Lecture 2: Antimicrobials CB Flashcards

1
Q

Prevention Guidelines for Surgical Site Infections(SSI)
• SSI are second most common healthcare associated infection
• SSIs develop in 2-4% of 30 million surgical patients
• Represent approximately 14-16% of all hospital acquired infections annually in the U.S. and cost 9.8 billion dollars/year
• SSIs account for 3% of surgical mortality and lead to:

A
  • SSI are second most common healthcare associated infection
  • SSIs develop in 2-4% of 30 million surgical patients
  • Represent approximately 14-16% of all hospital acquired infections annually in the U.S. and cost 9.8 billion dollars/year
  • SSIs account for 3% of surgical mortality and lead to:
  • Increased re-admissions
  • increased length of stay (7-10 days)
  • Increased hospital costs (additional $3000-29,000/per SSI diagnosis)
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2
Q

Surgical Site Infections(SSI)
• SSI defined as an infection related to a operative procedure that occurs at or near the surgical incision within X days of the procedure
• Purulent exudate draining from a surgical site
• A positive culture obtained from a surgical site that was closed initially
• A surgeon’s diagnosis of infection
• A surgical site that requires reopening due to at least one of the following signs or symptoms:

A

Surgical Site Infections(SSI)
• SSI defined as an infection related to a operative procedure that occurs at or near the surgical incision within 30 days of the procedure
• Purulent exudate draining from a surgical site
• A positive culture obtained from a surgical site that was closed initially
• A surgeon’s diagnosis of infection
• A surgical site that requires reopening due to at least one of the following signs or symptoms: tenderness, swelling, redness or heat

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3
Q

Surgical Site Infections(SSI) Prevention
• According to the literature most SSIs are ?
• Anesthesia providers can make an impact on prevention through:
• Timely and appropriate use of ?
• Maintenance of ?
• Proper syringe/med administration practices
• Perioperative ___________ control?

A

Surgical Site Infections(SSI) Prevention
• According to the literature most SSIs are preventable
• Anesthesia providers can make an impact on prevention through:
• Timely and appropriate use of antibiotics
• Maintenance of normothermia
• Proper syringe/med administration practices
• Perioperative glucose control

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4
Q

Risk for development of Surgical Site Infections(SSI)

SURGICAL RISK:

A
Procedure Type 
Skill of surgeon 
Use of foreign material or implantable device
- no blood supply for abx 
Degree of tissue trauma
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5
Q

Risk for development of Surgical Site Infections(SSI)

PATIENT RISKS:

A
  • Diabetes
  • Smoking use
  • Obesity
  • Malnutrition
  • Systemic steroid use (not proven)
  • Immunosuppressive therapy
  • Intraoperative hypothermia
  • Trauma
  • Prosthetic heart valves
  • Extremes of age
  • Hair removal
  • Preoperative hospitalization
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6
Q

Surgical Site Infections(SSI) Prevention
Antibiotic Timing:
Antibiotic prophylaxis X hour(s) before ______ had the lowest rate of SSI
30-60 minutes before ______ is the ideal window for drug administration

A

Antibiotic Timing:
Antibiotic prophylaxis 1 hour before incision had the lowest rate of SSI
30-60 minutes before incision is the ideal window for drug administration

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7
Q

Surgical Site Infections(SSI) Prevention:

Normothermia – consider ____________ measures

Hypothermia is associated with adverse outcomes which include:

Compromised Neutrophil function→ vasoconstriction → tissue ________ and increased incidence of SSI

A

Normothermia – consider pre-warming measures

Hypothermia is associated with adverse outcomes which include: 
⚫Increased blood loss 
⚫Increased transfusion requirements 
⚫Prolonged PACU stay 
⚫Post-op pain 
⚫Impaired immune function 

Compromised Neutrophil function→ vasoconstriction → tissue hypoxia and increased incidence of SSI

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8
Q

Review slide 8!

A

Review slide 8!

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9
Q

Review slide 9!

A

Review slide 9!

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10
Q

Microbial resistance to anti-microbials
Major threat to public health:
• New Delhi Metallo-Beta Lactamase 1 _____
Mechanisms:
• Inc/dec active transport out of the bacterial cell and/or decrease the active transport into the cell?
• Structural changes in the drug _____
• Production of a drug antibiotic __________
• Enzymatic drug __________
• The more antibiotics are used the more __________ develops (in target bacteria and normal flora)
• Antibiotics are used extensively in hospitals
• 1.7 million patients acquire nosocomial infections almost 100,000 die

A

Major threat to public health:
• New Delhi Metallo-Beta Lactamase 1 Gene
- resists all abx but 2?
Mechanisms:
• Increase active transport out of the bacterial cell and/or decrease the active transport into the cell
• Structural changes in the drug target
• Production of a drug antibiotic antagonist
• Enzymatic drug destruction
• The more antibiotics are used the more resistance develops (in target bacteria and normal flora)
• Antibiotics are used extensively in hospitals
• 1.7 million patients acquire nosocomial infections almost 100,000 die

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11
Q

CDC “Campaign to Prevent Microbial Resistance”

What can we do?

