Lecture 3 Flashcards

1
Q

three goals with restorative dentistry

A

Maintains tooth’s structure
Maintains tooth’s function
Diseases treated

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2
Q

endodontics =

A

root canal

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3
Q

deals with study and treatment of inside of tooth (pulp) and periapical tissues.

A

endodontics

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4
Q

where is periapical tissue located

A

around the tip (apex) of the tooth root

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5
Q

what does the tooth pulp consist of

A

nerves
blood vessels
lymphatics
connective tissue.

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6
Q

found in pulp chamber (crown) and root canal (root) of tooth,

A

pulp tissue

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7
Q

where does pulp tissue enter the tooth

A

through numerous small openings in apex of tooth root.

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8
Q

what age patients are root canals generally performed on

A

12 months or old

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9
Q

two reasons why root canals aren’t usually performed on young animals

A

have a larger pulp cavity than older animals

have an open root apex.

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10
Q

what is used to irrigate the tooth for a root canal

A

Sodium hypochlorite

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11
Q

common name of Sodium hypochlorite

A

bleach

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12
Q

what is the restorative filling material used in a root canal

A

Gutta Percha

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13
Q

why are metal crowns instead of porcelain crowns

A

due to their strength and need for less tooth removal.

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14
Q

exodontics =

A

extraction

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15
Q

Three indications to do an extraction

A

periodontal disease - grade 4
tooth fracture
Feline [Odontoclastic] Resorptive Lesions

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16
Q

Two contraindications (reasons not to) for extractions

A

Severe alveolar bone loss (Fractures)
Lack of client permission

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17
Q

Two ways do an extraction

A

closed
surgical

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18
Q

Common name for feline resorptive lesions

A

Neck lesions

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19
Q

etiology of feline resorptive lesions

A

unknown, vitamin D issues?

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20
Q

how common is feline resorptive lesions in cats

A

20% to 70% - not common in dogs

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21
Q

treatment for feline resorptive lesions depends on what kind of diagnostic test

A

xrays

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22
Q

treatment for feline resorptive lesions with no root resorption

A

extraction

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23
Q

treatment for feline resorptive lesions with root resorption

A

crown amputation

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24
Q
A

feline resorptive lesions

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25
Q
A

feline resorptive lesions

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26
Q

what kind of teeth are closed extractions used for

A

single rooted teeth

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27
Q

what nerve block is used for closed extraction technique

A

regional block

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28
Q

how long should you wait for the block to take effect in closed extractions

A

5 - 10 mins

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29
Q

what tool is used for disrupt the gingival attachment in closed extractions

A

Gingival elevator

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30
Q

what two tools are used to loosen the periodontal ligament fibers in a closed extraction

A

Winged elevator
Luxator

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31
Q

what tool is used to extract the tooth in closed extractions

A

extraction forceps

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32
Q
A

winged elevator

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33
Q

what kind of teeth are surgical extractions used on

A

multi rooted teeth

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34
Q

what kind of block is used for surgical extractions

A

regional block

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35
Q

what tool is used to remove the gingival attachment in surgical extractions

A

gingival elevator

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36
Q

in surgical extractions, you create a gingival flap with what two tools

A

scalpel
scissors

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37
Q

how do you expose the roots in surgical extractions

A

drill with Burr bit

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38
Q

how is the tooth sectioned for surgical extractions

A

drill with burr bit

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39
Q

how are roots removed in surgical extractions

A

each root removed as a single rooted tooth

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40
Q

After all extractions, flush the alveolus with what

A

sterile isotonic saline or chlorhexidine

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41
Q

after all extractions, what can be placed in a large defect prior to suturing

A

Osteoconductive material such as Consil

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42
Q

what should be done with the gingival flap after all extractions

A

suture closed - make sure it is not under tension

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43
Q

how many classes of malocclusions are there

A

four

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44
Q

what class of malocclusion is:

Normal maxilla and
mandible length
but teeth in abnormal
position

A

class 1

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45
Q

what is a class 1 malocclusion also known as

A

neutroclusion

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46
Q
A

Class 1 Malocclusion - neutroclusion

47
Q

what class of malocclusion is the most common to get orthodontic correction

A

class 1

48
Q

may be rostral or caudal with one or more incisors positioned incorrectly, not allowing normal occlusion. (still a Class 1 malocclusion)

A

crossbite

49
Q
A

crossbite

50
Q

what class of malocclusion:

Mandible is shorter than maxilla, Can be a result of abnormally long maxilla (maxillary prognathism) or abnormally short mandible (mandibular brachygnathism).

