lecture Flashcards
It refers to a disease relating to a defective intramembranous ossification. It is the agenesis of the clavicle and skull cap.
Cleidocranial dysostosis
The inferior angle of the scapula is at the same level as the spinous process
of which vertebra?
A. 2nd rib
B. T2
C. T4
D. T7
T7
The median angle of the scapula is at the same level as the spinous process
of which vertebra?
A. 2nd rib
B. T2
C. T4
D. T7
T2
Fracture of the surgical neck of the humerus will likely to result in
atrophy of the deltoid
Which of the following is not true about the shoulder joint?
is a pivot joint
Injury to this nerve leads to “Winging of the Scapula”
A. Median Nerve
B. Long Thoracic Nerve
C. Radial Nerve
D. Ulnar Nerve
Long Thoracic Nerve
What is the bone marking between the greater and the lesser tubercles of the humerus that is identifiable during flexion and extension of the elbow joint by palpating in an upward direction along the tendon of the long head of the biceps brachii?
Biccipital groove
What does NOT extend, abduct, or adduct the wrist?
A. Extensor carpi radialis longus
B. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
C. Extensor carpi ulnaris
D. Extensor digiti minimi
Extensor Digiti Minimi (extends the pinky)
The anterior axioappendicular muscle that protracts and rotates the scapula and holds it against the thoracic wall.
A. Subclavius
B. Rhomboid major
C. Pectoralis major
D. Serratus anterior
Serratus Anterior
Which among the following is not part of the rotator cuffs?
A. Supraspinatus muscle
B. Infraspinatus muscle
C. Deltoid
D. Teres minor
Deltoid
what are the parts of the rotator cuff muscle?
Supraspinatus (abducts)
Infraspinatus (lateral rotation)
Teres minor (lateral rotation)
Subscapularis (medial rotation)
Function of the Supraspinatus as rotator cuff
abducts
Function of the Infraspinatus as rotator cuff
lateral rotation
Function of the Teres Minor as rotator cuff
lateral rotation
Function of the Subscapularis as rotator cuff
medial rotation
All insert into greater tubercle except
A. Supraspinatus muscle
B. Infraspinatus muscle
C. Subscapularis
D. Teres minor
Subscapularis
Deltoid is innervated by what nerve
axillary nerve (c5,c6)
Deltoid is inserted into the humerus in what part
middle lateral surface of the humerus
Teres major is innervated by what
lower subscapular nerve (c5, c6)
Cutting the dorsal scapular nerve will cause paralysis of which of the following?
A. Teres major
B. Serratus Anterior
C. Latissimus dorsi
D. Rhomboides Major
D. Rhomboids major
Loss of extension of fingers, thumb and wrist. Numbness over first dorsal interosseous muscles. Which nerve is affected?
Radial nerve
characterized by an outward (lateral) deviation of the forearm in relation to the upper arm
Cubitus Valgus
Radial subluxation of extended pronated forearm
A. Tennis elbow
B. Miners elbow
C. Nursemaid’s elbow
D. Golfers elbow
Nursemaid’s Elbow
Which of the following is the most commonly dislocated joint in Children
A. Wrist joint
B. Elbow joint
C. Metacarpophalangeal joint
D. Shoulder joint
Shoulder joint
A worker accidentally cut wrist with a broken glass. What structure in the carpal tunnel are most likely to be
injured?
A. Median nerve and the
tendons of flexor carpi profundus
B. Median nerve and radial nerve
C. Median nerve and the tendons of flexor pollicis longus
D. Median nerve and FDS tendons
letter D
How do you test the trapezius muscle?
A. Ask Patient to Shrug
Shoulder
B. Ask Patient to Sit
C. Ask Patient to Raise arms
D. Ask Patient to flex arms
A. shrug shoulder
Damage to this structure involves superior part of acromion and lateral end of clavicle
acromioclavicular joint
The serratus anterior is innervated by the
LTN
Which nerve supplies the
latissimus dorsi muscle?