A
  • Encourage vaccination
  • Limit invasive catheter use/vigilant infection control with placement
  • Involve infectious disease experts
  • Identify and target the specific microbe
  • Quality control mechanisms for abx use
  • Use local information about pathogen & sensitivity “antibiogram”
  • Treat infection, not contamination or colonization
  • Limit vancomycin use
  • Avoid using when infection is cured or not likely present
  • Isolation/infectious control procedures
  • Hand washing
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12
Q

Antimicrobial Therapy and Anesthesia Practice: Signficance
⚫Prophylaxis before surgery:
Anesthesia plays important role in timely administration of ?
Reimbursement for quality care
⚫Potential for adverse reactions
Hypersensitivity Reaction (dose dependent/independent)
Direct organ toxicity (dose related/unrelated)
Potential for superinfections
Identify patients at risk for complications
⚫Cross-reactions with other medications we give

A

Signficance
⚫Prophylaxis before surgery:
Anesthesia plays important role in timely administration of ABXs
Reimbursement for quality care
⚫Potential for adverse reactions
Hypersensitivity Reaction (dose independent)
Direct organ toxicity (dose related)
Potential for superinfections
Identify patients at risk for complications
⚫Cross-reactions with other medications we give

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13
Q

Bactericidal

A

kill the susceptible bacteria

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14
Q

Bacteriostatic

A

reversibly inhibit the growth of bacteria

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15
Q
  • In general the use of bacteri______ antibiotics is preferred but many factors may dictate the use of a bacteriostatic antibiotic.
  • When a bacteri______ antibiotic is used the duration of therapy must be sufficient to allow cellular and humoral defense mechanisms to eradicate the bacteria.
A
  • In general the use of bactericidal antibiotics is preferred but many factors may dictate the use of a bacteriostatic antibiotic.
  • When a bacteriostatic antibiotic is used the duration of therapy must be sufficient to allow cellular and humoral defense mechanisms to eradicate the bacteria.
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16
Q
Types of antibiotics
Bactericidal ~ most SSIs
• Penicillin's & Cephalosporin's 
• Isoniazid 
• Metronidazole
• Polymyxins 
• Rifampin 
• Vancomycin 
• Aminoglycosides 
• Bacitracin 
• Quinolones
A
Types of antibiotics
Bactericidal ~ most SSIs
• Penicillin's & Cephalosporin's 
• Isoniazid 
• Metronidazole
• Polymyxins 
• Rifampin 
• Vancomycin 
• Aminoglycosides 
• Bacitracin 
• Quinolones
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17
Q
Types of antibiotics
Bacteriostatic 
• Chloramphenicol 
• Clindamycin 
• Macrolides 
• Sulfonamides 
• Tetracyclines 
• Trimethoprim
A
Types of antibiotics
Bacteriostatic 
• Chloramphenicol 
• Clindamycin 
• Macrolides 
• Sulfonamides 
• Tetracyclines 
• Trimethoprim
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18
Q

Antimicrobials and Anesthesiology
⚫Goals and General Rules
1. Inhibit microorganisms at concentrations that are tolerated by the?
2. MIC= ?
3. Seriously ill/ immunocompromised select bacteri____
4. Narrow spectrum before or after broad spectrum or combination therapy to preserve normal flora

A

Antimicrobials and Anesthesiology
⚫Goals and General Rules
1. Inhibit microorganisms at concentrations that are tolerated by the host
2. MIC= Minimum Inhibitory concentration to be effective
3. Seriously ill/ immunocompromised select bactericidal 4. Narrow spectrum before broad spectrum or combination therapy to preserve normal flora

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19
Q

Antimicrobials: Selective toxicity

Exploit cellular biological differences between microbes and mammals……

A
  • Bacterial cell wall
  • Bacterial enzyme inhibition
  • Bacterial ribosome
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20
Q

Beta-Lactam Antibiotics:

A

Penicillins
Cephalosporins
Carbapenems

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21
Q

Beta Lactams: Mechanism of Action

A

Weaken bacterial cell wall
• Bind to penicillin binding proteins (only expressed during bacterial proliferation~atively dividing)
- Activate autolysins (decrease inhibition of murein hydrolase – enzymatic destruction of cell wall)
- Inhibit (transpeptidases) enzyme needed for cell wall synthesis and integrity

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22
Q

Penicillin
• Basic structure is a dicyclic nucleus that consists of a thiazolidine ring connected to a _________ ring
• Several subtypes based on structure, B-lactamase activity, and spectrum ?
• Bacteri_____

A

Penicillin
• Basic structure is a dicyclic nucleus that consists of a thiazolidine ring connected to a B-lactam ring
• Several subtypes based on structure, B-lactamase activity, and spectrum
• Bactericidal

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23
Q

Penicillin
• Allergic reactions are the principle concern- most common cause of drug allergy (Allergy incidence is 1-10% of patients)
• ___________ (.004-.04% with 10% mortality)
- Laryngeal edema, bronchoconstriction, severe hypotension
• May occur on 1st _________ (PCN contamination in food supply)
• ** patients with documented IgE mediated anaphylactic reactions the Beta lactam antibiotics can be substituted with ?

A

Penicillin
• Allergic reactions are the principle concern- most common cause of drug allergy (Allergy incidence is 1-10% of patients)
• Anaphylaxis (.004-.04% with 10% mortality)
• Laryngeal edema, bronchoconstriction, severe hypotension
• May occur on 1st exposure (PCN contamination in food supply)
• ** patients with documented IgE mediated anaphylactic reactions the Blactam antibiotics can be substituted with Clindamycin or Vancomycin

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24
Q

Penicillin - G (NOT Ampicillin): Excretion
• Renal excretion is rapid/slow: plasma concentration inc/dec 50% in 1st hour
• X% glomerular filtration
• X% renal tubular secretion
• _______ increases elimination half-time by 10 fold
• Adjust ______ in renal failure
• Administration of _________ will reduce renal excretion and ________ action

A

Penicillin - G (NOT Ampicillin): Excretion
• Renal excretion is rapid: plasma concentration decreases 50% in 1st hour
• 10% glomerular filtration
• 90% renal tubular secretion
• Anuria increases elimination half-time by 10 fold
• Adjust dose in renal failure
• Administration of probenecid will reduce renal excretion and prolong action

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25
Q

Broad Spectrum Penicillin: Second generation

A
  • Amoxicillin

* Ampicillin - 50% excreted unchanged by the kidney 6 hours after admin

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26
Q

Even more Broad Spectrum Penicillin: Third generation
Organisms
• Same as second generation + ?

