Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Immunology PY2 > Lecture 2: Cells & Organs of the Immune System Part 1 > Flashcards

Lecture 2: Cells & Organs of the Immune System Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 8 keys to an effective immune system mentioned in the lecture?

A
  1. redundancy, resiliency (multiple levels or protection)
  2. Complete coverage of the entire body
  3. Discriminates healthy from sick (tolerance, specificity, inhibitability)
  4. ready responsiveness (fast)
  5. Diversity, resiliency, adaptability, specificity
  6. communication (between immune and non-immune cells)
  7. memory
  8. self-limiting to restore homeostasis after pathogen has been removed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the 4 defense systems that are always ON and ready?

A
  1. physical and chemical barriers
  2. Local non-immune cells (epithelial cells, M cells)
  3. Sentinel cells and molecules
  4. circulating\ready-made effector cells and molecules
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

list 5 areas where physical\chemical barriers exist

A
  1. skin
  2. oral
  3. airway
  4. intestines
  5. cervical (reproductive)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 3 common layers for physical\chemical barriers to pathogens?

A
  1. Commensal microflors
  2. epithelial and associated cells
  3. sentinel cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the 3 main functions of commensal microflora?

A
  1. maintain balance
  2. help with digestion
  3. crowd out pathogens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the main function of epithelial and associated cells?

A

often produce mucus or antimicrobial peptides\chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the 3 main functions of sentinel cells?

A
  1. tolerance to commensals
  2. first line of detection for infection
  3. Differ based on location
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

sentinel cells typically ____ (stay in one spot, or move around)?

A

stay in one tissues (resident cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

list 5 functions of sentinel cells that vary based on the types of cells present

A
  1. direct detection and elimination of pathogens
  2. recruitment of other immune cells and molecules by releasesing cytokines (including chemokines)
  3. early polarization of immune response
  4. phagocytosis of pathogens
  5. antigen presenting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

circulating\ready-made effector cells and molecules are present in the ____ tissues or ____ in the absence of infection

A

lymphoid; circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

list 7 functions of effector cells that vary based on location

A
  1. direct detection and elimination of pathogens
  2. recruitment of other immune cells and molecules by releasesing cytokines (including chemokines)
  3. polarization of immune responses
  4. antigen uptake by phagocytosis & micropinocytosis
  5. antigen presentation
  6. memory
  7. antibody production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is Hematopoiesis?

A

formation and development of red and white blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

EVERY leukocyte derives from ______ cells

A

self-renewing pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the 3 lines of cellls that are made from hematopoeitic stem cells?

A
  1. WBC
  2. RBC
  3. platelets
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Granulocytes are derived from ___ and make what cell types?

A

granulopoiesis; neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Monocytes are derived from ____ and make what cell types?

A

monocytopoeisis; monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Lymphocytes are derived from ___ and make what cell types?

A

lymphopoiesis; T cells, B cells, NK cells, NKT cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

RBC are derived by what process?

A

erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

platelets are derived from what process?

A

thrombopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

site of hematopoeisis in fetuses 0-2 months old

A

yolk sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

site of hematopoesis in fetuses 2-7 months old

A

liver and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

site of hematopoeisis in fetuses 5-9 months old

A

bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

site of hematopoeisis in infants

A

bone marrow in practically all bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

site of hematopoeisis in adults

A

vertebrae, ribs, sternum, skull, sacrum, pelvis and the end of teh femurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

____ tissue in the bone marrow is primarily involved in the production of leukocytes

A

lymphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the 3 major components of teh bone marrow microenvironment (niche)?

A
  1. extracellular matrix
  2. stromal cells
  3. hematopoeitic growth factors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

in the extracellular matrix of the bone marrow, there is attachment ____ cells and ___ cells via adhesion molecules

A

stem cells and hematopoietic progenitor cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the stromal cells located in the bone marrow?

