculations can cause fractures

A

Pay meticulous attention to positioning and padding of the extremities; avoid aggressive heat conservation measures and anti-muscarinics; tourniquets are utilized; succinylcholine-induced fasciculations can cause fractures

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33
Q

What disorder is this describing?—static encephalopathy, or any non progressive central motor deficit related to hypoxic or anoxic cerebral damage in the perinatal period; etiology = prematurity, birth trauma, hypoglycemia, intrauterine and neonatal infections, congenital vascular malformations

A

Cerebral palsy

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34
Q

CP clinical presentation—associated with mental ___; ___ disorders; abnormalities of vision, speech, hearing, behavior, and cognition

A

Associated with mental retardation; seizure disorders; abnormalities of vision, speech, hearing, behavior, and cognition

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35
Q

CP clinical presentation—skeletal muscle ___ and ___tures; impairment of ___ and ___ reflexes, leading to ___ and ___; poor dental ___

A

Skeletal muscle spasticity and contracture; impairment of laryngeal and pharyngeal reflexes, leading to GERD, and aspiration; poor dental hygiene

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36
Q

CP—all anesthetic techniques and agents have been used safely in patients with CP—T/F?

A

True

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37
Q

Moderate to severe CP airway management should involve intubation r/t predisposition to ___

A

Predisposition to aspiration

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38
Q

CP—need for premedication is individually based—midazolam or ketamine dosing =

A

Intranasal versed 0.2-0.3 mg/kg

Intramuscular ketamine 5-10 mg/kg

39
Q

CP—succs does not produce an exaggerated K+ release—T/F?

A

True

40
Q

CP patients’ response to NDNMBs is normal—T/F?

A

True

41
Q

CP—opioids are appropriate but can lead to impaired ___ or impaired airway ___

A

Impaired alertness or impaired airway reflexes

42
Q

CP—caudal block ___ (increases/decreases) inhaled anesthetic requirement and provides post-op ___

A

Decreases inhaled anesthetic requirement and provides post-op analgesia

43
Q

Children with CP tend to have a ___ (lower/higher) MAC than children without it

A

Lower MAC (need less agent, may require less propofol)

44
Q

CP—post-op ___ control is imperative

A

Post-op pain control is imperative—CP patients often cannot express their pain, parents can be helpful in determining if pain is present

45
Q

CP drug interactions—patients with seizure disorder—phenobarbital, phenytoin, carbamazepine should be taken ___ and including ___ of the procedure

A

Should be taken up to and including the day of the procedure

46
Q

CP drug interactions—phenobarbital is a hepatic microsomal enzyme ___

A

Inducer—patients may need higher doses of other medications because meds are metabolized faster

47
Q

CP drug interactions—___ or ___ may be used to treat spasticity

A

Dantrolene or baclofen may be used to treat spasticity

48
Q

CP/dantrolene—direct acting skeletal muscle relaxant, inhibits ___ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

Inhibits Ca release

49
Q

CP/baclofen—skeletal muscle relaxant, inhibits ___ neurotransmitters

A

Inhibits excitatory neurotransmitters

50
Q

Spasticity in CP thought to be caused by inadequate release of the GABA inhibitor ___ acid in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, resulting in excess excitatory ___ on alpha motor neurons that produce simultaneous contraction of agonist/antagonist muscle groups; treat with ___ or ___

A

Inadequate release of the GABA inhibitor aminobenzoic acid in the dorsal horn of the spinal cord, resulting in excess excitatory glutamate on alpha motor neurons that produce simultaneous contraction of agonist/antagonist muscle groups; treat with dantrolene or baclofen

51
Q

Surgical treatment of skeletal muscle spasticity in CP = ___

A

Rhizotomy—cutting of nerve roots in the spinal cord; procedure effectively relieves chronic back pain and muscle spasms

52
Q

___ are common in the pediatric population r/t trauma

A

Fractures

53
Q

Child sustaining blunt force trauma must be evaluated for injury to ___ and other organ systems