A. Long thoracic nerve
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. Axillary nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
Toracodorsal nerve
The nerve supply of the Teres Minor muscle
A. Axillary Nerve
B. Thoracodorsal Nerve
C. Suprascapular Nerve
D. Dorsal Scapular Nerve
Axillary Nerve
The most common site of a clavicular fracture
A. Junction of the middle and proximal third
B. Junction of the middle and
lateral third
C. Acromial end
D. Sternal end
middle and lateral 3rd
Structure that runs along the
deltopectoral groove
cephalic vein
Not part of the rotator cuff muscles
A. Supraspinatus
B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres major
D. Subscapularis
C. Teres Major
Which of the ff is true?
A. Anterior compartment (flexor), posterior compartment (extensor)
B. Inferior angle of the scapula is at T7 level
C. All of the above
C
Which is NOT found in the convex posterior surface of the scapula?
A. Coracoid process
B. Spine
C. Subscapular fossa
D. Deltoid Tubercle
C and can be A
Which innervates biceps brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis?
A. Axillary nerve
B. Musculocutaneous nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Ulnar nerve
E. Radial nerve
Musculocutaneous Nerve
Which of the following is not a boundary of the cubital fossa?
a. Pronator Teres
b. Line between medial and lateral epicondyle
c. Brachioradialis
d. Coracobrachialis
D
Which of the following muscles is not part of the superficial flexor muscle of the forearm?
A. Pronator teres
B. Flexor Carpi radialis
C. Palmaris longus
D. Flexor Carpiulnaris
E. Flexor digitorum superficialis
E. FDS
The only muscle that could flex the distal phalanges of the digits.
Flexor Digitorum profundus
Muscle that is not a superficial layer of posterior compartment
Extensor indicis
The principal extensor of the medial four digits
A. Extensor carpi ulnaris
B. Extensor digiti minimi
C. Extensor digitorum
D. Extensor indicis
C
Which of the following is not part of the cubital fossa?
A. Median nerve
B. Brachial artery
C. Tendon of the biceps femoris
D. Radial nerve
C
Which of the following does not extend, abduct and adduct the thumb?
A. Extensor pollicis longus
B. Abductor pollicis brevis
C. Extensor digiti minimi
D. Flexor pollicis brevis
C
Which of the following is not part of the deep forearm muscle?
A. Flexor pollicis longus
B. Flexor digitorum profundus
C. Flexor carpi ulnaris
D. Pronator quadratus
C
Which of the following is the deepest flexor muscle of the forearm?
A. Flexor pollicis longus
B. Flexor digitorum profundus
C. Flexor carpi ulnaris
D. Pronator quadratus
D
Which of the superficial flexors of the forearm is located on the most medial side?
Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
Long flexor of the thumb:
A. Abductor pollicis longus
B. Flexor pollicis longus
C. Flexor pollicis brevis
D. Flexor digits minimi
B. FPL
What is the dermatome of the lateral forearm and thumb?
A. C4
B. C5
C. C6
D. C7
C. C6
One of the following does not extend the medial four digits.
A. Extensor digitorum
B. Extensor digiti minimi
C. Extensor carpi ulnaris
D. Extensor indicis
C. ECU
Patient is presented with weakness is ring finger and adduction. What muscle is involved?
A. Palmar interossei
B. Dorsal interossei
C. Lumbrical
A. Palmar Interossei
Lumbricals is wrong because they focus mainly on Flexing.
Remember the mnemonic:
PAD DAB
(Palmar interossei = ADduction)
(Dorsal Interossei = ABduction)
A patient fell on his outstretched hand and fractured his scaphoid. What structure is most likely affected?
Radial nerve
A victim of an accident suffered a destructive injury to the proximal row of the carpal bones. Which of the following bones is most likely damaged?
A. Hamate
B. Trapezium
C. Trapezoid
D. Triquetrum
D
Damage to the flexor retinaculum, causing compression of the median nerve
Carpal Tunnel Syndrome
Deep cut in the ring finger. What pair of nerves was affected?
A. Median and ulnar nerve
B. Median and radial nerve
C. Ulnar and musculocutaneous
D. Median and musculocutaneous
A
The ring finger is innervated by the medially by the median nerve and laterally by the ulnar nerve
The patient experienced altered sensation on the palmar side of the ring and little fingers. What is expected to happen?