A

endothelial cells, perivascular cells, nerve cells, macrophages and osteoblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

the stromal cells of the bone marrow provide ____ (4) to promote the growth of hematopoietic stem cells

A

support (scaffold)
nutrients
hematopoeitic growth factors
express adhesions molecules that influence differentiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

hematopoietic growth factors made by stromal cells are presented to ____ cels

A

immobilized stem cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

leukocytes differentiate from hematopoietic stem cells into 2 main lineages: ___ & ___

A

myeloid and lymphoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

when a hematopoietic stem cell goes down the myeloid pathway, what cell types are made?

A

granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, mast cells), monocytes (monocytes, macrophages, dendritic cells), and RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

T lymphocytes migrate to the ___ for maturation

A

thymus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

additional differentiation, maturation and activation-induced maturation of immune cells occurs in the periphery in response to ____

A

stimulation, growth, or tissue resident factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

when a hematopoietic stem cell goes down the lymphoid pathway, what cell types are made?

A

dendritic cells, T helper cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and innate lymphoid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how does a developing immune cell know what to become?

A

tightly regulated transcription factors that specialize cells by chromatin modification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

environmental factors trigger transcription factors to turn on\off in cells developing from HSC, ___ allows fine tuning of the system

A

redundancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Ikaros drive the differentiona of ____ and shuts down the ___ pathway

A

lymphocyes; myeloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

if PU.1 is low, HSC will follow the ___ pathway, if PU.1 is high, HSC will follow the ___ pathway

A

lymphoid; myeloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

t/f maintenance of pluripotency in HSC is controlled by an array of factors

A

t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

2 key regulatory molecules for general granulopoiesis are

A

IL-3; granulocyte-macrophage-colony stimulating factor (GM-CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is a key regulatory molecule for HSC differentiation into neutrophils?

A

G-CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is a key regulatory molecule for HSC differentiation into basophils?

A

IL-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is a key regulatory molecule for HSC differentiation into eosinophils?

A

IL-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

list 2 maturation characteristics of granulocytes

A
  1. nuclear segmentation

2. acquisition of primary, then secondary granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

there is _____ by mature forms of granulocytes

A

negative feedback inhibition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the rate of formation of granulocytes?

A

1-2 x10^9 granulocytes/kg/day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what are the 4 classic signs of inflammation?

A

redness (rubor)
swelling (tumor)
pain (dolor)
heat (calor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

tissue damage causes teh release of ____ and ___ factors that trigger a local increase in blood flow and capillary permeability

A

vasoactive and chemotactic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

are granulocytes early or late responders to infection?

A

very early

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

t/f granulocytes respond to an array of extracellular pathogens including bacteria and paracytes

A

t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

how long does it take for granulocytes to respond to teh new pathogen?

A

minutes to 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

are the responses of granulocytes antigen specific?

A

no; they have a quick, broad response to stamp out infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

granulocytes are derived from which HSC lineage pathway?

A

myeloid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

granulocytes are classes based on what 2 features?

A
  1. morphology

2. granule staining pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

t/f granulocytes release products to recruit other immune cells that may be capable of specific responses

A

t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

give an example of a molecule that can be found in a neutrophil’s granules

A

antimicrobial proteins like defensins and lysozyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is the function of antimicrobial proteins in neutrophils?

A

direct harm to pathogens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

give an example of a molecule that can be found in the granules of eosinophils

A

cytokines like IL-4, IL-10, IL-13 and TNF-alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the function of the cytokines found in the granules of eosinophils?

A

modulation of the adaptive immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

give an example of cytokines found in the granules of basophils

A

IL-4, IL-13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

give an example of a lipid mediator found in the granule of basophils. What is the function?

A

leukotrienes; inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what is the most abundant leukocyte in the blood? what % does it occupy?

A

neutrophils (50-70%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

neutrophils circulate in the blood for ___hours before returning to tissues where they will only live for ___ hours

A

7-10; 48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

describe the morphology of neutrophils

A
  1. have a segmented nucleus (3-4 lobes connected by chromatin strands)
  2. primary granules (large and dense with lysosomal function)
  3. seconadry granules (smaller, contain complement activators and enzymes)
  4. tertiary granules (phosphatases and metalloproteinases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is another name for a neutrophil?

