Lecture 2 Flashcards

1
Q

most dental radiograph equipment has set mA and kVp, only what is adjusted

A

time

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2
Q

describes quantity of positive-charged electrons produced by cathode.

A

mA

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3
Q

the measure of force of electrons.

A

kVp

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4
Q

increases blackness of an image

A

increased mA

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5
Q

increases grayscale contrast, good for periodontal disease monitoring.

A

increased kVp

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6
Q

results in high black-and-white contrast, which is useful for monitoring caries and tooth root resorption.

A

decreased kVp

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7
Q

Keeps tube appropriate distance from tooth
Decreases scatter radiation

A

Position Imaging Device (PID)

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8
Q

Starts production of x-rays
Technique charts for each view

A

Timer

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9
Q

Four steps for radiation safety guidelines

A

Timer switch away from tube head
Stand 90 degrees to the beam
Animal under anesthesia (sedated?)
Timer Machine inspection

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10
Q

three pieces of equipment for digital radiography

A

sensor
remote module
computer

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11
Q

what is the sensor for digital radiography called

A

charge coupled device (CCD)

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12
Q

how much does digital radiography reduce radiation exposure

A

50-90%

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13
Q

what does digital radiography do to exposure time

A

shortens it

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14
Q

intraoral sensor with cord to attach to computer.

A

charge coupled device (CCD)

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15
Q

converts image to pixels to be read by computer.

A

remote module

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16
Q

converts digital information to image to be immediately viewed, manipulated, and stored.

A

computer

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17
Q

limitations of digital radiography

A

high initial cost
lack of large plate sizes

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18
Q
A

digital dental sensors

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19
Q

three techniques for dental radiographs

A

paralleling
bisecting angle
occlusal

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20
Q

Xray technique used for caudal premolars and molars of mandibular arcade.

A

paralleling technique

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21
Q

Film is placed parallel to the teeth, and x-ray beam is directed at a 90-degree angle to the film and teeth.

A

paralleling technique

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22
Q
A

paralleling technique

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23
Q

technique used for canines, incisors and maxillary premolars-molars

A

bisecting angle technique

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24
Q

Xray technique

Film is placed as close to parallel the tooth axis as possible.

A

bisecting angle technique

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25
Q

for the bisecting angle technique, the beam bisects the angle formed between what

A

the film and the tooth

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26
Q

Problems associated with this xray technique are foreshortening and elongation of tooth images.

A

bisecting angle technique

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27
Q
A

bisecting angle technique

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28
Q

This technique provides poorest views of tooth anatomy.

A

occlusal technique

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29
Q

what else is the occlusal technique good for assessing (two things)

A

nasal involvement
tooth root remnants

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30
Q

where is the film placed for the occlusal technique

A

between the teeth on the occlusal surfaces

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31
Q

where is the beam directed with the occlusal technique

A

perpendicular to the film

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32
Q
A

occlusal technique

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33
Q

brachydont teeth have ______ crowns and _______ roots

A

small
elongated

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34
Q

four things that make up the periodontium

A

gingiva
periodontal ligament
cementum
alveolar bone

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35
Q

connective tissue that makes up the peridontium

A

gingival

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36
Q

part of the periodontium that forms the tooth socket

A

alveolar bone

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37
Q

part of the periodontium that covers the root surface

A

cementum

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38
Q

part of the periodontium that attaches to cementum and alveolar bone.

A

periodontal ligament

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39
Q

the supporting structure for the teeth

A

periodontium

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40
Q

three clinical signs of periodontitis

A

Calculus and plaque
Periodontal pocket
Loss of alveolar bone attachment

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41
Q

represents earliest stages of periodontitis and is easily reversible with proper treatment and home care.

A

gingivitis

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42
Q

describes inflammation of not only gingiva, but also other structures of the periodontium.

A

periodontitis

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43
Q

whole mucosal surface is affected, not just the periodontium.

A

stomatitis

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44
Q

the relative space between each tooth and the gum tissue that surrounds it

A

gingival sulcus

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45
Q

forms a moat around tooth called the _________ sulcus.

A

gingiva

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46
Q

Epithelial attachment to the tooth crown forms what

A

bottom of gingival sulcus

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47
Q

glycoproteins, gram-positive bacteria, and food that form initially on teeth after brushing.