Atrophy of the hypothenar eminence
Deep penetrated wound on palm by big nail, infection in ulnar bursa. This may be caused by infection from?
A. Flexor carpi ulnaris
B. Lumbricals
C. Abductor pollicis brevis
D. Flexor digitorum profundus
FDP
Ulnar bursa (FDP, FDS)
Most dislocated carpal bond
lunate
least fractured carpal bone
trapezoid
An automobile worker’s middle finger was crushed. Which muscle would most likely be spared?
Dorsal interossei
A 24-year old carpenter suffers a crush injury of his entire little finger. Which of the following muscles is most
likely to be spared?
A. Flexor digitorum profundus
B. Extensor digitorum
C. Palmar interossei
D. Dorsal interossei
E. Lumbrical
D
The dorsal interossei are abductors of the fingers. The little finger has no attachment for the dorsal interosseous muscle because it has its own abductor. Therefore, the dorsal interosseous muscle is not affected. Other muscles are attached to the little finger; thus, they are injured.
Largest carpal bone of the body
capitate
Which of the following is false
regarding the brachial plexus?
A. Almost all branches of the
plexus arise in the axilla after it crosses the first rib
B. Sympathetic secretory motor supply to the sweat glands
C. Influence over the diameters of the blood vessels by the parasympathetic vasomotor
nerves
D. Roots of the plexus pass
through the gap between
anterior and middle scalene
muscle with the subclavian
artery
E. Greatest sensory contribution is C7
C
What is the correct order of the brachial plexus?
RTDCB
Roots of the thoracodorsal nerve
C6, C7, C8
Roots of the axillary nerve
C5, C6
Roots of upper and lower subscapular nerve
C5, C6
Which divides the axillary artery?
A. Teres major
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Deltoid
D. Serratus anterior
B
Which nerve supplies all posterior forearm and arm muscles?
a. Suprascapular nerve
b. Thoracodorsal Nerve
c. Subscapular Nerve
d. Axillary Nerve
e. Radial Nerve
E
This nerve enters supinator then winds around the radius and arises from supinator as posterior interosseous nerve supplying the posterior muscle of the forearm.
A. Median nerve
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Thoracodorsal
D. Long thoracic nerve
E. Radial nerve
E
Which nerve supplies the MEDIAL lumbrical muscles?
A. Radial nerve
B. Ulnar Nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Axillary nerve
B
Which nerve supplies the LATERAL lumbrical muscles?
A. Radial nerve
B. Ulnar Nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Axillary nerve
C
This deep nerve enters the supinator, laterally rotates around the radius, emerges from the supinator as posterior interosseous nerve and innervates the superficial extensor muscles
Radial Nerve
What branches into the anterior interosseous nerve at the cubital fossa?
median nerve
Innervation of the muscle that causes the winging of scapula
C5,C6,C7
The movement of mandible, lips, and jaw in a forward (anteriorly) direction.
A. Abduction
B. Adduction
C. Eversion
D. Retrusion
E. Protrusion
E
moves the sole of the foot away from the median plane, turning the sole laterally.
eversion
moves the sole of the foot toward the median plane (facing the sole medially)
inversion
The anatomical position refers to the body position as if the person were standing upright with the:
● Head, gaze (eyes), and toes directed anteriorly (forward).
● Arms adjacent to the sides with the palms facing anteriorly.
● Lower limbs close together with the feet parallel.