A

polymorphonuclear leukocyte (PMN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

t/f neutrophils are highly responsive and are typically the 1st responders to an infection

A

t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

neutrophils respond to inflammatory molecules called __ to sward sites of infection

A

chemokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what are 4 functions of neutrophils?

A
  1. phagocytize bacteria and debris
  2. secrete proteins to kill bacteria and signal for tissue remodeling
  3. assist in shaping the adaptive immune response when needed
  4. dead neutrophils accumulate as the major cell component in pus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what are the 2 major approaches to killing bacteria that have been engulfed by a neutrophil?

A
  1. oxygen dependent

2. oxygen independent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

the oxygen dependent approach to killing bacteria involves reactive ___ and ___ intermediates. What are some exaples of these intermediates?

A
  1. reactive oxyegn intermediates (hydroxyl radical, hydrogen peroxide, hypochlorite anion
  2. reactive nitrogen intermediates (nitric oxide)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what molecules are used to kill engulfed bacteria in the oxygen independent way?

A

defensins, lysozymes, hydrolytic enzymes (collagenase), and tumor necrosis factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

eosinophils account of about __% of leukocytes

A

1-3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

t/f eosinophils circulate throgh the blood and into tissues

A

t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

eosinophils are especially present in what organ?

A

small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what is the morphology of eosinophils?

A

2 nuclear lobes, spericla granules, about 12-17 micrometers in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

eosinophils are involved in anti___ function and are also involved in ___ and ___

A

parasitic; allergy and asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what cell type releases cytokines to instruct adaptive immune responses and coordinate immune responses especially against multicellular parasites like worms?

A

eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

how do eosinophils ilicite theri response?

A

use of lysosomal and oxygen radicals and contain an anti-parasite protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

the anti-parasite protein contained in eosinophils is called ____

A

eosinophil cationic protein (ECP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

basophils make up about __% of leukocytes

A

<1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

basophils are important for killing ___

A

extracellular parasites, including multicellular worms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is the morphology of basophils?

A

2 nuclear lobes, spherical purple granules, 12-17 micrometers in diameter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

how do basophils ilicite their response?

A

bind to circulating antibody\antigen complexes (i.e. trapped pathogens) and release granule contents (histamines, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and cytokines)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

mast cells are made in the ___ and released into the blood as _____ that differentiate once they enter tissues, usually at the barrier between body and the environment (like at the skin)

A

bone marrow; immature precursors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

t/f mast are distinct from basophils, but they have very similar functions

A

t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

mast cells are characteristically found surrounding ___ and ___

A

blood vessels and nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

there are at least 2 types of mast cells: ____ & ____

A

connective tissue mast cells and mucosal mast cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

mast cells are important to anti____ function and are involved in ____ reactions

A

parasite; allergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

mast cells are important to immune ___ cells

A

polarizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

mast cells release their granule contents, which includes :

A

histamines, leukotrienes, prostaglandins, and cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

t/f mast cells are sentinel cells

A

t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what is the key factor\protein in monocytopoiesis?

A

monocyte-colony stimulating factor (M-CSF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what are the maturation characteristics of monocytes?

A

gradual nuclear folding and acquisition of cytoplasmic granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what are the 3 stages of development of a monocyte?

A
  1. monoblast
  2. promocyte
  3. mature monocytes which further differentiate in the tissues to dendritic cells and macrophages
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what monocytes differentiate into dendritic cells in the presence of what factors?

A

granulocyte-monocyte colony stimulating stimulating factor: GM-CSF, IL-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

monocytes differentiate into macrophages in the presence of what factor?

A

monocyte colony stimulating factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

macrophages are dispersed throughout the body and travel by ____ movement through the tissues

A

amoeboid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what are the name of macrophages found in the lungs?

A

alveolar macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what is the name for macrophages found in the connective tissues?

A

histiocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what is the name for macrophages found in the liver?

A

kupffer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what is the name for macrophages found in the kidney?

A

mesangial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what is the name for macrophages found in the brain?

A

microgial cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what is the name for macrophages found in the bone?