A

biofilm

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48
Q

bacteria, exfoliated cells, food, saliva proteins

A

plaque

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49
Q

plaque that has had 24 hours to mineralize

A

tarter (also called calculus)

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50
Q

how is tarter mineralized

A

calcium salts from saliva

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51
Q

periodontal disease class: PD 0

A

clinically normal

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52
Q

periodontal disease class: PD 1

A

Gingivitis with no attachment loss

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53
Q

periodontal disease class: PD 2

A

25% attachment loss, mild periodontitis

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54
Q

periodontal disease class: PD 3

A

25% - 50% attachment loss, moderate periodontitis

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55
Q

periodontal disease class: PD 4

A

> 50% attachment loss, advanced periodontitis

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56
Q

Four goals of periodontal debridement

A

Remove bacterial plaque
Remove endotoxins
Remove hard calculus deposits
Halt disease process

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57
Q

two forms of power scaling

A

sonic
ultrasonic

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58
Q

Sonic scaler is less able to remove more tenacious calculus because of

A

low frequency

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59
Q

ultra sonic scaling devices have a frequency of

A

18,000-50,000 cps

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60
Q

ultrasonic devices are attached to water delivery system, which allows what

A

cooling of the tip

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61
Q

Five benefits of power scaling

A

more ergonomic for vet tech
reduces anesthesia time
causes less tissue swelling
less root surface damage
lavage is destructive to bacteria

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62
Q

an electronic device that converts energy from one form to another

A

transducer

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63
Q

two types of ultrasonic scalers

A

Magnetorestrictive
Piezoelectric

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64
Q

what type of ultrasonic scaler has a transducer made of a stack of thin nickel alloy strips

A

Magnetorestrictive

65
Q

which ultrasonic scaler uses Elliptical pattern movement Vibrations all surfaces (Jack hammer)

A

Magnetorestrictive

66
Q

which ultrasonic scaler has a solid ferrous rod with a rotational pattern

A

Magnetorestrictive

67
Q

which ultrasonic scaler has a transducer made of Ceramic Disks or crystals

A

Piezoelectric

68
Q

which ultrasonic scaler uses straight linear movement

A

Piezoelectric

69
Q

two adjustments that vet techs will make to the scaler

A

water
amplitude

70
Q

what does the water adjustment on the scaler do

A

cools the hand piece, flush debris

71
Q

what does the amplitude adjustment on the scaler do

A

remove tougher deposits

72
Q

the higher the amplitude (power), the higher the what

A

lateral movements

73
Q

what is the rule for adjustments to the scaler

A

Always use the lowest power to accomplish the task

74
Q

for the ultrasonic scaler, check manufacturer’s recommendation for

A

appropriate use of ultrasonic scaler tip.

75
Q

Never point tip at a 90-degree angle to the tooth because it may cause

A

damage

76
Q

Always keep tip moving to prevent what two things

A

overheating the tooth and pulp necrosis.

77
Q

higher power setting may be required on the ultra sonic scaler to remove what

A

calculus

78
Q

Water pressure on the ultra sonic scaler should be maintained at what psi, in order to disperse heat generated by the tip.

A

> 25 psi

79
Q

All hand instruments have three parts:

A

shank, handle, and blade

80
Q

what is another name for the blade on a hand instrument

A

working end

81
Q

how are hand instruments differentiated

A

by shape and type of working end

82
Q

Curvature of shank on hand instrument tells the operator what

A

where instrument should be used in the mouth.

83
Q

have pointy tips and a blade and are used for supragingival scaling only.

A

scalers

84
Q

is best used for scaling teeth in the rostral portion of the mouth

A

straight shank

85
Q

is designed for working on premolars and molars.

A

bent shank

86
Q

what does supragingival mean

A

above the gum line

87
Q

what does subgingival mean

A

below the gum line

88
Q

two kinds of hand scalers

A

sickle
curette

89
Q

have rounded tip and blade, and are used for subgingival scaling

A

curette

90
Q

what does the rounded tip help avoid with on a curette

A

trauma to gingiva and periodontal ligament

91
Q
A

curette scaler

92
Q
A

sickle scaler

93
Q

tool is used for supragingival scaling

A

sickle scaler

94
Q

instrument that may be used on any tooth

A

universal instrument

95
Q

The terminal end of instrument should NOT leave contact with what, to avoid damaging the gingival sulcus

A

the tooth

96
Q

what part of the working end of the instrument must remain in contact with the tooth surface, to prevent trauma of soft tissues

A

lower one third

97
Q

Instruments should be oriented so that blade face is parallel to what and curve which direction

A

parallel to the root surface
curve is toward gingival

98
Q

the angle of the instrument should be between what degrees and should be pulled coronally to dislodge tartar and remove cementum.

A

60-80 degrees

99
Q

An instrument angle greater than what degree will cause damage of adjacent soft tissue

A

90 degrees

100
Q

what two things should you do after done with using curette to perform subgingival scaling or root planing.