Carbenicillin
• Elimination half time is ?
• X% excreted unchanged by the kidney
• High/low sodium load (30—40 mg/caution in ___)
• Hypo_______
• Metabolic ________
• _________ bleeding time despite nml plt count

A

Broad Spectrum Penicillin: Third generation
Organisms
• Same as second generation + ?
• Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Proteus

Carbenicillin
• Elimination half time is 1 hour (2 hours renal disease)
• 85% excreted unchanged by the kidney
• High sodium load (30—40 mg/caution in CHF)
• Hypokalemia
• Metabolic alkalosis
• Prolonged bleeding time despite nml plt count

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27
Q

Beta-Lactamase Resistant Penicillins
Agents:

Spectrum of Activity:
• Broad/Narrow spectrum agents = ?
• Binds irreversibly to ____________ enzymes (large side group sterically hinders ____________ from cleaving ____________ ring

A

Beta-Lactamase Resistant Penicillins
Agents:
• Dicloxacillin
• Nafcillin (penetrates CNS; 80% secreted in the bile/good for pts w/renal dysfunction)
• Oxacillin
Spectrum of Activity:
• Narrow spectrum agents (Staph & Strep)
• Binds irreversibly to B-lactamase enzymes (large side group sterically hinders B-lactamase from cleaving B-lactam ring)

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28
Q

Beta-Lactamase Resistant Penicillins
• Nafcillin
- penetrates ?
- X% secreted in the bile/good for pts w/ _____ dysfunction

A

• Nafcillin

  • penetrates CNS
  • 80% secreted in the bile/good for pts w/renal dysfunction
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29
Q

B-Lactam/B-Lactamase inhibitor combinations:

A
  • Ampicillin/Sulbactam (Unasyn®)
  • Amoxicillin/Clavulanic Acid (Augmentin ®)
  • Ticarcillin/Clavulanic Acid (Timentin ®)
  • Pipercillin/Tazobactam (Zosyn ®)
  • pt will end up with diarrhea
  • *we want to preserve these from resistance!
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30
Q

Cephalosporins: Class

A

• Beta-lactam antibiotics

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31
Q

Cephalosporins

• Favorable or unfavorable therapeutic index?

A

• Favorable therapeutic index

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32
Q

Cephalosporins

• Bacteri_____

A

• Bactericidal

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33
Q

Cephalosporins: MOA

A

Same as pcns!
Bind to penicillin binding proteins
• Activate autolysins
• Inhibit (transpeptidases) enzyme needed for cell wall synthesis and integrity

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34
Q

Cephalosporins

1st & 2nd generation cephalosporins:

3rd & 4th generation cephalosporins:

4th generation cephalosporins:

*Beta lactimase susceptibility inc/dec as you move from the 1st to 4th generation

A

Cephalosporins

1st & 2nd generation cephalosporins:
Gram positive activity

3rd & 4th generation cephalosporins:
Gram negative activity & activity against anaerobes & ability to penetrate the BBB into CSF

4th generation cephalosporins: (EXPENSIVE)- maintain good gram neg. activity (including pseudomonas)
Retains gram positive activity of earlier generation cephalosporins

*Beta lactimase susceptibility also decreases as you move from the 1st to 4th generation

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35
Q

Cephalosporins: Examples From Each Generation

First generation =

A

• Cephalexin, cefazolin

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36
Q

Cephalosporins: Examples From Each Generation

Second generation =

A

• Cefuroxime, cefoxitin, cefotetan

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37
Q

Cephalosporins: Examples From Each Generation

Third generation =

A

• Ceftazidime, ceftriaxone, cefotaxime (BBB)

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38
Q

Cephalosporins: Examples From Each Generation

Fourth generation – (broadest) =

A

• Cefepime

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39
Q
Cephalosporins: Examples From Each Generation 
Fifth generation (or 3rd generation depending on the source) =
A

• Ceftaroline (MRSA coverage)

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40
Q

Broadest Cephalosporin =

A

• Cefepime

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41
Q

Cephalosporin MRSA coverage =

A

• Ceftaroline (MRSA coverage)

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42
Q

Cephalosporins: Elimination

A

Cephalosporins: Elimination
• Primarily renal (dose reduction in renal disease)
• Ceftriaxone the exception only 33-67% excreted unchanged + significant hepatic metabolism (also longest E1/2t of 3rd generation)

43
Q

Cephalosporins: Routes of Administration
• ? generation have both IV and oral formulations
• ? cephalosporins are generally administered IV

A

Cephalosporins: Routes of Administration
• 1st and 2nd generation have both IV and oral formulations
• Broadest spectrum cephalosporins are generally administered IV

44
Q

Cephalosporin Antibiotics: Cefazolin (First generation)
• Very common for ?
• Crosses the ?
• Allergy incidence is X-X%
• Life threatening anaphylaxis = X% (_________ edema, _______constriction, severe ____________)
• _______________ with other cephalosporins
• ___________ and Cephalosporin cross reactivity only X% (but when it happens it is ?)
• ________ excretion

A

Cephalosporin Antibiotics: Cefazolin (First generation)
• Very common for SSI prophylaxis (CV, ortho, biliary, pelvic, intraabdominal)
• Crosses the placenta
• Allergy incidence is 1-10%
• Life threatening anaphylaxis = 0.02% (Laryngeal edema, bronchoconstriction, severe hypotension)
• Cross reactivity with other cephalosporins
• Penicillin and Cephalosporin cross reactivity only 1% (but when it happens it is life threatening)
• Renal excretion

45
Q

Cephalosporins: Adverse Effects
• Hypersensitivity: Cross-reactivity in patients with _________ allergy ~ X%
• Bleeding: ______, ______, _______ inhibit conversion of ____________ to active form
• ______________ (IV site)
• __________ anemia
• _______________ (C.diff)