A

C-spine

54
Q

Most common pediatric fracture = ___ fracture

A

Elbow fracture from monkey bar falls

55
Q

Anesthetic considerations for fractures—___ and endotracheal intubation indicated in patients coming from ED for ___/___ repair

A

RSI and endotracheal intubation indicated in patients coming from ED for urgent/emergent repair

56
Q

Urgent/emergent surgical repair = ___ compromise, ___ hematoma, ___tension

A

Vascular compromise, large hematoma, hypotension

57
Q

In acute fractures, often peripheral blocks are not used so ___ injury is more easily detected

A

Nerve

58
Q

Myelodysplasia = congenital failure of the ___ or ___ end of the neural tube to close, resulting in: ___ bifida, ___cele, ___cele

A

Congenital failure of the middle or caudal end of the neural tube to close, resulting in: spina bifida, meningocele, myelomeningocele

59
Q

What is this condition?—malformation of one or more vertebrae; it is sometimes called “closed”; in most cases, causes no problems; nerves escape between malformation of vertebrae

A

Spina bifida occulta

60
Q

What is this condition?—the meninges protrude with sac present filled with spinal fluid

A

Meningocele

61
Q

What is this condition?—the nerves of the spinal cord are present in the protruding sac; most severe of the myelodysplasias

A

Myelomeningocele

62
Q

Meningocele clinical presentation—neural function is ___; spinal cord is tethered (tied up, chained) by ___ nerve roots; if unrepaired, results in ___ and/or ___ symptoms

A

Neural function is intact; spinal cord is trapped by sacral nerve roots; if unrepaired, results in orthopedic and/or urologic symptoms

63
Q

Myelomeningocele clinical presentation—varying degrees of ___ and ___ deficits; dilation of ___ urinary tract; spasticity; scoliosis

A

Varying degrees of sensory and motor deficits; dilation of upper urinary tract; spasticity; scoliosis

64
Q

Myelodysplasia anesthetic management—surgical repair on the ___ day of life; lack of ___ covering defect makes patient prone to ___ and ___

A

Surgical repair on the first day of life; lack of skin covering defect makes patient prone to infection and sepsis

65
Q

Myelodysplasia anesthetic management—___ induction with standard agents

A

Routine induction

66
Q

Myelodysplasia anesthetic management—endotracheal intubation in the ___ position or ___ supported on towel rolls or a donut to avoid putting pressure on the sac

A

Endotracheal intubation in the lateral decubitus position or supine supported on towel rolls or a donut to avoid putting pressure on the sac

67
Q

Myelodysplasia anesthetic management—use of neurometric monitoring, so avoid ___ initially

A

Nondepolarizing NMBs

68
Q

Myelodysplasia anesthetic management—careful pre-op assessment of intravascular volume d/t potential for ___volemia from seepage of fluid from sac

A

Potential for hypovolemia

69
Q

Myelodysplasia anesthetic management—aggressive ___ conservation measures; blood loss typically not ___

A

Aggressive temperature conservation measures; blood loss typically not extensive

70
Q

Scoliosis = lateral and rotational deformity of the ___ spine, accompanied by deformity of the ___

A

Thoracolumbar spine, accompanied by deformity of the ribcage

71
Q

80% of scoliosis cases are ___ and coincide with periods of rapid ___

A

Idiopathic and coincide with periods of rapid growth

72
Q

Infantile scoliosis < ___ years

A

< 3 years

73
Q

Juvenile scoliosis = ___-___ years

A

3-10

74
Q

Adolescent scoliosis > ___ years

A

> 10 years

75
Q

Scoliosis physiologic derangements—___ (increased/decreased) lung volumes; ___ (increased/decreased) chest wall compliance; ___ mismatch, leading to chronic ___emia; ___ (increased/decreased) PVR, pulmonary ___tension leading to ___ failure