true
The bending or decreasing of angle between the bones or parts of the body
flexion
consists of bones of the head, neck, cervical vertebrae, and trunk
axial skeleton
consists of the bones of the limbs, including pectoral and pelvic girdle
appendicular skeleton
tubular bones
long bones
cuboidal and found only in the tarsus and carpus
short bones
develop in certain tendons and are found found where tendons cross the ends of long bones in the limbs
sesamoid bone
mesenchymal models of bones from during the embryonic period, direct ossification of the mesenchyme begins in the fetal period
intramembranous ossification
cartilage models of the bones form from mesenchyme during the fetal period, and bone subsequently replaces most of the cartilage
endochondral ossification
type of joint of acromioclavicular joint
plane
type of elbow joint
hinge
type of carpometacarpal joint
saddle
type of metacarpophalangeal joint
condyloid joint
type of hip joint and shoulder joint
ball and socket joint
type of atlanto-axial joint
pivot joint
- Protection of the body from environmental
effects, such as abrasions, fluid loss, harmful
substances, ultraviolet radiation, and invading
microorganisms - Containment for the body’s structures and
vital substances, preventing dehydration - Heat regulation through the evaporation of
sweat and/or the dilation or constriction of
superficial blood vessels. - Sensation by way of superficial nerves and
their sensory endings - Synthesis and storage of vitamin D
function of the integumentary
The dermal layer of the skin is derived from this germ layer
ectoderm
Notochord is from what germ layer?
mesoderm
These are the glands whose ducts open directly onto the skin surface because such skin lacks hair follicles.
● Montgomery’s glands
(nipples)
● Meibomian glands
● ceruminous glands
Embryo exhibits human appearance at which week of development
Week 8
● Glycoprotein produced by the syncytiotrophoblast
● Stimulated production of progesterone by the corpus luteum, which is essential for maintenance of pregnancy until week 8; placenta then takes over progesterone production
● found in maternal blood at day 8 or maternal urine at day 10 basis of pregnancy test
hCG
process establishing the 3 definitive germ layers of embryo: ectoderm, intraembryonic mesoderm and endoderm
gastrulation
First missed menstrual period, at what week of embryology?
Start of 3rd week
the correct order of the layers of epidermis
Corneum, Lucidum, Granulosum, Spinosum, Basale
What occurs during week 3 to week 8 of embryonic period?
gastrulation
The ovulated oocyte is arrested at what phase?
metaphase of meiosis II
What are the germ layers formed at the end of week 3 embryonic period?
Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
Embryoblast differentiates into 2 cellular layers at week 2
epiblast and hypoblast
what further develops into trophoblast
syncytiotrophoblast
forms lacunar network thru which maternal blood flows–>establishing uteroplacental circulation
syncytiotrophoblast
Which of the following is not a function of the skeletal system?
cemetery of RBCs
basic functional unit of the bone
osteon (haversian system)
not a part of the axial skeleton?
clavicle
The capacity of the fetal skull cap to adjust while passing through the birth canal during delivery
molding
What sections are slices of the body of its parts that cut at right angles to the longitudinal axis of the body?
transverse or cross sections
The kind of ossification in which cartilage models of the bones from the mesenchyme during the fetal period, and bone subsequently replaces most of the cartilage.
endochondral ossification
It is considered as a discontinuity of a bone
fracture
If a structure is closer to the median plane of the body, it is likely to be:
medial
the bone most prone to fracture
clavicle
C1 (atlas) & C2 (axis) combine to form this type of joint
pivot joint
The glenoid fossa of the scapula and the head of humerus combine to form:
glenohumeral joint (ball&socket joint)
What joint permits gliding of the clavicle and the acromion?
acromioclavicular joint (plane joint)
the humerus and ulna combine to allow flexion and extension of the elbow
hinge
Aside from the heart, cardiac muscle is seen in which of the following organs of tissues
aorta
Which of the following organs / tissue have smooth muscle tissue?
smooth muscle
What is an example of flat muscle?
a. Rectus abdominis
b. Internal oblique
c. Gastrocnemius
d. Pectoralis major
internal oblique
shape of pectoralis major
convergent
May directly assist a prime mover providing a weaker or less mechanically advantaged component of the same movement
A. Fixator
B. Antagonist
C. Synergist
D. Spurt Muscle
C
true terminal artery is found in the
retina
Arteries and its accompanying veins are wrapped by an unyielding fascia. This configuration is essential for
thermoregulation
arterial pulse is regulated by
small arteries and arterioles
Which statement appropriately describes a normal systemic circulation?