A

Cephalosporins: Adverse Effects
• Hypersensitivity: Cross-reactivity in patients with PCN allergy ~ 1%
• Bleeding (cefoperazone, cefotetan, cetriaxone) inhibit conversion of vitamin K to active form
• Thrombophlebitis (IV site)
• Hemolytic anemia
• Superinfection (C.diff)

46
Q

Cephalosporins: Drug Interactions
• __________ (prolong DOA by delaying elimination)
• ETOH ______, ______, ______, _______ disulfiram like reaction
• Anticoagulants/anti-plt drugs w/ 4 mentioned above
• Calcium + ____________ = fatal precipitates (especially neonates)

A

Cephalosporins: Drug Interactions
• Probenecid (prolong DOA by delaying elimination)
• ETOH (cefazolin, cefmetazole, cefoperazone,cefotetan) disulfiram like reaction
• Anticoagulants/anti-plt drugs w/ 4 mentioned above
• Calcium + Ceftriaxone = fatal precipitates (especially neonates)

47
Q

Monobactams: Aztreonam (Azactam ®)

Cell wall agent
• Inhibits ?
• Has a high affinity to a specific ___________ in gram negative bacteria only
• Highly resistant to ?

Broad/Narrow spectrum of activity?
• Excellent activity against gram negative organisms,
• No activity against gram positive organisms
• Penetrates ?

Few/many adverse effects ?

Excreted /changed/unchanged by the kidney (E1/2 t X hrs) ?

Expensive

Most significant risk is superinfections where?

Good substitute for patients with a _________ allergy- cross reactivity is unlikely (Lacks thiazolidine ring (PCN) and the dihydrothiazine ring (cephalosporins))

A

Monobactams: Aztreonam (Azactam ®)

Cell wall agent
• Inhibits cell wall synthesis = cell lysis and death occur
• Has a high affinity to a specific PBP (PBP3) in gram negative bacteria only
• Highly resistant to beta-lactimases

Narrow spectrum of activity
• Excellent activity against gram negative organisms,
• No activity against gram positive organisms
• Penetrates CSF

Few adverse effects

Excreted unchanged by the kidney (E1/2 t 1.5 hrs)

Expensive

Most significant risk is GI superinfections

Good substitute for patients with a penicillin allergy- cross reactivity is unlikely (Lacks thiazolidine ring (PCN) and the dihydrothiazine ring (cephalosporins))

48
Q

Macrolides
? Spectrum Agents usually bacteri? (bacteri?/high concentrations):

Compounds characterized by a macrolytic lactone ring containing 14-16 atoms with a deoxy sugar attached

A

Macrolides
Broad Spectrum Agents usually bacteriostatic (bacteriocidal/high concentrations)
• Erythromycin
• Clarithromycin (Biaxin ®)
• Azithromycin (Zithromax ®)
Compounds characterized by a macrolytic lactone ring containing 14-16 atoms with a deoxy sugar attached

49
Q

Macrolides: Mechanism of Action

A

• Bind to 50S subunit of the ribosome to block protein synthesis in bacterial cells

50
Q

Macrolides: Spectrum of Activity (relatively broad- similar to PCN/useful w/PCN allergy)
• Activity against common gram positive and negative pathogens
• Limited activity against anaerobes
• Very good activity against _________ pathogens:

A

Macrolides: Spectrum of Activity (relatively broad- similar to PCN/useful w/PCN allergy)
• Activity against common gram positive and negative pathogens
• Limited activity against anaerobes
• Very good activity against atypical pathogens:
**(Commonly used for community acquired pneumonia (CAP), Legionella pneumophila (legionnaire’s disease), pertussis, acute diphtheria, chlamydial infections, bacterial endocarditis, etc.)

51
Q

Macrolides: Adverse effects

A
N/V/D
abd px
liver toxicity (estolate related)
inhibit P-450 (drug interactions)
increased QTc
52
Q

Macrolides (Erythromycin): Metabolism & Elimination
Metabolized by the ________________ system and thus increase serum concentration of ?
Excreted mostly in ?
No need to alter dose in ______ disease

A

Metabolized by the cytochrome P-450 system and thus increase serum concentration of theophylline, warfarin, cyclosporine, methylprednisone and digoxin
Excreted mostly in bile
No need to alter dose in renal disease

53
Q

Macrolides (Erythromycin): Side Effects

A
• GI intolerance 
- Most common side effect 
- Severe N/V can occur with IV infusion 
• May slow gastric emptying (asp. risk)
• Cholestasic hepatitis
54
Q

Macrolides (Erythromycin): QT effects
• Prolongs ?
• Reports of ?
• CYP3A inhibitors (_________, ________, ________ inhibitors, ________ antifungals) can increase plasma concentrations and increase risk of fatal ventricular dysrhythmias
• _X increase in sudden cardiac death when erythromycin and CYP3A4 inhibitor are prescribed together

A

Macrolides (Erythromycin): QT effects
• Prolongs cardiac repolarization
• Reports of torsades de pointes
• CYP3A inhibitors (Verapamil, diltiazem, protease inhibitors, azole antifungals) can increase plasma concentrations and increase risk of fatal ventricular dysrhythmias
• 5X increase in sudden cardiac death when erythromycin and CYP3A4 inhibitor are prescribed together

55
Q

Macrolides (Erythromycin):
• __ formulation associated with tinnitus hearing loss
• Thrombo_________ (Common with prolonged __ use)

A
  • IV formulation associated with tinnitus hearing loss
  • Thrombophlebitis
  • Common with prolonged IV use
56
Q

Clindamycin: Class

A

Linomycins

57
Q

Clindamycin: Mechanism of Action

A
  • Blocks protein synthesis by binding to 50S ribosomal subunit
  • Usually bacteriostatic agent
58
Q

Clindamycin:
⚫Similar to Erythromycin in antimicrobial activity
⚫More active with anaerobes
⚫Pseudomembranous colitis→ severe diarrhea should indicate ?
⚫Most commonly used in ?
⚫What limit its use to infections that are difficult to treat?

