Lecture 3 - Medical Conditions Flashcards

1
Q

what is type 1 diabetes?

A
  • aka juvenile diabetes
  • pancreas fails to produce enough endogenous insulin
  • can’t get sugar out of blood and into cells
  • filtered out by kidneys
  • leads to dependence on exogenous insulin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is type 2 diabetes?

A
  • inadequate insulin produced by the pancreas
  • defect in signaling to glut-4 (resistance at the cellular level)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is hypoglycemia? and what are the signs?

A
  • minimal sugar in the bloodstream
  • caused by too much insulin, not eating, or excessive exercise
  • decreased nutrients in the brain
  • hunger
  • double vision
  • insulin shock/reaction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is hyperglycemia? and what are the common signs?

A
  • sugar in the blood stream, can’t get into the tissue
  • cells starving
  • body starts converting fat
  • acidosis
  • breath has a fruity smell
  • frequent urination
  • thirst
  • possible coma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the common signs of hyper and hypoglycemia?

A
  • altered level of consciousness (dizzy, drowsy, confused)
  • rapid breathing
  • rapid pulse
  • feeling ill
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

how do you treat hyper/hypoglycemia?

A
  • ask if they have eaten or taken insulin
  • look for medical bracelet
  • give sugar (glucose) –> juice, hard candy, glucose tablets, non-diet soft drinks
  • monitor for 5 minutes
  • improvement if hypo
  • no improvement if hyper –> refer to emergency medical care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is epilepsy?

A
  • reoccurrence of unprovoked seizures
  • results from a discharge of electrical activity in the brain
  • > 2 seizures to be termed epilepsy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the three types of seizures?

A
  • focal onset
  • generalized onset
  • unknown onset
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are focal onset seizures?

A
  • aware or impaired awareness
  • motor or non-motor
  • focal to bilateral
  • tonic-clonic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are generalized onset seizures?

A
  • impaired awareness
  • motor (tonic-clonic or other-motor)
  • non-motor (absence)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the types of unknown onset seizures?

A
  • motor (tonic-clonic or other-motor)
  • non-motor (absence)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the characteristics of a focal seizure?

A
  • occurs in one part of the brain and activates only a small number of neurons
  • are aware they have had it and potentially know before it happens
  • aware = usually consisting of brief sensory, motor, or memory-related symptoms
  • impaired awareness = usually associated with behavioural arrest, staring, blinking, and automatisms, lasting minutes with postictal amnesia
  • can be motor or nonmotor (classified by the first prominent sign or symptoms)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the characteristics of a generalized seizure?

A
  • bilateral discharge involving the entire cortex. impaired awareness
  • generalized motor = motor, athlete falls to the ground, goes through tonic phase of stiffness, followed by clonic phase of twitches (tonic-clonic seizure)
  • generalized non-motor = sudden interruption of activity followed by a blank stare, eye fluttering and head nodding (absence)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the characteristics of an unknown onset seizure?

A
  • motor = athletes falls to ground, goes through a tonic phase of stiffness, followed by clonic phase of twitches
  • non-motor = sudden interruption of activity followed by a blank stare, may or may not realize it occurred
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the management for seizures? (during and after)

A
  • protect their head
  • remove closeby objects
  • do not restrain the athlete
  • do not place object in their mouth
  • position on side in recovery position ASAP
  • time seizure (activate EAP if longer than 5 minutes or the first time)
  • assess for injury (contusions, dislocations)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are common seizure triggers for epileptics?

A
  • fatigue
  • exertion
  • stress
  • intense activity
  • structural lesions (mechanical damage)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the benefits of exercise for epileptics?

A
  • enhances alertness and focus –> increases seizure threshold (less often and less severe)
  • normalizes EEG
  • should avoid sports where the environment cannot be controlled (rock climbing, scuba, skiing, motor racing, horseback riding?)
  • swimming should only be done with a buddy
18
Q

what is asthma?

A
  • a chronic inflammatory disorder of the airways
  • excess mucus production
  • bronchial smooth muscle constriction
  • airway narrowing
  • expiratory flow rate is reduced
  • muscle efficiency is eventually lost (diaphragm and intercostal muscles compensate)
  • leads to respiratory muscle fatigue and physical distress (may result in death)
19
Q

what are the signs and symptoms of asthma?

A
  • recurrent episodes of wheezing
  • breathlessness
  • chest tightness (or chest pain in children)
  • coughing (dry) –> at night/early morning, and after exercise especially in cold/dry environments
20
Q

what is exercise-induced bronchospasm?

A
  • temporary narrowing of the airways, induced by exercise (patient has no symptoms)
  • not the same as exercise-induced asthma
21
Q

what is happening to the lungs during EIB?

A
  • symptoms peak 8-12 minutes after exercise
  • exercise triggers bronchoconstriction
  • dehydration of the lung’s airways
  • inhaled air is dry and cool
  • air warmed/humidified in the lungs = drying out
  • after exercise the cells rehydrate (hyperemia) –> this triggers bronchoconstriction
  • degree is dependent on: exercise intensity, temperature and humidity
22
Q

what is needed to diagnose EIB?

