Lecture 19 - Pharmacy care in Diabetes & Thyroid Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

What is clinical management for?

A

To alleviate acute symptoms and prevent or limit the morbidity and mortality and its long term conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What drugs sensitise the body to insulin?

A

metformin and thiazolidinediones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What drugs stimulate the pancreas to produce more insulin?

A

sulphonylureas

meglitinides

GLP-1 agonists

DPP4 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What drugs limit reabsorption of glucose from the kidneys?

A

SGLT2 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In general, what do you start treatment of type 2 diabetes with?

A

one agent unless the patient is very symptomatic

if not well controlled then you might add in another agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When do you stop an agent?

A

only when you reach triple therapy or are adding an injectable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In which case would you stop/change an agent?

A

if the patient is intolerant or there is no change in HbA1c in 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How many diabetic medicines in a patient usually on?

A

Max is 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why do we gradually increase the dose of metformin?

A

to minimise the risk of GI side effects e.g. nausea, loss of appetite and diarrhoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How is the dose of metformin increased?

A

weekly by 500mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When should metformin be taken?

A

with food

e.g. a dose with breakfast and a dose with dinner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is metformin cautioned in?

A

renal impairment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the creatinine clearance cut off point for someone being on metformin?

A

30ml/min

any lower and there is a risk of the drug accumulating and precipitating lactic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Common side effects of metformin?

A

diarrhoea (transient), anorexia and nausea and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How well does metformin reduce HbA1c?

A

by 1-2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Advantages of metformin?

A

no weight gain or hypoglycaemia when given alone

beneficial effects on lipid profile

no blood glucose monitoring (maybe once or twice a week)

good evidence base, isn’t expensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How does metformin affect lipid profile?

A

not classed as a cholesterol lowering agent but can rise HDL and lower LDLs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Effectiveness of sulphonylureas?

A

decreases HbA1c by 1-2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

When are sulphonylureas first line?

A

if the patient is metformin intolerant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Advantages of sulphonylureas?

A

good evidence base and are inexpensive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Disadvantages of sulphonylureas?

A

weight gain and increased risk of hypoglycaemia (1 in 100)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most popular sulphonylureas?

A

gliclazide followed by glipizide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Duration of action of gliclazide and glipizide?

A

Shorter duration of action than glibenclamide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How often is glibenclamide taken?

A

once daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How often is gliclazide taken?

A

twice daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the issue with glibenclamide?

A

it has a long duration of action so is more likely to cause hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Effectiveness of thiazolidinediones?

A

Decreases HbA1c by 1-2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When are thiazolidinediones useful?

A

as a substitute for metformin in patients with renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Advantages of thiazolidinediones?

A

low risk of hypoglycaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Disadvantages of thiazolidinediones?

A

causes weight gain and can cause fluid retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When are thiazolidinediones contraindicated?

A

in patients with

heart failure (can exacerbate this)

fractures (could be due to parathyroid gland affecting calcium levels)

haematuria (due to increased amount of glucose going through and irritating the bladder)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

When can DPP4 inhibitors be used?

A

in mono, dual or triple therapy

if weight gain is undesirable and we do not want to use sulphonylureas or glitizones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Advantages of DPP4 inhibitors?

A

not associated with weight gain, less incidence of hypoglycaemia than the sulphonylureas

34
Q

Effectiveness of DPP4 inhibitors?

A

reduces HbA1c by ~0.7%

35
Q

What is a disadvantage of DPP4 inhibitors?

A

take time to exert their effect whereas metformin etc tend to work a lot faster

no longterm outcome data

36
Q

When are DPP4 used as an alternative to glitazones?

A

when weight gain is a problem or glitazone contraindicated or poorly tolerated

37
Q

Linagliptin use?

A

in patient who has got diabetic kidney disease because this is extremely well tolerated in renal impairment because it is almost exclusively handled by the liver

38
Q

Effectiveness of SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

sodium glucose cotransporter 2 inhibitors

HbA1c decreases 5mmol/mol

39
Q

Advantages of SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

weight loss

BP reduction (promotes glucose excretion)

no hypos

40
Q

Disadvantages of SGLT2 inhibitors?

A

can take time to exert effect (4-6 weeks)

polyuria

genital infections

care with hypocolaemia/loop diuretics (dehydration)

41
Q

Why do SGLT2 inhibitors cause polyuria?

A

they pull glucose into the urine which also pulls water

42
Q

When can SGLT2 inhibitors not be given?

A

if patient is >85 years

if eGFR <45

43
Q

Why would SGLT2 inhibitors not be given to someone who is very symptomatic?

A

they take a long time to exert effects so will not deal with immediate symptoms

44
Q

Advantages of meglitinides?

A

used in mono treatment or with metformin

45
Q

When would meglitinides be used>?

A

in patients who have shown intolerance or have contraindications

46
Q

Disadvantages of meglitinides?

A

weight gain

increased risk of hypoglycaemia (less than SU)

expensive

47
Q

Weekly GLP1 receptor agonists?