A

⚫Similar to Erythromycin in antimicrobial activity
⚫More active with anaerobes
⚫Pseudomembranous colitis→ severe diarrhea should indicate discontinuation of therapy
⚫Most commonly used in female GU surgeries ⚫Severe complications limit its use to infections that are difficult to treat

59
Q

Clindamycin: DOSING
Only 10% of administered dose is excreted unchanged in ?
Decrease dose in severe _____ disease

A

Only 10% of administered dose is excreted unchanged in urine
*Decrease dose-severe liver disease

60
Q

Clindamycin: SIDE EFFECTS
_______ (related or unrelated to Pseudomembranous colitis due to C.diff infection~6%)
⚫_____ Rash/Hypersensitivity, _____
⚫_____ dyscrasias (eosinophilia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia)
Prolonged pre and post junctional effects at NMJ in the absences of ____
Not antagonized with anticholinesterases or calcium *Concurrent administration with ____ can produce long lasting, profound neuromuscular blockade

A

Clindamycin: SIDE EFFECTS
N/V/D (related or unrelated to Pseudomembranous colitis due to C.diff infection~6%)
⚫Skin Rash/Hypersensitivity, fever
⚫Blood dyscrasias (eosinophilia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia)
Prolonged pre and post junctional effects at NMJ in the absences of NDMR
Not antagonized with anticholinesterases or calcium *Concurrent administration with NDMR can produce long lasting, profound neuromuscular blockade

61
Q

Vancomycin (Glycopepetide): Mechanism of Action
• Inhibits ?
• Binds and inactivates ?
• Bacteri?

A
  • Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis= cell lysis & death
  • Binds and inactivates cell wall precursors
  • Bactericidal – “slowly” cidal
62
Q

Vancomycin (Glycopepetide): Spectrum of Activity
**Gram ________ activity only*
**Synergistic action with ?
Narrow Spectrum → but….
• **“Activity against ?
• Severe ? infection
• Good choice in severe ? allergy patients
• Severe ? infections
• ______coccal, ______coccal endocarditis
• Cardiac/Orthopedic procedures using ?
• ___ and _____ related infections

***Reserve use for severe infections and these indications only to prevent development of ? If bacteria become _________ to vancomycin, there are only a few other drugs that may be effective in treating the patient.

A

Vancomycin (Glycopepetide): Spectrum of Activity
Gram positive activity only
Synergistic action with aminoglycosides *allows access through cell wall?
Narrow Spectrum → but….
• “Activity against MRSA (methicillin resistant staph aureus)
• Severe C-difficile infection
• Good choice in severe PCN allergy patients
• Severe staph infections
• Streptococcal, enterococcal endocarditis
• Cardiac/Orthopedic procedures using prosthetic devices
• CSF and shunt related infections

***Reserve use for severe infections and these indications only to prevent development of resistance If bacteria become resistant to vancomycin, there are only a few other drugs that may be effective in treating the patient.

63
Q

Vancomycin: Administration
• Dose: 10-15 mg/Kg over X minutes (**can start up to X hours pre-op)
X hours of therapeutic plasma concentration
• 1 Gram mixed in 250ml.
• **
__ administration (slowly over X hour)

• Rapid infusion → ?
• Very poor absorption upon oral administration (PO only for ________ infection)
• Slow CSF penetration unless there is ?

A
  • Dose: 10-15 mg/Kg over 60 minutes (can start up to 2 hours pre-op)
  • 12 hours of therapeutic plasma concentration
  • 1 Gram mixed in 250ml.
  • IV administration (slowly over 1 hour)
  • Rapid infusion → PROFOUND HYPOTENSION/cardiac arrest (massive histamine release)
  • Very poor absorption upon oral administration (PO only for intestinal infection)
  • Slow CSF penetration unless there is meningeal inflammation
64
Q

Vancomycin
• Dose adjust for ? → increased monitoring in this population
• **Renal excretion X% unchanged in the urine
• **Elimination ½ time is X hrs and can be prolonged (up to X days) with _____ failure patients

A
  • Dose adjust for renal insufficiency → increased monitoring in this population
  • Renal excretion 90% unchanged in the urine
  • Elimination ½ time is 6 hrs. and can be prolonged (up to 9 days) with renal failure patients
65
Q

Vancomycin: Interactions

A
  • Other nephrotoxic drugs

* Return of neuromuscular blockade?

66
Q

Vancomycin: Broad or Narrow Therapeutic Index

• Monitor serum __________ level, _____ level, etc

A

Vancomycin: Narrow Therapeutic Index

• Monitor serum creatinine level, vanc level, etc

67
Q

Vancomycin: Side Effects
• Thrombophlebitis/Phlebosclerotic ( irritating to tissue)
• _______toxicity (renal failure)
- RARE unless concomitant treatment with other _______toxic drugs such as ?
• _______toxicity when concentrations are >30mcg/ml (increased risk if giving with ?)
• Hypersensitivity (maculopapular ____ rash)
• Severe _______tension & “_______ Syndrome” if given IV in less than 30 minutes
• Administration of ? 1mg/kg and ? 4mg/kg 1 hour before induction limits histamine related effects
• Rare: Immune mediated ? & ? (ab develops against plt + vanco complex)

A

Vancomycin: Side Effects
• Thrombophlebitis/Phlebosclerotic ( irritating to tissue)
• Nephrotoxicity (renal failure)
- RARE unless concomitant treatment with other nephrotoxic drugs such as aminoglycosides
• Ototoxicity when concentrations are >30mcg/ml (increased risk if giving with aminoglycosides)
• Hypersensitivity (maculopapular skin rash)
• Severe Hypotension & “Red Man Syndrome” (flushing due to histamine release) if given IV in less than 30 minutes
- Intense facial and truncal erythema from histamine release
• Administration of diphenhydramine 1mg/kg and Cimetidine 4mg/kg 1 hour before induction limits histamine related effects
• Rare: Immune mediated thrombocytopenia & bleeding (ab develops against plt + vanco complex)~long term use