A. The right atrium directly receives low-oxygen blood from innominate veins.
B. The systemic circulation begins at the left atrium which receives oxygenated blood from lungs.
C. The left ventricle pumps blood to the left atrium and systemic arteries.
D. The Systemic Arteries deliver oxygen-rich blood to the body’s capillaries.
D
Lymphatic vessels are seen in the
A. Central Nervous System (CNS)
B. Bone
C. Teeth
D. Intestine
D. Intestine
Veins differ from arteries because they have large capacity for expansion (T or F)
true
Which blood vessel has pulsatile contractions that propel and distribute blood?
A. aorta
B. innominate artery
C. femoral artery
D. pulmonary artery
femoral artery (medium muscular arteries)
Which of the following is TRUE regarding the walls of the blood vessels and lymphatics?*
A. A lymphatic capillary has a highly attenuated endothelium and lacks basement membrane.
B. The tunica intima of the artery consists of multiple layers of flattened epithelial cells that line the endothelium.
C. The tunica media of a large vein consists of connective tissue layer or sheath.
D. The tunica adventitia of an artery and vein is the most variable coat.
A
These are alternate channels that decrease over time to ensure blood supply to structures distal to a blockage
collateral vessels
Stab wound above left clavicle. Milky fluid was noted upon exploration. Which structure was likely injured?
A. Thoracic Duct
B. Left vagus nerve
C. Left subclavian nerve
D. Left jugular vein
A
Which of the following controls blood pressure?
A. Venules
B. Capillaries
C. Conducting arteries
D. Arterioles
D
What returns the blood from capillary beds to the heart?
A. Venules
B. Capillaries
C. Medium Arteries
D. Large Elastic Arteries
A
Venous valves are absent in
A. Great saphenous vein
B. Inferior vena cava
C. Cephalic vein
D. Femoral vein
B
Which of the following statements is CORRECT regarding medium arteries and veins?
A. Both have direct connections called arteriovenous anastomosis.
B. Both are contained within a vascular sheath.
C. Both have pulsatile contraction
D. Both have superficial and deep components
B
Which of the following regulates the filling of the capillaries?
A. Venules
B. Large elastic arteries
C. Arterioles
D. Medium arteries
C
Varicose veins are due to:
A. Ineffective musculovenous pump in the lower extremities.
B. Ineffective arteriovenous pump in the lower extremities.
C. Ineffective arteriovenous anastomosis in the lower extremities.
D. Ineffective countercurrent exchange of heat in the lower extremities.
A
Spinal cord of the adult ends inferiorly at what level
L1
an injury of one point of an organ or part resulting from a blow on the opposite point
A. Fracture
B. Contrecoup
C. Coup injury
D. Dislocation
B
What blood vessel is injured in Epidural Hematoma?
A. Lateral carotid artery
B. Bridging veins
C. Middle meningeal artery
D. Anterior cerebral artery
C
What is not true regarding the spinal cord in adults?
a. Anterior spinal artery supply anterior 2/3 of the spinal cord
b. Posterior spinal artery supply posterior 1/3 of the spinal cord
c. Radicular artery and artery of adamkiewicz supply lower 2/3 of the spinal cord
d. Anterior arteries supply ⅓ while posterior artery supplies ⅔
Anterior arteries supply ⅓ while posterior artery supplies ⅔
A type of impulse conduction where the action potentials can be generated only at the nodes of Ranvier?
A. Propagation velocity
B. Retrograde transport
C. Anterograde transport
D. Saltatory nerve conduction
D
The finger-like cells present on the end of a neuron that carry towards the cell body?
A. Axon
B. Dendrite
C. Soma
D. Axon Hillock
B
A bundle of nerve fibers (axons) within the CNS connecting neighboring or distant nuclei of the cerebral cortex
a. Ganglion
b. Tract
c. Plexus
d. Nucleus
B
dermatome level of the nipple
T4
dermatome level of the umbilicus
T10
The tough fibrous layer continuous with the meningeal layer of the cranial dura?