A

Decreased lung volumes; decreased chest wall compliance; V/Q mismatch, leading to chronic hypoxemia; increased PVR, pulmonary hypertension leading to RV failure

76
Q

Scoliosis anesthetic monitoring—routine monitors, SSEPs to assess ___ column function

A

Dorsal (sensory) column

77
Q

Scoliosis surgical positioning = ___

A

Prone

78
Q

Scoliosis + prone position = compression of ___; ___ (increased/decreased) intraabdominal pressure; ___ of IVC; epidural vein ___, increased bleeding; ___ (increased/decreased) venous return, ___ (increased/decreased) cardiac output

A

Compression of lungs; increased intraabdominal pressure; compression of IVC; epidural vein engorgement, increased bleeding; decreased venous return, decreased cardiac output

79
Q

Scoliosis—patient transfer is coordinated by the ___; ___ circuit and all monitors; meticulous attention to supporting the head and extremities; ___ all pressure points; special attention to protecting the ___ in prone position!

A

Patient transfer is coordinated by the anesthetist; disconnect circuit and all monitors; meticulous attention to supporting the head and extremities; pad all pressure points; special attention to protecting the eyes in prone position

80
Q

Scoliosis—pre-medication appropriate, except with coexisting respiratory ___osis and ___ (increased/decreased) pulmonary vascular resistance

A

Except with coexisting respiratory acidosis and increased pulmonary vascular resistance

81
Q

Use ___ dose inhaled agent for scoliosis patients

A

Low dose

82
Q

Scoliosis—fentanyl ___ mcg/kg load, then infusion at ___-___ mcg/kg/hr

A

10-15 mcg/kg load, then infusion at 2-4 mcg/kg/hr

83
Q

Scoliosis—mag sulfate ___ mg/kg load, then ___ mg/kg every 4 hours

A

0.2mg/kg load, then 0.1 mg/kg every 4 hours

84
Q

Scoliosis—remifentanil ___-___ mcg/kg/min

A

0.2-0.5 mcg/kg/min

85
Q

Scoliosis—precedex ___-___ mcg/kg/min

A

0.2-0.4 mcg/kg/min

86
Q

Scoliosis—inspired concentration of inhaled agent kept at ___-___ MAC so as not to impair ___

A

0.5-1.0 MAC so as not to impair SSEPs

87
Q

Scoliosis—blood loss often exceeds ___ ml/kg

A

25 ml/kg

88
Q

Scoliosis—TXA use— ___ mg/kg load, then ___ mg/kg/hr

A

30 mg/kg load, then 10 mg/kg/hr

89
Q

Scoliosis—deliberate ___tension during case; hourly measurement of ___; aggressive temperature ___ measures; consider medical causes of bleeding after loss of ___ blood volume—dilutional ___cytopenia, decreased factors ___ and ___; ___ products will be used

A

Deliberate hypotension during case; hourly measurement of H&H; aggressive temperature conservation measures; consider medical causes of bleeding after loss of one blood volume—dilutional thrombocytopenia, decreased factors V and VIII; banked products will be used

90
Q

Scoliosis post-op management—problems = ___ ventilation, ___volemia, ___, ___ (think GI issue r/t opioids), ___ (endocrine issue)

A

Mechanical ventilation, hypovolemia, pain, ileus, SIADH

91
Q

Scoliosis—occasionally, patient needs to remain intubated if pre-op ___ is present

A

Lung disease

92
Q

Scoliosis—post-op pain is very amenable to ___, so ___ is appropriate for pain control

A

Very amenable to opioids, so PCA is appropriate for pain control

93
Q

Scoliosis—consider IV ___ or IV ___ for pain control in addition to PCA

A

IV Tylenol or IV toradol

94
Q

Scoliosis/SIADH manifests as ___natremia, ___osmolality, ___ (increased/decreased) urine output, ___ (increased/decreased) urine osmolality

A

Hyponatremia, hypoosmolality, decreased urine output, increased urine osmolality