A

osteoclasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what are 4 things that activate macrophages?

A
  1. phagocytosis
  2. inflammatory Th1 cytokines (like IFN gamma)
  3. inflammatory mediators
  4. bacterial components
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

After activation, what 5 things about macrophages are increased?

A
  1. phagocytic activity
  2. killing ability
  3. secretion of inflammatory mediators
  4. migration
  5. ability to activate T cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what is the sentinel function of monocytes?

A

detect infections and signal immune responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

t/f monocytes can differentiate into macrophages in the tissues

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

monocytes & macrophages do what 2 things to dead (apoptotic) cells?

A

phagocytize and recycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

monocytes & macrophages kill the pathogens they ingest by what 2 methods?

A
  1. oxygen dependent

2. oxygen independent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

how do monocytes & macrophages recruit immune cells into the inflammatory site?

A

release cytokines and chemokines

112
Q

monocytes and macrophages present antigens to ___ cells

113
Q

what 4 changes are involved in monocytes becoming macrophages?

A
  1. increased size (5-10 fold)
  2. Increased number & complexity of organelles
  3. increased phagocytic activity
  4. increased levels of hydrolytic enzymes
114
Q

t/f there are many subtypes of dendritic cells with specialized functions

115
Q

what is the morphology of dendritic cells?

A

spread out with many dendrites upon differentiation in the tissues

116
Q

Langerhans dendritic cells are found in the ____

A

lymph node

117
Q

intersitial dendritic cells are found in the ___ and ___

A

lymph node and spleen

118
Q

what are the 4 common types of dendritic cells?

A

langerhans, interstitial, monocyte-derived, & plasmacytoid derived

119
Q

what cells are the most potent APC with ready function?

A

dendritic cells

120
Q

dendritic cells take up potential antigens by what 3 methods?

A
  1. phagocytosis
  2. pinocytosis
  3. receptor mediated endocytosis
121
Q

once dentritic cells take in the antigens of pathogens, they load the antigens into ___ and ____ molecules

A

MHCII and MHCI

122
Q

after dendritic cells load pathogen antigens into MHCI and MHCII, they then travel to the ____, where they present the antigens to the ___ cells

A

lymph node; T cells (T cell activation)

123
Q

dendritic cells produce ___ to polarize the immune response

124
Q

t/f T cells, B cells, NKT cells, NK cells, and innate-like lymphocytes arise from the same stem cell

125
Q

list 5 key hematopoietic growth factors involved in lymphopoiesis

A

IL-2, IL-3, IL-4, IL-5, IL-7

126
Q

the stages of lymphopoiesis are characterized by ____ rather than ___

A

surface antigen expression (CD antigens) rather than morphologic factors

127
Q

B cells mature in the ___

A

bone marrow

128
Q

NK cells mature in the ___ and the ___

A

periphery and thymus

129
Q

T cells and NKT cells develop in the ___, but mature in the ____

A

bone marrow; thymus

130
Q

Innate lymphoid cells (ILCs) develop in the ___. The ___ may be involved in some subtypes of ILCs

A

bone marrow; thymus

131
Q

lymphocytes account for what % of WBC?

132
Q

what are 6 types of lymphocytes?

A
  1. T cells
  2. B cells
  3. innate lymphoid cell
  4. NK cells
  5. cytotoxic T lymphocyte(CTL)
  6. plasma cells
133
Q

what is the morphology of naive (quiescent) T and B lymphocytes?

A
  1. round nucleus (size of RBC)
  2. small rim of blue cytoplasm
  3. 9 um in diameter
134
Q

what is the morphology of large granular lymphocytes like ILCs, NKC, CTLs and plasma cells?

A
  1. larger cell
  2. more cytoplasm
  3. large granules containing perforin and granzyme
135
Q

CD4+ T cells are what types of T cells?

A

helper T cells and regulatory T cells

136
Q

CD8+ T cells are what types of T cells?

A

cytotoxic T lymphocytes

137
Q

what is the ratio of CD4 to CD8 positive T cells in healthy blood?