68
Q
Aminoglycosides
Bacteri\_\_\_\_ Agents 
Mechanism of Action 
• Block the initiation of ?
• Effective for aerobic gram negative & positive bacteria
• such as ?
A

Aminoglycosides
Bactericidal Agents
Mechanism of Action
• Block the initiation of protein synthesis in bacterial cells (30S ribosomal subunit)
• Effective for aerobic gram negative & positive bacteria
• Mycobacterium Tuberculosis

69
Q

Aminoglycosides
⚫Extensive renal excretion through glomerular filtration (almost 100%) ~> ?
⚫Highly ?
⚫Vd= ______cellular volume
⚫2-3 hour elimination half time that is increased X fold with renal failure

A

⚫Extensive renal excretion through glomerular filtration (almost 100%) ~>very polar
⚫Highly water soluble
⚫Vd= extracellular volume
⚫2-3 hour elimination half time that is increased 20-40 fold with renal failure

70
Q

Aminoglycosides: Side effects
• Limited by their toxicity
• Ototoxicity
• Esp. w/diuretics such as furosemide, mannitol
• Nephrotoxicity
• Esp. w/ Amphotericin B, cyclosporine, etacrynic acid, vancomycin, NSAIDS
• Skeletal Muscle weakness: inhibit the prejunctional release of Ach and decreases postsynaptic sensitivity to the neurotransmitter (impact on patients with neuromuscular pathology ie.. Myasthenia gravis)

A

Aminoglycosides: Side effects
• Limited by their toxicity
• Ototoxicity
• Esp. w/diuretics such as furosemide, mannitol
• Nephrotoxicity
• Esp. w/ Amphotericin B, cyclosporine, etacrynic acid, vancomycin, NSAIDS

71
Q

Aminoglycosides: CIs
• _________: Cross the ________ could cause harm
• ***Skeletal Muscle weakness: inhibit the prejunctional release of Ach and decreases postsynaptic sensitivity to the neurotransmitter (impact on patients with neuromuscular pathology ie.. ?)

A
  • Pregnancy: Cross the placenta could cause harm
  • ***Skeletal Muscle weakness: inhibit the prejunctional release of Ach and decreases postsynaptic sensitivity to the neurotransmitter (impact on patients with neuromuscular pathology ie.. Myasthenia gravis)
72
Q

Aminoglycosides

Gentamicin
• _______ spectrum (______, ______, ______ infections)
• Toxic level – (> Xmcg/ml)/levels should be monitored

Amikacin***
• Derivative of ? with very little antibiotic ________ (yet)
• Useful in gentamicin or tobramycin ________ gram negative bacilli
• Similar side effects as gentamicin
• Do NOT use with ?

Neomycin**
• Topical treatment for ? infections (X% allergy risk)
• Adjunct therapy to ? coma (decreases ammonia concentrations)
• Administered to decrease bacteria in ? before ? Surgery
• Most ________toxic**

A

Gentamicin
• Broader spectrum (pleural, ascitic, synovial infections)
• Toxic level – (> 9mcg/ml)/levels should be monitored

Amikacin***
• Derivative of kanamycin with very little antibiotic resistance (yet)
• Useful in gentamicin or tobramycin resistant gram negative bacilli
• Similar side effects as gentamicin
• Do not use with PCN (may antagonize PCN effects)

Neomycin**
• Topical treatment for skin, eye and mucous membrane infections (6-8% allergy risk)
• Adjunct therapy to hepatic coma (decreases ammonia concentrations)
• Administered to decrease bacteria in intestine before GI Surgery
• Most nephrotoxic**

73
Q

Aminoglycosides and Potentiation of muscle relaxants:***
• IV Administration of aminoglycosides associated with potentiation of ?
• This _________ is usually reversible with ?

A

Aminoglycosides and Potentiation of muscle relaxants:***
• IV Administration of aminoglycosides associated with potentiation of Non-depolarizing neuromuscular-blocking drugs.
• This paralysis is usually reversible with calcium gluconate or neostigmine.

74
Q

Linezolid (Zyvox): MOA

A

Bacteriostatic - Inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by preventing the formation of a functional ribosomal subunit initiation complex that is essential for the bacterial translation process.

75
Q

Linezolid (Zyvox): Spectrum of Activity

  • **Very important because active against resistant bacteria such as ?
  • **$$ + should reserve to avoid the development of ?
A
  • Gram positive pathogens
  • Not active against gram negative bacteria
  • **Very important because active against resistant bacteria such as MRSA & VRE (vancomycin resistant enterococci)

• **$$ + should reserve to avoid the development of resistance

76
Q

Linezolid (Zyvox): Adverse Effects
• _____________, _____________, ____________, _____________ (especially >2 wks of tx) -> CBC check
• ? effects (? 5%, ? 3.5%)
• **Rare: ? and ? neuropathy ->?
• Formulated with phenylalanine (Avoid in patients with ?)
• Weak monoamine oxidase inhibitor- watch for additive norepinephrine and serotonergic effects when used with other serotonergic agents and/or indirect sympathomimetics → risk of ? (? and ? contraindicated)

A

Thrombocytopenia, anemia, leukopenia, pancytopenia (especially >2 wks of tx) -> CBC check
• GI effects (diarrhea 5%, nausea 3.5%)
• **Rare: optic and peripheral neuropathy ->document!
• Formulated with phenylalanine (Avoid in patients with phenylketonuria….PKU)
• Weak monoamine oxidase inhibitor- watch for additive norepinephrine and serotonergic effects when used with other serotonergic agents and/or indirect sympathomimetics → risk of serotonin syndrome & hypertensive crisis (Ephedrine and SSRIs contraindicated)

77
Q

Fluoroquinolones:

Bactericidal broad Spectrum Agents
Effective for enteric Gram negative bacilli and *?