A. Arachnoid mater
B. Subdural space
C. Cauda equina
D. Dura mater
D
Blood vessels that nourish the nerve fibers and their coverings Neurilemma
Vasa vasorum
Angio nervora
Vasa nervorum
Vasa nervorum
The layer of dense connective tissue that encloses a fascicle of nerve fiber
A. Perineurium
B. Endoneurium
C. Epineurium
D. Neurilemma
A
The number of pairs of spinal nerves*
A. 12
B. 21
C. 31
D. 33
C. 31
What cell is responsible for producing myelin in the central nervous system?*
A. Microglia
B. Nissl’s body
C. Schwann cells
D. Oligodendrocytes
D
Location for spinal/lumbar tap
between L4 and L5
Which of the following does not describe an anatomical position?
Ans: Head and feet facing posteriorly Correct: Head, gaze (eyes), and toes directed anteriorly (forward)
Which body plane is at right angle to the median plane and passes through, dividing the body into anterior and posterior portions?
A. Transverse
B. Sagittal
C. Frontal
D. Longitudinal
C. Frontal
When you turn your radius medially so that the dorsum faces anteriorly and your palm faces posteriorly.
A. Supination
B. Pronation
C. Inversion
D. Rotation
B. Pronation
Move the sole of the foot toward the median plane (facing the sole medially)
A. Eversion
B. Flexion
C. Extension
D. Inversion
D. Inversion
Which of the following is not true regarding shoulder joint?
A. It is a pivot joint.
B. Formed by the articulation of the scapula and humerus.
C. Its articulating surfaces are covered with hyaline cartilage
D. Dislocation could affect the axillary nerve.
E. Direction of dislocation is commonly anteriorly
A. is not true because it should be ball and socket joint.
The act of bending or increasing the angle between bones or parts of the body:
A. Flexion
B. Extension
C. Eversion
D. Inversion
E. rotation
B. Extension
Moore’s p. 8
This is the act of movement away from the median plane
A. Abduction
B. Adduction
C. Inversion
D. Eversion
A. Abduction - away from the median plane
On what week of the embryonic development can a distinctive human appearance be observed?
A. 2nd
B. 4th
C. 5th
D. 8th
D. 8th
Examples of glands that open directly unto the skin are the following, except
A. Montgomery glands
B. Sweat glands
C. Meibomian gland
D. Ceruminous glands
E. None of the above
B (check)
Which layer of the skin functions as insulation and thermoregulation, storing of energy and provides protection against mechanical forces, allowing the skin to glide over the underlying muscle tissues?
A. Epidermis
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
C
One of the following is not part of the axial skeleton:
A. Skull
B. Sternum
C. Vertebra
D. Sacrum
E. Scapula
E
The third metacarpal and the third proximal phalanx combine flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, and circumduction produce what type of joint:
A. Saddle joint
B. Condyloid joint
C. Plane joint
D. Ball and socket joint
B
Which of the following is not a gland?
A. Montgomery
B. Sweat
C. Meibomian
D. Ceruminous
E. None of the above
Eccentrically contracts as prime mover concentrically contracts
a. Agonist
b. Antagonist
c. Synergist
d. Fixator
B
Complements the action of the prime mover. It may directly assist a prime mover, providing a weaker or less mechanically advantaged component
A. Synergist
B. Antagonist
C. Agonist
D. Prime mover
A
The term which describes a muscle that contracts concentrically and is mainly responsible for creating a movement
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Synergist
D. Fixator
A
steadies the proximal parts o a limb through isometric contraction while movements are occurring in distal parts
A. Agonist
B. Antagonist
C. Synergist
D. Fixator
D
a muscle that opposes the action of another muscle
antagonist
Which is true of isotonic contraction?
A. Does not produce movement or active resistance
B. Muscle changes length in relationship to production of movement
C. Muscle length remains the same
D. Maintains an upright posture
B
Which of the following is an example of a multipennate muscle?
A. Deltoid
B. Dorsal interossei
C. Rectus femoris
D. Gastrocnemiu
A
The thoracic duct receives lymph from the
A. Both sides of the face
B. Both hemathoracis
C. Both upper limbs
D. Both lower limbs
D
Which of the following is true regarding the aorta?
A. Has pulsatile contractions
B. Can accommodate large amount of blood with minimal change in pressure
C. Made up of connective layer sheath
D. all of the above
D
Exchange of nutrients and waste occur in
capillaries
A butcher accidentally cut himself with a knife and damaged his ring finger. The metacarpophalangeal joint was affected. What pair of nerves are affected?