A

Blow air into gingival sulcus to view results
Use explorer to ‘feel’ surface and verify smoothness

101
Q

Sharpening dental instruments is necessary for what

A

thorough debridement

102
Q

three things that can happen when instruments lose their edge

A

Operator fatigue
Less effective removal of calculus
Less effective removal of infected cementum (deep cleans)

103
Q

three types of sharpening stones

A

Arkansas and India
Ceremic
Composition

104
Q

lubricant used for Arkansas and India sharpening stones

A

oil

105
Q

lubricant used for ceramic sharpening stones

A

water or dry

106
Q

lubricant used for composition sharpening stones

A

water

107
Q

two things that lubricants do for sharpening stones

A

Keep “fines” away from edge
Prevent heat buildup from friction

108
Q

for sharpening instruments, start at a _____ degree angle and then tilt the instrument to _____ degrees

A

90&raquo_space;> 110

109
Q

when sharpening an instrument, the _____ should be held stationary and the _____ is moved along the blade edge

A

instrument
stone

110
Q

what is the sludge that forms when sharpening instruments

A

“fines”

111
Q

Smoothing the surface of teeth

A

polishing

112
Q

what speed on the hand piece is polishing done at

A

low speed

113
Q

what is used as the “polish” for teeth

A

Prophy paste

114
Q

how often should you refresh prophy paste

A

after 1-2 teeth

115
Q

how long should you polish each tooth

A

1-3 seconds

116
Q

after polishing, you should rinse the mouth and reasses for what

A

tooth smoothness

117
Q

why are air polishers not often used

A

messy

118
Q

what decreases by smoothing (polishing) the surface of the teeth

A

staining and biofilm adherence

119
Q

three methods for regional nerve blocks

A

Splash
Local
Regional

120
Q

lidocaine is a fast or long nerve block

A

fast

121
Q

Bupivacaine is a fast or long nerve block

A

long

122
Q

Extraction process always begins with placement of a regional or local nerve block using

A

0.5% Bupivacaine

123
Q

four main nerve blocks

A

infraorbital
mental
inferior alveolar
maxillary

124
Q

block for upper (first three) premolars and canine to incisors

A

infraorbital block

125
Q

block for lower canines to incisors

A

mental block

126
Q

block for entire lower jaw

A

inferior alveolar block

127
Q

block for entire maxilla

A

maxillary

128
Q

what do you have to be careful of with the inferior alveolar block

A

tongue biting

129
Q

what do you have to do with the needle to give a maxillary nerve block

A

bend needle 1 cm

130
Q

Three reasons why radiographs should be taken prior to extraction

A

assess tooth root structure

alveolar bone density

periodontal ligament attachment

131
Q

max dose of bupivacaine for a cat and dog

A

1.5 mg/kg cat
2 mg/kg dog

132
Q

max dose of bupivacaine per site for a cat

A

0.1 to 0.2 ml/site

133
Q

max dose of bupivacaine per site for a dog

A

0.2 to 0.8 ml/site

134
Q
A

infraorbital nerve block

135
Q
A

mental nerve block

136
Q
A

inferior alveolar nerve block

137
Q
A

maxillary nerve block

138
Q

Four ancillary (support) products for periodontal disease

A

Doxycycline gel (Doxirobe)
Osteoconductive material (Consil)
Chlorhexidine
Oravet (Wax coating)

139
Q

polymer slowly absorbed over time; may be used in deep pockets to treat periodontal infections.

A

Doxycycline gel (doxirobe)

140
Q

may be used if extractions are necessary, as in bridge material (scaffold) for new bone growth in alveolar socket.

A

Osteoconductive material (Consil)

141
Q

may be used as rinse to decrease oral bacteria.

A

chlorhexidine

142
Q

has been shown to be preventive for anaerobic infections in mouth.

A

Porphyromonas vaccine

143
Q

gold standard of mechanical cleansing at home

A

toothbrushing

144
Q

how often should teeth be brushed

A

daily

145
Q

what kind of toothbrush should be used

A

soft bristled

146
Q

angle toothbrush to _____ degrees to gingival margin

A

45 degrees

147
Q

how long should you brush each tooth group

A

5 to 10 seconds

148
Q

what brushing technique should be used for healing pockets

A

Modified Stillman

149
Q

what brushing technique should be used for healthy gums

A

Bass technique

150
Q
A

Bass brushing technique

151
Q
A

Modified Stillman technique

152
Q

three types of cleaning dental diets

A

mechanical action
chemical action
treats

153
Q

Best kind of mechanical action diet

A

Hills T/D

154
Q

what ingredient sequesters calcium and prohibits mineralization of plaque as a dental chemical action diet

A

Hexametaphosphate

155
Q

three kinds of dental rinses for at home care

A

Chlorhexidine rinses
Zinc ascorbate solutions
Xylitol water additive- AquaDent

156
Q

Rinse that Kill anaerobic bacteria in mouth

A

chlorhexidine rinses

157
Q

Rinse that:

Oxidize bacteria
Stimulate collagen formation

A

zinc ascorbate solutions

158
Q

Rinse that reduces bacteria

A

Xylitol water additive- AquaDent

159
Q

what is the concentrate of Xylitol water additive- AquaDent and what is it toxic at

A

5 mg/ml concentrate
toxic at 100 mg/kg