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Pathogenic Micro > Lecture 2 (Chapter 13) > Flashcards

Lecture 2 (Chapter 13) Flashcards

1
Q

Pathogenic bacteria are ___________

A

heterotrophs (derive energy from organic carbon sources)

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2
Q

Requirements for bacterial growth:

A

source of carbon and nitrogen, energy source, water, and various ions (i.e zinc and IRON)

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3
Q

What is a siderophore?

A

bacteria synthesizes proteins called SIDEROPHORES to concentrate iron

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4
Q

Why do our bodies sequester iron?

A

to limit its availability to pathogens

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5
Q

What is an obligate aerobe?

A

bacteria that grows in the presence of oxygen

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6
Q

What is an obligate anaerobe?

A

bacteria that cannot grow in the presence of oxygen

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7
Q

What is an facultative aerobe?

A

bacteria that can grow with or without oxygen present

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8
Q

What are disease-causing bacteria called?

A

Pathogens

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9
Q

What extracellular pathogen CANNOT be cultured in a lab?

A

Treponema pallidum

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10
Q

Can facultative intracellular pathogens be grown in a lab?

A

Yes

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11
Q

Can obligate intracellular pathogens be grown in the lab

A

No

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12
Q

What are non-pathogenic bacteria that live in/on the hosts

A

commensals (long term commensals = normal flora)

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13
Q

What is catabolism?

A

the breakdown of organic substrates to generate usable energy

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14
Q

What is anabolism?

A

the synthesis of cellular constituents (i.e proteins, fatty acids, and nucleic acids)

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15
Q

Metabolites are converted into the universal intermediate ________

A

pyruvic acid (pyruvate)

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16
Q

Energy is obtained from glucose by:

A
  • aerobic respiration (MOST efficient)
  • anaerobic respiration (LESS efficient)
  • fermentation (LEAST efficient)
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17
Q

What are the 3 main pathways for catabolism of glucose?

A
  • Glycolysis (EMP)
  • TCA Cycle (citric acid cycle)
  • Pentose Phosphate Pathway
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18
Q

Does glycolysis occur under anaerobic or aerobic conditions?

A

Both

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19
Q

How many ATP is required and how many are generated during glycolysis?

A

2 ATP are required and 4 ATP are generated

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20
Q

What process generates the 4 ATP during glycolysis?

A

substrate-level phosphorylation

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21
Q

At the end of glycolysis, what is the net ATP?

A

2

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22
Q

True or False
There are two molecules of pyruvic acid produced at the end of glycolysis

A

True

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23
Q

Aerobic respiration yields how many ATP? How many times more when compared to fermentation?

A
  • 38
  • 19x more
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24
Q

What form of bacterial reproduction produces two genetically identical cells?

A

asexual reproduction

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25
Q

What is the term for one cell giving rise to two cells?

A

binary fission

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26
Q

What are the two methods bacterial growth is measured by?

A
  • viable counts (plate counts)
  • non viable methods (optical density [clarity], dry cell mass, quantitative measurement of an individual component)
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27
Q

What is the formula to calculate bacterial numbers?

A

Nt = N0 x 2t/d

28
Q

How many bacteria would be in a culture grown for 2 hours with a doubling time of 20 minutes if you started with 100 bacteria? (don’t forget to convert hrs to mins)

A

6400

29
Q

What are the 3 types of DNA in bacterial cells?

A
  • bacterial chromosomes
  • plasmids
  • bacteriophage DNA
30
Q

What is a bacterial chromosome?

A

a largely covalent closed circular molecule of double stranded DNA

31
Q

What is a plasmid?

A

extra-chromosomal DNA elements

32
Q

Are plasmids essential?

A

they’re not essential but can contribute to virulence or survival in certain environments

33
Q

What is bacteriophage DNA?

A

bacterial virus that may replicate extra-chromosomally or integrate into the genome

34
Q

During transcription, DNA is transcribed into what?

A

mRNA

35
Q

What does transcription require?

A

DNA-dependent RNA polymerase enzyme

36
Q

What does sigma factor do?

A

recognizes a specific sequence of nucleotides in the DNA (promoter)

37
Q

What does sigma factor target to the site in order for transcription to begin?

A

RNA polymerase

38
Q

What is polycistronic mRNA?

A

a single mRNA being able to be translated into multiple gene products

39
Q

What comprises an operon?

A

genes of related function transcribed together

40
Q

What do promoter and operon sequences do?

A

control expression of genes by influencing which sequences will be transcribed

41
Q

What triggers transcription to cease?

A

Terminator sequences

42
Q

What is translation?

A

the conversion of the genetic code into a sequence of amino acids

43
Q

What do ribosomes do in translation

A

they read the mRNA and pair tRNAs with each codon

44
Q

How many ribosomes are made up of two subunits?

A

70s

45
Q

What is negative regulation of transcription?

A

genes are expressed unless turned off by a repressor binding to the operator sequence

46
Q

What is positive regulation?

A

genes are not transcribed unless an apoinducer protein is present

47
Q

What is feedback inhibition?

A

when the final protein product goes back and inhibits the first step in its formation

48
Q

Where does replication of bacterial DNA occur?

A

the oriC

49
Q

What does helicase do?

A

unwind the DNA

50
Q

What does primase do?

A

lays down a primer to start synthesis from

51
Q

What does DNA-dependent DNA polymerase do?

A

synthesizes a copy of DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction if a primer is present

52
Q

What does topioisomerase do?

A

helps relieve the stress by breaking and resealing the DNA (makes it not so tangled)

53
Q

Does DNA polymerase have proofreading abilities?

A

Yes

54
Q

What are mutations?

A

inheritable changes in the DNA sequence

55
Q

What is a silent mutation?

A

a mutation that has no effect on the cell

56
Q

What’s a missense mutation?

A

when a different amino acid is incorporated into the protein

57
Q

What’s a nonsense mutation?

A

an amino acid encoding codon becoming a stop codon

58
Q

What are conditional mutations?

A

mutations that only display their effects under certain conditions

59
Q

What is a frameshift mutation?

A

mutations insert or remove nucleotides into the DNA sequence

60
Q

What is homologous recombination?

A

an exchange of two identical or nearly identical pieces of DNA (needs DNA binding protein RecA)

61
Q

What is non-homologous recombination?

A

an exchange of dissimilar DNA sequences (generally produces insertion or deletions or both)

62
Q

What are the 3 process of Gene transfer?

A
  • transformation
  • conjugation
  • transduction
63
Q

What is the process of Transformation?

A

the uptake of free DNA from the environment

64
Q

What is the process of Conjugation?

A

the one way transfer or DNA from a donor (male) cell to a recipient (female) requiring a sex pilus (usually between same species)

65
Q

What is the process of Transduction?

A

genetic transfer via bacterial viruses (bacteriophages)

66
Q

What was the first mechanism of genetic transfer identified?

A

transformation

67
Q
A

Pathogenic Micro (2 decks)

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