A

class 2 (der der der dog LOL)

51
Q

what is class 2 malocclusion also know as

A

distoclusion (overjet, overshot)

52
Q
A

class 2 malcclusion - distoclusion (overjet, overshot)

53
Q

what class of malocclusion:

long mandible or short maxilla

A

class 3

54
Q

what is a class 3 malocclusion also know as

A

mesioclusion (underjet, undershot)

55
Q

some breeds may have which class of malocclusion as a “normal” occlusion

A

class 3 (boxers, pugs, boston terriers)

56
Q
A

class 3 malocclusion - mesioclusion (underjet, undershot)

57
Q

what class of malocclusion:

One side of Maxilla or Mandible is shorter or longer
Than the opposite side, Appears as curvature of jaw

A

Class 4

58
Q

what is class 4 malocclusion also known as

A

wrymouth

59
Q
A

class 4 malocclusion - wrymouth

60
Q

long jaw

A

prognathism

61
Q

short jaw

A

brachygnathism

62
Q

+gnathism

A

condition of the jaw

63
Q

long top jaw

A

maxillary prognathism

64
Q

short bottom jaw

A

mandibular brachygnathism

65
Q

short top jaw

A

Maxillary Brachygnathism

66
Q

long bottom jaw

A

mandibular prognathism

67
Q

Mesocephalic

A

normal proportion head

68
Q

Dolichocephalic

A

long skulled dog (greyhound, whippit)

69
Q

Extraction of persistent deciduous or adult teeth that
are or will cause problems with malocclusion

A

interceptive orthodontics

70
Q

most common gingival tumor

A

epulis

71
Q

where do benign Peripheral odontogenic fibromas occur

A

tissue only

71
Q

is the epulis tumor benign or malignant

A

benign

71
Q

where do benign Acantomatous ameloblastomas occur

A

bone

72
Q

treatment of choice for epulis tumors

A

surgery

73
Q

what other therapy can be used for epulis tumors

A

radiation

74
Q

four kinds of malignant oral tumors

A

malignant melanoma
squamous cell carcinoma
fibrosarcoma
osteosarcoma

75
Q

what kind of malignant oral tumor is most common in cats

A

squamous cell carcinoma

76
Q

most oral tumors of dogs are both ______ invasive and ________

A

locally
metastatic

77
Q

for malignant melanoma, may increase survival times if surgery is performed.

A

vaccine

78
Q

what malignant oral tumor is usually invasive

A

squamous cell carcinoma

79
Q

what malignant oral tumor is invasive but generally slow growing

A

fibrosarcoma

80
Q

what malignant oral tumor is invasive and metastatic

A

osteosarcoma

81
Q

three treatments for oral neoplasia

A

surgery with radiation
chemotherapy
immunotherapy

82
Q

This is diffuse inflammation of entire oral cavity.
Is most common in cats.
Etiology unknown, but may be due to presence of subgingival bacteria in the presence of herpes or caliciviruses.

A

lymphocytic plasmacytic stomatitis

83
Q

four clinical signs of lymphocytic plasmacytic stomatitis

A

Anorexia
Halitosis
Dehydration
Bloody saliva

84
Q

best treatment for lymphocytic plasmacytic stomatitis

A

full mouth extraction

85
Q

additional treatments that can be tried for lymphocytic plasmacytic stomatitis

A

steriods
immunotherapy
laser

86
Q
A

lymphocytic plasmacytic stomatitis

87
Q

Disease where immune system forms antibodies toward specific component of myosin found only in muscles of mastication: temporal, masseter, and/or pterygoid muscles.

A

masticatory myositis

88
Q

four clinical signs of masticatory myositis

A

Difficulty oening mouth
Decreased appetite
Dropping food
Muscle atrophy (Masseter and temporal)

89
Q

treatment for masticatory myositis

A

steroids

90
Q

most common jaw fracture in a cat

A

symphyseal separation

91
Q

how is symphyseal separation mended in a cat

A

cerclage wire around mandible directly caudal to canine teeth.

92
Q
A

symphyseal separation

93
Q

how can many jaw fractures be stabilized

A

tape muzzle

94
Q

what kind of diet must animals have if they have a jaw fracture stabilized with a tape muzzle

A

liquid diet

95
Q
A

tape muzzle for a jaw fracture

96
Q

how many deciduous teeth do horses have

A

24

97
Q

how many adult teeth do horses have

A

36 to 44

98
Q

first premolar in horses

A

wolf tooth

99
Q

wolf teeth are present how often in female and male horses

A

25% females
15% males

100
Q

three ways to use teeth as an age estimate in horses

A

dental star
galvaynes groove
eruption time

101
Q

corresponds with pulp cavity, first appears as a line and then change to a large, round spot

A

dental star

102
Q

when does the Galvaynes groove appear in horses

A

10 to 30 years

103
Q
A

dental star

104
Q
A

Galvaynes groove

105
Q

when do canines of male horses erupt

A

4 to 6 years of age

106
Q

when do canines of female horses erupt

A

they usually don’t and are absent

107
Q

The lower cheek teeth are approximately 30% narrower than the upper cheek teeth

A

Anisognathism

108
Q

what is it called when the angle increases with anisognathism

A

Shear mouth

109
Q
A

Shear mouth

110
Q

Four clinical signs of equine dental disease

A

Weight loss
Dropping food/quidding
Head shaking
Tilting of head during mastication

111
Q

Four ways to do dental imaging on horses

A

Skull radiographs
Nuclear scintigraphy
Computed tomography
Magnetic resonance imagery

112
Q

Removes points, hooks, steps. etc on horses

A

dental floating