A. Median & Ulnar
B. Radial & Ulnar
C. Musculocutaneous & Ulnar
D. Radial and Median
E. Radial & Axillary
A
A sudden severe blow to the head results in damage to the brain at the opposite pole from the point of impact
countercoup injury
Curve that is not present during fetal development
a. Cervical
b. Thoracic
c. Sacral
d. Thoracic and sacral
A type of impulse conduction where the action potentials can be generated only at the nodes of Ranvier
A. Propagation velocity
B. Retrograde transport
C. Anterograde transport
D. Saltatory nerve conduction
D
The tough, fibrous meninges that is continuous with the meningeal layer of the cranial dura
A. Pia Mater
B. Dura mater
C. Arachnoid mater
D. Subarachnoid lay
B
A patient is advised to undergo a lumbar tap procedure, At what vertebra is usually the site for lumbar puncture?
A. L1 - L2
B. L2 - L3
C. L4 - L5
D. L6 - L7
C
What structure is affected when the neck of the humerus is fractured?
A. Median nerve
B. Axillary nerve
C. Radial nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
B
This structure separates the tubercles and provides protected passage for tendon of the long of biceps brachii:
A. Radial groove
B. Supracondylar ridge
C. Bicipital groove
D. capitulum
C
What nerve serves as the lateral branch of the second intercostal nerve that communicates with the posterior and medial cutaneous arm, supplying skin of the axilla and medial aspect of the proximal arm?
A. Lateral cutaneous nerve of forearm
B. Medial cutaneous nerve of forearm
C. Medial Cutaneous nerve of arm
D. Intercostobrachial nerve
D
What important structure is closely associated with the medial collateral ligament of the elbow?
A. Annular ligament
B. Ulnar nerve
C. Trochlea
D. Capitulum
E. Median nerve
B
The nerve supply of Latissimus Dorsi muscle
A. Long thoracic nerve
B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Radial nerve
B
What is the nerve supply of the teres minor?
A. Suprascapular Nerve
B. Long Thoracic Nerve
C. Axillary Nerve
D. Upper subscapular Nerve
C
Deep penetrated wound on palm by big nail, infection in ulnar bursa. This may be caused by infection from?
A. Flexor carpi ulnaris
B. Lumbricals
C. Abductor pollicis brevis
D. Flexor digitorum profundus
D
Not a boundary of the anatomic snuff box
A. Extensor indicis
B. Abductor pollicis longus
C. Extensor pollicis brevis
D. Extensor pollicis longus
A
Not a deep layer of forearm muscles
A. Flexor pollicis brevis
B. Flexor pollicis longus
C. Extensor indicis
D. Extensor pollicis brevis
A (part of the hand)
This is the most lateral superficial flexor of the forearm
A. Pronator teres
B. Flexor carpi ulnaris
C. Flexor carpi radialis
D. Palmaris longus
A
One of the following does not extend the medial four fingers
A. Extensor digitorum
B. Extensor indicis
C. Extensor carpi ulnaris
D. Extensor digiti minimi
C
ECU extends and adducts hand at wrist joint, not the fingers
During an anatomical dissection, a medical student accidentally receives a superficial laceration on the anterior aspect of his palm. Physical examination in the emergency room has found that there is no loss of function in the intrinsic hand muscles but the skin on the lateral aspect of his thumb is numb. What nerve is damaged?
A. Lateral cutaneous median nerve
B. Palmar branch of median nerve
C. Recurrent branch of median nerve
D. Palmar branch of radial nerve
E. Superficial branch of radial nerve
B
From what roots do the thoracodorsal nerve originate?
a. C5, C6, C7
b. C8, T1
c. C6, C7, C8
d. C5, C6
C
Which of the following structures pass through the deltopectoral groove?
A. Basilic vein
B. Cephalic vein
C. Radial artery
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
B
Which nerve supplies the MEDIAL lumbrical muscles?
A. Radial nerve
B. Ulnar Nerve
C. Median nerve
D. Axillary nerve
B