138
Q

T cells can be activated by ___cells based on experience and timing with antigens

139
Q

what cells are known as the “Generals of the immune response”?

A

CD4+ T cells

140
Q

what are the functions of CD4+ T cells?

A

help to activate CD8+ T cells, B cells, macrophages and other immune cells and regulate the immune response

141
Q

how do CD4+ T cells illicit their effects?

A

by producing a range of different cytokines

142
Q

t/f subsets of helper T cells polarize the immune response

143
Q

what are the functions of CD8+ t cells?

A

killing virus-infected and cancer cells and produce cytokines like IFN gamma

144
Q

Regulatory T cells are mostly what type of T cell?

145
Q

what is the function of naive B cells?

A

express membrane-bound immunoglobulin (antibodies)

146
Q

what is the function of Plasma B cells?

A

work as activated “antigen factories”

147
Q

what is the function of memory B cells?

A

maintained after infection to form memory responses

148
Q

B cells function as antigen presenting cells in what scenarios?

A

in secondary immune response

149
Q

which subsets of ILCs mirror the functions of CD4+ T cells with polarized function?

150
Q

t/f ILCs are primarily tissue resident

151
Q

what is teh major function of ILCs?

A

cytokine production to polarize immune function

152
Q

what are the functions of NK cells (4)?

A
  1. discriminate self from non-self
  2. secrete granzyme\perforin to kill target cells
  3. kill via death receptors
  4. secrete cytokines to olarize immune responses
153
Q

NKT cells express functional ___ receptors that interact with ___ and ___

A

T cell; CD1 & conserved glycolipid moieties

154
Q

NKT cells develop in the ___ and mature in the ___

A

bone marrow; thymus

155
Q

what are the functions of NKT cells?

A

kill virus-infected and cancer cells & make pro-inflammatory cytokines to direct other immune cels

156
Q

___- tissues are the sites of lymphoid development / maturation

A

primary lymphoid tissues

157
Q

____ and ____ are primary or central lymphoid organs and are the site of lymphocyte maturation

A

thymus; bone marrow

158
Q

___ tissues are the sites of lymphoid activation

A

secondary lymphoid tissues

159
Q

what are the secondary lymphoid tissues?

A

lymph nodes
speen
mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT) such as
gut-associated lymphoid tissues (GALT)

160
Q

antigens are trapped in ___ tissues, providing an opportunity for interaction with mature lymphocytes and antigen-dependent maturation of T and B cells

A

secondary lymphoid tissues

161
Q

secondary lymphoid tissues contain ___ that permit transit of immune cells

A

high endothelial venules (HEV)

162
Q

_____ tissues are the site of lymphocyte activity

A

teriary lymphoid

163
Q

teriary lymphoid tissues typically contain ___ (more/fewer) lymphoid cells than secondary lymphoid organs

164
Q

t/f tertiary lymphoid tissues can import lymphoid cells during an inflammatory response

165
Q

give an example of a tertiary lymphoid tissue

A

cutaneous-associated lymphoid tissue (CALT_

166
Q

what is the morphology of the thymus?

A

bi-lobed, encapsulated organ with lobules, separated by connective tissue strands (trabeculae)

167
Q

the outermost part of the thymus is called the ___ and is densely packed with ___

A

cortex; immature proliferating thymocytes

168
Q

the inner part of the thymus is called the ___ and is sparsely populated with ___

A

medulla; more mature thymocytes

169
Q

during maturation, thymocytes interact with what 4 types of cells?

A
  1. cortical epithelial cells
  2. medullary epithelial cells
  3. dendreitic cells
  4. macrophages
170
Q

the ___ are the site of generation for T and B cell antibody responses to sepcific antigens

A

lymph nodes

171
Q

the ___ provides a location where lymphocytes can interact with antigens & antigen-presenting cells, especially interdigitating dendritic cells

A

lymph nodes

172
Q

what happens to particulate matter and microorganisms in the lymph nodes that prevents them from entering the blood stream?

A

phagocytosis

173
Q

what is the morphology of the lymph nodes?