A
  1. symptoms
  2. obstructed airways resulting in 10-15% decreased FEV (forced expiratory volume)
    *both have to be associated with exercise
23
Q

how do you test for EIB?

A
  • athlete works for 6-8 minutes at 80% max
  • test with cold air
  • check FEV
24
Q

How do you manage/cope with EIB?

A
  • educate
  • avoid irritants (if possible)
  • use bronchodilators (as prescribed)
  • position for ideal breathing (if it does occur) and breathe slowly
25
Q

what is a PPE?

A
  • preparticipation physical examination
  • an examination to assess the ability of an athlete to safely participate in a sport activity
  • not intended to disqualify or exclude
  • helps maintain health and safety in training/competition
26
Q

what is the objective of a PPE?

A
  • detect conditions that would: restrict participation, be life-threatening or disabling
  • injury prevention evaluation
  • meet legal and insurance requirements
  • provide counselling and a record-keeping system
27
Q

when does PPE occur?

A
  • 4-6 weeks prior to the season
  • end of the preceding season
  • done 1x a year minimum
28
Q

what are the two types of methods of evaluation for PPE?

A
  • office based (time-consuming and more expensive)
  • station based (quicker and less expensive)
29
Q

what are the 6 components of the PPE?

A
  1. complete medical history (most important)
  2. medical evaluation form
  3. musculoskeletal evaluation form
  4. visual acuity
  5. concussion (SCAT5, McGill)
  6. player status form (MSK/medical clearance)
30
Q

how early in advance should the medical history form be provided to the athlete?

A
  • 7-10 days (complete family history and past medical information)
  • symptoms that require evaluation
  • concussions
  • meds, alcohol and drugs
  • recent infections
  • female athletes (RED-S)
31
Q

what are the red flags on a PPE?

A
  • anything that doesn’t fit the pattern
  • anything that may require further testing: bone and soft tissue tumours, rheumatological conditions, cardiovascular disorders, infections, genetic disorders
32
Q

what are the symptoms of bone and soft tissue tumours?

A
  • malignant is rare
  • usually found in the 2nd-3rd decade (but can be any age)
  • pain aggravated by activity
  • night pain/sweats
  • fever
  • loss of appetite
  • unwarranted fatigue
  • weight loss (15 lbs in weeks) –> cancer
33
Q

what are rheumatological conditions? and symptoms?

A
  • rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, psoriatic arthritis
  • could report a single or multiple swollen joints
  • no history of trauma or injury
  • morning stiffness
  • rashes
  • fingernail pitting
  • bowel disturbances
  • eye irritation (conjunctivitis, iritis)
34
Q

what are the characteristics of bone infections?

A
  • bone and joint infections/osteomyelitis are uncommon
  • may report a single or multiple swollen joints
  • no history of trauma or injury
  • pain in bone (not at the joint) is very rare
35
Q

what are vascular conditions? and the symptoms?

A
  • deep vein thrombosis (blood clot)
  • presents with single limb pain
  • aggravated by exercise
  • possible precipitants (recent surgery, air travel)
  • tenderness on palpation over tissue
  • warmth
  • swollen
  • red, pale or blueish
36
Q

what are PPEs good at detecting?

A
  • 75% for problems affecting initial athletic participation
  • identify eating disorders, alcohol and drug abuse
37
Q

what should you look for in a medical examination?

A
  • observation (health markers)
  • dermatological conditions
  • vital signs (HR, BP, RR, temperature)
  • cardiovascular examination (heart sounds)
38
Q

what is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM)?

A
  • a condition in which the heart muscle becomes thick
  • the thickening makes it harder for blood to leave the heart
  • this forces the heart to work harder to pump blood
  • when blood leaves the heart it flows through the aortic valve into the aorta
  • aortic stenosis = the aortic valve does not open fully, this decreases blood flow from the heart
39
Q

what should be tested during a medical examination?

A
  • allergies
  • head, eyes, ears, nose and throat
  • blood tests
  • ECG (if needed)
  • diagnostic tests
  • diabetes
40
Q

what is tested in an MSK examination?

A
  • screening exam
  • specific tests based on history
  • functional tests
  • the perfect area for clearing tests
  • neurological scans
  • fractures, ligaments and tendon injuries
  • general strength/weakness
  • laxity
  • posture/scoliosis
41
Q

why might individuals be precluded from participation in contact sports or require further testing?

A
  • atlantoaxial (upper c-spine) instability (neck)
  • history of significant head or spine trauma
  • acute/contagious illnesses
  • carditis
  • congenital heart disease
  • pulmonary compromise
  • absence of one kidney
  • enlarged liver/spleen (mono)
  • fever
  • significant musculoskeletal disorders
  • convulsive disorders (poorly controlled epilepsy)