A

albigutide (eperzan)

dulaglutide (trulicity)

exanatide MR (bydureon)

48
Q

Daily or twice daily GLP1 receptor agonists?

A

exenatide (byetta)

liraglutide (saxenda and victoza)

lixisenatide (lyxumia)

49
Q

What are GLP1 receptor agonists considered?

A

one of the last lines of treatment before insulin

50
Q

How are GLP1 receptor agonists given?

A

subcutaneously

51
Q

When are GLP1 receptor agonists used?

A

3rd line with metformin and SU or TZD if

BMI>35
HbA1c >58mmol/mol
diagnosis <10 years

OR

BMI>35 and cannot tolerate insulin

52
Q

What type of patients get GLP1 receptor agonists?

A

high risk patients who are very overweight and cannot use drugs that cause weight gain

patients with poor hyperglycaemic control over a long period of time

patients that might be considered for insulin at this time but cannot tolerate it

53
Q

Symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

A

blood glucose <4mmol/l

54
Q

Autonomic symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

A

sweaty, hungry, cold, pounding heartbeat, tingling lips

55
Q

Neuroglycopenic symptoms of hypoglycaemia?

A

can lose consciousness, dizzy faint, tired, confused irritability

56
Q

Management of hypoglycaemia?

A

eat or drink something immediately containing sugar, followed up by a longer acting carbohydrate (sandwich, fruit etc), eat normal meal as soon as possible

should feel better after 5-10mins

57
Q

What happens if a patient has a hypo and they drive?

A

they need to report this to the DVLA and test their glucose levels before they get in the car

58
Q

What factors exclude a patient from being at high CV risk?

A

not overweight, normotensive (no meds), no microalbuminuria, non smoker, no high risk lipid profile, no history or family history of CV disease

59
Q

What happens to diabetic patients that are at high risk of having a stroke or heart attack?

A

they are put on a low intensity statin - simvastatin, atorvastatin, rosuvastatin, pravastatin

60
Q

How often should a patient be monitored for diabetic nephropathy?

A

annually - foot care

61
Q

What is diabetic nephropathy confirmed by?

A

2 out of 3 abnormal ACR tests

ACR>2.5ng.mmol for men, >3.5ng/mmol for women

monitor ACR, serum creatinine and eGFR

62
Q

When should you suspect renal disease rather than nephropathy?

A

if there is no retinopathy

BP particularly high or resistant to treatment

heavy proteinuria when previously normal

sig haematuria

GFR worsened rapidly

person is systemically ill

63
Q

What is given to patients with diabetic nephropathy?

A

ACE inhibitor or ARB

titrate to maximum tolerated dose

target BP <130/80mmHg

64
Q

What is the overall responsibility of the pharmacist when supplying medication?

A

to ensure that the patient is able to take the prescribed medication in a safe and effective manner to ensure that the patient derives maximum treatment benefit

65
Q

What should a pharmacist explain?

A

how to take medication (metformin with food etc)

additional cautions - see cautionary labels

what side effects to look out for (PIL)

heath checks - flu jab, eyes, feet

glucagon injections for hypoglycaemia

66
Q

What are most patients with hypothyroidism on?

A

99.9% of levothyroxine

67
Q

Causes of hypothyroidism?

A

autoimmune disease causing the thyroid to be destroyed, patient has hyperthyroidism and gets radiotherapy which means thyroid levels drop and we need to replace them manually

68
Q

What strengths dose levothyroxine come in?

A

15mcg, 50mcg, 100mcg

69
Q

What is the other treatment for hypothyroidism?

A

liothyronine

70
Q

What can patients with high/low thyroid levels end up with?

A

impacts on heart including tachycardia

71
Q

When is the best time to take thyroxine tabs?

A

before food as they work better on an empty stomach

72
Q

Treatment for hyperthyroidism?

A

carbimazole and propylthiouracil

73
Q

Why is propranolol sometimes given to patients with hyperthyroidism?

A

to slow heart rate down and prevent thyroid induced palpitations

74
Q

What is the usual dose of carbimazole?

A

5-20mg daily, tend to keep an eye on thyroxine and TSH levels

75
Q

What is carbimazole?

A

a cytotoxic drug so has nasty adverse effects - particularly agranulocytosis

76
Q

What is agranulocytosis?

A

destroying of the white blood cells in the body

can increase patients chance of neutropenic sepsis

77
Q

Signs of agranulocytosis?

A

flu like symptoms e.g. cough, sore throat etc

78
Q

Side effects of hyperthyroid medication?

A

signs of hypothyroidism, rashes with carbimazole

79
Q

Rashes with carbimazole?

A

not a sign of an allergy

can be treated with antihistamines

80
Q

When to refer patients on hyperthyroid treatments?

A

mouth ulcers, bleeding, fever, feeling unwell

81
Q

Counselling for levothyroxine?

A

take 30 mins before breakfast and caffeine containing liquids and other medications

82
Q

Counselling for carbimazole?

A

warn to tell doctor immediately if signs of neutropenia or agranulocytosis appear - sore throat, mouth ulcer, bruising, fever, malaise, non specific illness