**Useful in treatment of complicated GI and GU infections:

A

Bactericidal broad Spectrum Agents
Effective for enteric Gram negative bacilli and *mycobacterium

**Useful in treatment of complicated GI and GU infections
• Ciprofloxacin (Cipro ®) (PO or IV)
• Levofloxacin (Levaquin ®)
• Moxifloxacin (Avelox ®) – higher risk of adverse effects

78
Q

Fluoroquinolones: Mechanism of Action

A

• Inhibits DNA gyrase (super qoiler) and topoisomerase (separator in replication), which are critical bacterial enzymes used in DNA replication & cell division

79
Q
Fluoroquinolones: Adverse effects 
• Class warning for ? 
• Nausea, CNS disturbances, opportunistic candida, rashes, phototoxicity(severe sunburn) 
• ? superinfection 
• Muscle weakness in ? patients 
• ? and ? rupture due to extracellular ? matrix weakening (1:10,000) 
- Highest risk ? 
- Avoid IV form
A

• Class warning for QT prolongation
• Nausea, CNS disturbances, opportunistic candida, rashes, phototoxicity(severe sunburn)
• C. Diff superinfection
• Muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis patients
• Tendinitis and Achilles tendon rupture due to extracellular cartilage matrix weakening (1:10,000)
- Highest risk >65 years and older, corticosteroid use, s/p transplant
- Avoid IV form <18 years old

80
Q

Fluoroquinolones: Interactions & Elimination Considerations
• CYP450 interactions ->increases levels of ?
• ______ excretion, through ? (Decrease dose in ? dysfunction)

A

theophylline, warfarin, and tinidazole

Renal excretion, through glomerular filtration and renal tubular secretion (Decrease dose in renal dysfunction)

81
Q

Sulfonamides: Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim
⚫Bacterio?
 Antimicrobial activity is due to the ability of these drugs to prevent normal use of ? by bacteria to synthesize ?
Inhibit microbial synthesis of ? production
⚫Met and excretion = ?
⚫? disease = ?

A

⚫Bacteriostatic
 Antimicrobial activity is due to the ability of these drugs to prevent normal use of PABA by bacteria to synthesize folic acid.
Inhibit microbial synthesis of folate production ⚫Portion of drug is acetylated in the liver and other is renally excreted
⚫Renal disease-dose is reduced

82
Q

Sulfonamides: Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

Clinical uses

A

⚫ Urinary tract infections
⚫ Inflammatory bowel disease
⚫ Burns

83
Q

Sulfonamides: Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim

Side Effects

A
Skin rash to anaphylaxis 
Photosensitivity 
Allergic nephritis 
Drug fever 
Hepatotoxicity 
Acute hemolytic anemia 
Thrombocytopenia 
Increase effect of po anticoagulant
*coag issues ~ CBC
84
Q

Metronidazole (Flagyl)
**⚫Bacteri?
**Aerobic or Anaerobic Gram + or - bacilli & clostridium?
⚫Useful for wide variety of infections:

  • Well absorbed orally and widely distributed in tissue including ?
  • ** recommended for ?
  • PO or IV

Side effects:

A

⚫Bactericidal
Anaerobic Gram negative bacilli & clostridium

CNS infections
Abdominal and pelvic sepsis
Pseudomembranous colitis (C-diff)
Endocarditis

CNS

pre-op prophylaxis for colorectoal surgery

  • Dry mouth
  • Metallic taste
  • Nausea
  • Avoid Alcohol
  • Rare: neuropathy and pancreatitits
85
Q

Antifungals: Amphotericin B
MOA:

A

MOA: Binds to ergosterol in fungal membranes to form pores

• Altered membrane permeability causes leakage of cellular contents

86
Q

Antifungals: Amphotericin B

• Given for ?

A

yeasts and fungi

87
Q

Antifungals: Amphotericin B

• ______ po absorption – given __

A

• Poor po absorption – given IV

88
Q

Antifungals: Amphotericin B
• Fast or Slow renal excretion?
• ***_____ function is impaired in X% of patients treated with this drug. Most recover after drug is stopped but some resulting permanent decrease in ?
• Monitor plasma ___________ levels

A
  • Slow renal excretion
  • renal function is impaired in 80% of patients treated with this drug. Most recover after drug is stopped but some resulting permanent decrease in glomerular filtration rate may remain.
  • Monitor plasma creatinine levels
89
Q

Antifungals: Amphotericin B

Side effects

A
  • Fever, chills, dyspnea, hypotension can occur during infusion
  • Impaired hepatic function
  • Hypokalemia
  • Allergic reactions
  • Seizure
  • Anemia
  • Thrombocytopenia
90
Q

Antiviral Drugs
⚫Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites:
Difficult to kill virus and not ____ cell
Some cell surface receptors are unique for viruses and this gives a location for ?