A

bean-shaped capsules

174
Q

how do lymph nodes get blood supply?

A
  1. sinuses (subcupsular, cortical medullary)

2. blood vessels (arterioles, venules, post capillary venules)

175
Q

t/f there are both efferent and afferent lymph vessels

176
Q

the parenchyma of the lymph nodes can be divided into what 3 groups?

A
  1. cortex (lymphoid follicles)
  2. paracortex
  3. medulla (medullary cords)
177
Q

the primary follicles of the lymph node cortex contain what 3 cell types?

A

naive B, follicular dendritic, macrophages

178
Q

the secondary follicles of the lymph cortex contain ___ cells in __ centers

A

activated B cells in germinal centers

179
Q

the paracortex of the lymph node contains what 2 cell types?

A
  1. T cells

2. interdigitating dendritic cells

180
Q

the medulla of the lymph nodes contains what 3 cell types?

A

phagocytic macrophages, antibody-secreting plasma cells, some activated memory T and B cells moving into the efferent lymph

181
Q

the reticular network (stroma) of the lymph nodes is made up of what 3 things?

A
  1. extracellular matrix
  2. reticular fibers
  3. fibrolastic reticular cells
182
Q

what is the function of the reticular network (stroma)?

A

provides structure and support to lymphocyte compartments

183
Q

define “lymphatic system”

A

a network of vessels that collect fluid and lymphocytes that have flitered from the capillaries, through tissues and then returning them to the blood stream

184
Q

in the process of lymphatic circulation, ___ and ___ are transported and concentrated in the lymph nodes to enable their interactiosn

A

leukocytes and antigens

185
Q

the fluid component of blood (plasma) that leaks out of capillaries is called ___

A

interstitial fluid

186
Q

most of the interstitial fluid that leaks out of capillaries returns back through capillaries and into the blood, but the small amount that does not is called ___ and it is collected by tiny open ___ capillaries

A

lymph; lymphatic capillaries

187
Q

lymphatic capillaries join and become progressively larger lymphatic vessels, ultimately draining via the ___ duct into the ____ vein and back into the blood to return ___ and ___

A

thoracic; left subclavian; fluid and activated lymphocytes

188
Q

afferent lymphatic vessels bring lymph ___ (in/out)

189
Q

the lymph that enters the afferent vessels contains ____, ____ and a few ___ from tissues and brings these thinsg inot regional lymph nodes

A

antigen-carrying dendritic cells, particulate antigens and a few lymphocytes

190
Q

efferent lymphatic vessels carry lymph ___ (in/out)

191
Q

efferent lymphatic vessels carry lymph away from lymph nodes via the ___ and into venous circulation

192
Q

what is carried in efferent lymph from nodes and to the rest of the body to help fight infection?

A

antibodies made by plasma B cells, distributing effector cells and antibodies

193
Q

what organ is the location where immune responses are mounted against antigens in the blood?

194
Q

old/defective red blood cells are phagocytosed and recycled in what organ?

195
Q

the ____ is a large ovoid organ situated in the upper left quadrant of the abdominal cavity and is surrounded by a capsule

196
Q

the spleen consists of ___ pulp and ___ pulp, which are separated by a ____ zone

A

red and white; marginal zone

197
Q

what is the function of the white pulp of the spleen?

A

generation of T & B cell responses (antibodies) against blood-borne antigens

198
Q

what is the function of the marginal zone of the spleen?

A

interdigitating dendritic cells trap blood-borne antigens and transport them to the white pulp

199
Q

what is the function of teh red pulp of the spleen?

A

macrophages phagocytose blood borne pathogens and defective/old RBCs

200
Q

the skin has a ___(high/low) pH that helps resist pathogens

201
Q

what is contained in tears that helps fight pathogens?

202
Q

t/f sloughing off of the skin’s surface helps remove surface bacteria

203
Q

what does commensal bacteria mean?

A

beneficial bacteria

204
Q

Tolerogenic dendritic cells phagocytose things and present them to ___ T cells

A

supressive T cells like T regulatory cells

205
Q

what IL turns off the immune response?

206
Q

what feature is only expressed by T-Regulatory cells and can help us identify them?

A

Fox3T transcription factor

207
Q

t/f in many cases )including COVID), it is not the actual pathogen that kills you, but an immune response that is too hihg

208
Q

what does polarization of the immune response mean?

A

different aspects of the immune system are activated for different types of reactions

209
Q

circulating ready-made effector cells have ___ and ___, (B and T cells) while sentinel cells do not

A

memory; antibody production

210
Q

hematopoietic stem cells are ____(rapid\slow) dividing

211
Q

what is the first site of specification for hematopoiesis?

A

the mesoderm (germ layer that arises during gastrolation)

212
Q

the mesoderm can be found between the ___ (which forms the ___) and the ___ (which forms the ___)

A

ectoderm (skin and neurons); endoderm (guts and lungs)

213
Q

maturation of HSC occurs in the ____, which is derived from the mesoderm

A

AGM (aorta gonad mesonephrous)

214
Q

why is the placenta sometimes stored for transplants of immune cells?

A

there is immune cell production in the placenta

215
Q

the extracellular matric inside the medullary cavity of bone consists of what 3 main components?

A
  1. viscous proteoglycan
  2. insoluble collagen fibers
  3. stromal cells
216
Q

what are stromal cells?

A

basically everything BUT HSC (so things like endothelial cells, nerves, osteoblasts etc.)

217
Q

what are the functions of the stromal cells?

A

provide scaffold and nutrients (like cytokines release small soluble proteins)

218
Q

adhesion molecules will bind to ___ on immune cells and give specific signals from ___

A

receptors; differentiation

219
Q

t/f dendritic cells can arise from both myeloid and lymphoid pathways

220
Q

t/f CD8+ T cells take longer to form, but they give long lasting memory

221
Q

t/f B cells dont secrete antibodies until they become plasma cells

222
Q

do innate lymphoid cells move around?

A

no, they are stationary and help ensure barriers stay intact (also send signal to help repair barrier if broken)

223
Q

___factors tell immune cells what to differentiate into

A

transcription

224
Q

there can be some progression of teh lymphoid pathway if PU1 is only presnet after ____ is produced. In this case, teh cell will become a ___ cell

A

lymphoid progenerator; B

225
Q

what dictates which transcription factors will be expressed?

A

outside signals (cytokines and cytokine receptors that are being triggered by cytokines from the environment or adhesion molecules they are touching

226
Q

granulopoeisis causes cells to become ____ (smaller or larger)

227
Q

when phagocytes come through the endothelium, this is called ___

A

extravastation

228
Q

neutrophils are gobbled up by ___ cells after ___ days of life

A

macrophages; 2 days

229
Q

the lobular nucleus neutrophils helps in the function of ____

A

netosis (dumping their chromatin onto sites of infection to trap bacteria so it can be gobbled up by neutrophils)

230
Q

neutrophils have granules that contain ___ to help kill the things they gobble up

231
Q

what is chemotoxis?

A

movement of immune cells to the site where chemokines are

232
Q

neutrophils produce cytokines for the education of ___ and ___ cells

233
Q

what is the role of defensins?

A

poke holes in bacteria

234
Q

what type of enzyme is eosinophil cationic protein (ECP)?

A

ribonuclease

235
Q

basophils can bind to ___ on pathogens and then can ____ things to kill the bacteria

A

antigens; exocytose

236
Q

describe the granules of mast cells

A

densly staining, very many in the cytoplasm

237
Q

what is shape of the nucleus of mast cells?

238
Q

where are mast cells mainly found in the body?

A

under the skin and in the gut

239
Q

mast cells have toll-like receptors for ____ (which is responsible for the allergic response

240
Q

activated monocytes turn into ___ or ___ cells

A

macrophages or dendritic cells

241
Q

t/f monocytes can phagocytize, but not as much as macrophages or dendritic cells

242
Q

t/f mast cells protect against bacteria and parasites

243
Q

alveolar cells move around in the alveolar space gobbling up pathogens that are trapped in the ___

A

surfactant

244
Q

when macrophages are activated, they can make a T cell response to ___ via the production of ___

A

TH1; IFN gamma

245
Q

macrophages can kill things better after being activated, because they will have higher production of ____

A

superoxide anions etc.