A

⚫Viruses are obligate intracellular parasites:
Difficult to kill virus and not host cell
Some cell surface receptors are unique for viruses and this gives a location for potential drug therapy

91
Q
Antiviral Drugs: Acyclovir
Used to treat ? 
May cause ? damage if infused rapidly 
Thrombo? 
Patients may complain of ? during IV infusion
A

Antiviral Drugs: Acyclovir
Used to treat herpes
May cause renal damage if infused rapidly Thrombophlebitis
Patients may complain of headaches during IV infusion

92
Q

Antivirals: Interferons
Term used to designate ___________ produced in response to viral infections
Bind to receptors on host cell membranes and induce the production of enzymes that inhibit ?, resulting in ? of viral mRNA
Enhance tumoricidal activities of ?
Treatment for chronic ?
Nasal sprays

A

Term used to designate glycoproteins produced in response to viral infections
Bind to receptors on host cell membranes and induce the production of enzymes that inhibit viral replication-degradation of viral mRNA
Enhance tumoricidal activities of macrophages (oncology)
Treatment for chronic hepatitis B and C
Nasal sprays

93
Q

Antivirals: Interferons

Side Effects

A
  • Flu like symptoms
  • Hematologic toxicity
  • Decreased mental concentration
  • Development of autoimmune conditions
  • Depression, irritability
  • Rashes, alopecia
  • Changes in CV, thyroid, hepatic function
  • check for goider
94
Q

Antiretroviral Drugs: Steps in the HIV Replication Cycle
1. Fusion of the HIV cell to the host cell surface *CCR5/CXCR4 proteins
Antiretroviral Drug MOA = ?
2. HIV RNA, reverse transcriptase, integrase, and other viral proteins enter the host cell.
Antiretroviral Drug MOA = ?
3. Viral DNA is formed by reverse transcription.
4. Viral DNA is transported across the nucleus and integrates into the host DNA.
Antiretroviral Drug MOA = ?
5. New viral RNA is used as genomic RNA and to make viral proteins.
6. New viral RNA and proteins move to cell surface and a new, immature, HIV virus forms.
7. The virus matures by protease releasing individual HIV proteins.
Antiretroviral Drug MOA = ?

A

Antiretroviral Drugs: Steps in the HIV Replication Cycle
1. Fusion of the HIV cell to the host cell surface *CCR5/CXCR4 proteins
Antiretroviral Drug MOA = Fusion entry inhibitors
2. HIV RNA, reverse transcriptase, integrase, and other viral proteins enter the host cell.
Antiretroviral Drug MOA = RTI, NRTI, NNRTI
3. Viral DNA is formed by reverse transcription.
4. Viral DNA is transported across the nucleus and integrates into the host DNA.
Antiretroviral Drug MOA = Integrase inhibitors
5. New viral RNA is used as genomic RNA and to make viral proteins.
6. New viral RNA and proteins move to cell surface and a new, immature, HIV virus forms.
7. The virus matures by protease releasing individual HIV proteins.
Antiretroviral Drug MOA = Protease inhibitors

95
Q

HIV/AIDS: Review of Current Treatments = Many Side Effects Influencing Anesthetic:

• 6 categories (2 more in clinical trials) –always on combination therapy (HAART)

A
  1. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
    Nausea, diarrhea, myalgia (avoid succs), increased LFTS, pancreatitis, peripheral neuropathy (preop doc), renal toxicity, marrow suppression, anemia, lactic acidosis, inhibition cytochrome P450 (zidovudine + corticosteroids can = severe myopathy including respiratory muscle dysfunction).
  2. Protease inhibitors (ritonavir)–
    Hyperlipidemia, glucose intolerance, abnormal fat distribution, altered LFTs, inhibition of cytochrome P-450 3A4 (decreased fentanyl clearance ~ 67%)
96
Q

HIV/AIDS: Review of Current Treatments = Many Side Effects Influencing Anesthetic:

Nonnucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• ? inhibits cytochrome P450 may increase concentrations sedatives, antiarrhythmics, warfarin, Ca-channel blockers
• ? induces cytochrome P450 by 98%!

A

Nonnucleoside analog reverse transcriptase inhibitors
• Delavirdine inhibits cytochrome P450 may increase concentrations sedatives, antiarrhythmics, warfarin, Ca-channel blockers
• Nevirapine induces cytochrome P450 by 98%!

97
Q

Ritonavir (Protease inhibitor) and Interactions with Anesthetic Drugs
• Midazolam - Increased/decreased effects (sedation, confusion, respiratory depression) ~ ? dosing O.K.

A

• Midazolam - Increased effects (sedation, confusion, respiratory depression) small carefully titrated IV dosing O.K.

98
Q

Ritonavir (Protease inhibitor) and Interactions with Anesthetic Drugs
• Fentanyl – Increased effects (sedation, confusion, respiratory depression) ~ Start with ? dose and titrate to ?

A

• Fentanyl – Increased effects (sedation, confusion, respiratory depression) Start with low dose and titrate to pain

99
Q

Ritonavir (Protease inhibitor) and Interactions with Anesthetic Drugs
Avoid (pronounced effects – life threatening) ?

A
  • Meperidine
  • Amiodarone (arrhythmias)
  • Diazepam

*long half times potentiated!

100
Q
Special Population Considerations
Parturient 
 Most antimicrobials ?
Plasma concentrations could be 10-50% higher/lower than predicted ?
Increased/decreased maternal blood volume, GFR, metabolism ?
 Teratogenicity 
-Concern with any drug 
-Immature hepatic and renal clearance
A

Parturient
 Most antimicrobials cross the placenta and enter maternal milk
Plasma concentrations could be 1050% lower than predicted
Increased maternal blood volume, GFR, metabolism
 Teratogenicity
-Concern with any drug
-Immature hepatic and renal clearance

101
Q
Special Population Considerations
Elderly 
 ? impairment 
 Increased/Decreased plasma protein 
 Reduced gastric ? and ? 
-Altered distribution Increased total body fat 
-Decreased plasma albumin concentration 
-Decreased hepatic blood flow 
-Decreased GFR
A
Elderly 
 Renal impairment 
 Decreased plasma protein 
 Reduced gastric motility and acidity 
-Altered distribution Increased total body fat 
-Decreased plasma albumin concentration 
-Decreased hepatic blood flow 
-Decreased GFR
102
Q

Special Population Considerations

PREGNANCY = ?

A

always double check

103
Q

Special Population Considerations

Tetracyclines (tooth dis-coloration in baby) =

A

just do not give to mom or children

104
Q

During labor and delivery, the mother should receive intravenous (IV) ? and the baby should take ? (in liquid form) every 6 hours for 6 weeks after birth

A

AZT