246
Q

activated macrophages produce more cytokines to create more ___

A

inflammation

247
Q

macrophages decide to use their ____ to phagocytize a pathogen because of one of what 2 reasons?

A

pseudopodia; 1. there are toll-like receptors for things that are on the surface of the pathogen, or 2. because the pathogen is covered in anti-bodies and the macrophage has the Fc receptor for the tail portion of the antibody

248
Q

describe the process of macrophage phagocytosis and antigen presentation:

A
  1. macrophage determines that it needs to phagocytize the pathogen
  2. engulfed into a phagosome
  3. lysosome fuses with the phagosome and its enzymes and low pH degrade the bacteria
  4. bacterial peptides are loaded by chaperone proteins into class 2 MHC
  5. macrophage presents antigen to help activate CD4+ T cells
249
Q

when a monocyte becomes a macrophage, is there an increase or decrease in pseudopodia?

250
Q

plasmacytoid dendritic cells are found in the ___ and ___ and are really good at recognizing ___

A

blood and spleen; viruses

251
Q

plasmacytoid dendritic cells have which toll-like receptors? What do they recognize?

A

TLR 7,8,&9; recognize viral nucleic acid

252
Q

once plasmacytoid dendritic cells recognize a virus through TLR, they can make lots of ___, which is very important for eliminating viruses

A

type 1 IFN

253
Q

what is the most important type of antigen presenting cell?

A

dendritic cells

254
Q

dendritic cells produce things to activate T cells, such as IL__

255
Q

what cells are the most common lymphocytes?

256
Q

all T cells express CD_

257
Q

t/f CD4+ T cells make a lot of cytokines and each T cell doesnt make all cytokines, it makes a specific group of cytokines depending on the differentiation of the cd4+ cell

258
Q

each B cell is coated in ___ and has different ___ specificity

A

antibodies; antigen

259
Q

what usually happens to B cells with auto-reactivity?

A

usually deleted in the bone marrow

260
Q

how to B cells present antigens to CD4+ T cells?

A

antigen is internalized, chopped up in the B cell then presented on class 2 MHC to the CD4+ T cells

261
Q

t/f B cells need to come in contact with the right T cells receptor or the T cell will not release the cytokines needed for a B cell to become a plasma cell

262
Q

which acts first in the immune response, NK cells or T cells?

263
Q

NKT cells have characteristics of both ___ and ___ cells

A

NK and T cells

264
Q

CD1 doesnt present peptides, but rather presents ____ because ___

A

conserved glycolipid moieties; because it recognizes special glycolipids as being pathogenic

265
Q

ILC 1,2,3 mirror which T helper subsets?

266
Q

secondary lymphoid tissues contain a special type of venule called ____, which is how immune cells from the blood reach teh lymph nodes and the spleen

A

high endothelial venule

267
Q

what is CALT?

A

places in the skin with increased number of immune cells

268
Q

t/f the cortex of the thymus is filled with rapidly dividing thymocytes, but 99% will never leave the thymus bc there will be something wrong with them

269
Q

give 2 reasons why Thymocytes may be dfective and neve leave the thymus

A
  1. T cell receptor may not be active

2. they are selfreactive

270
Q

why do lymph nodes get swollen during infection?

A

they are being filled with replicating T and B cells

271
Q

what are the 3 main regions of the lymph node?

A
  1. cortex
  2. paracortex
  3. medulla
272
Q

in the lymph nodes, where are B cells found?

A

follicles in the cortex

273
Q

in the lymph nodes., where are t cells found?

A

paracortex

274
Q

where is the lymph nodes are t and b cells activated and where plasma b cells are making lots of antibodies?

275
Q

how does lymph move through the lymphatic system?

A

contracting smooth muscles that line the vessels, and there are one-way valves

276
Q

the periarterial lymphoid sheath is a ___ cell zone

Immunology PY2 (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions