Lecture 16 & 17 Flashcards

1
Q

How big is the human genome in diploid cells

A

6 x 10^9 bp
2 m/cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is DNA protected

A

DNA is organized into histone octamers
Four histone proteins (H2A, H2B, H3, and H4) were found in equimolar amounts and H1 in a half molar amounts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe the nucleosome structure

A

Beads on a string
histone octamer is composed of a tetramer of H3-H4 and two dimers of H2A-H2B
DNA (200bp) wrapped around the histone octamer composed of the core histones (H2A, H2B, H3, and H4)
Nucleosomes are linked together by DNA with one bound histone H1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Structure of the core histones

A

The core histones have long N-terminal histone tails that protrude from the histone octamer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why are histone tails important

A

Important for forming higher-order, more compact, forms of chromatin.
Histone tails are subject to many post-translational modifications that affect the compaction level and chromatin which affects its accessibility to enzymes involved in replication and transcription.
Histone tails facilitate inter-nucleosome interactions that result in higher-order packaging/compaction of the DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the histone H1 do

A

Binds the nucleosome and organizes chromatin into a zig-zag structure. When H1binds it protect and additional 20-22 bp of DNA and now the DNA enters and exits the nucleosome on the same side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe what happens without H1.

A

Without H1 the nucleosome wraps
147 bp of DNA and the DNA enters and exits on different faces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Histone H1 allows assembly of chromatin into ____?

A

Histone H1 allows assembly of chromatin into a 30 nm fibre that increases the compaction afforded by the nucleosome by the factor of 35-40 times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the two things required for 30 nm fibre formation

A

H1 histone and N-terminal tails of the core histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two alternate arrangements of the 30nm fibre

A

Solenoid model (one-start helix)
Zigzag model (two-start model)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are SMC complexes

A

30 nm fibres are arranged in 40-100 kbp loops within chromosome by SMC complexes that affords a much greater degree of compaction than the 30 nm fibre on its own

increases compaction of the fibre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is gene expression

A

Series of events where the information in a DNA sequence is converted into an RNA product then to a protein product which performs biological function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Includes 5 things

What is a gene

A

It is the entire DNA sequence that is necessary for the synthesis of a protein or RNA molecule

This includes: the promoter, coding region, untranslated regions, introns, transcription termination signal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the amount of protein in a cell determined by

A

Abundance of mRNA
Efficiency of translation
Processing and stability of the protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the abundance of mRNA determined by

A

Rate of its synthesis (transcription of the gene)
The rate of mRNA degradation (mRNA stability)
The availability of the RNA molecule (mRNA sequestration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the purpose of prokaryotic gene control

A

Primarily to allow cells to optimize growth and division in response to changing environment

17
Q

What is the purpose of eukaryotic gene control

A

Primarily to regulate a genetic program that underlies embryonic development and tissue differentiation, but also to respond to changes in the environment

18
Q

What is a chromosomal scaffold

A

a proteinaceous scaffold that retains the overall structure of the chromosome after histones have been extracted

19
Q

Pol, mRNA processing, Compatmentation, regulation, chromatin, intron

Prokaryotic vs eukaryotic gene transcription (6 things)

A

3 types of RNA polymerases (1 in prokaryotes)

mRNA undergoes significant processing (mRNA not processed in prokaryotes)

Compartmentation of transcription and translation; gene expression is slower! (no compartmentation in prokaryotes)

Regulation is more complex (regulation is much simpler in prokaryotes – polycistronic mRNAs – more than one protein can be translated from a single mRNA)

Presence of introns (no introns in prokaryotes)

DNA is packaged into chromatin (no histones in prokaryotes)

20
Q

Which RNA polymerases drive the expressions of what classes of genes?

A

Pol I = pre-rRNA
Pol III = tRNAs and 5S rRNA
Pol II= everything else

21
Q

What is the most abundant product of transcription

A

pre-rRNA (80% of all transcription in eukaryotic cells)

22
Q

What is the pre-rRNA produced by RNAP I processed into

A

mature 5.8S, 18S and 28S rRNAs

23
Q

Where the RNAP I transcription occur

A

In the subcompartment of the nucleus called the nucleolus

24
Q

What are the two elements of the Pol I promoter

A

Core sequence and an upstream control element (UCE) located 100-150 bp upstream from the transcription start site

25
Q

What kind of transcription levels can be maintained using RNAP I

A

Low basal levels of transcription can occur from the core sequence using RNAP I and selectivity factor 1 (SL1 = TBP + 3 TAFs). More robust transcription requires binding of the upstream binding factor (UBF) to the upstream control element (UCE).

26
Q

Common features of Pol II core promoters

A

Pol II promoters share common features of
1) a TATA-box near -30
2) a TFIIB recognition element (BRE) upstream of TATA
3) an initiator sequence near the +1position and
4) downstream promoter element around the +30 position of the gene

Most pol II promoters also require other regulatory sequences called enhancers

27
Q

What is the most complex RNAP

A

Pol III

28
Q

two main types of Pol III promoters

A

1) for tRNA genes
2) 5S RNA genes

29
Q

Pol III promoter elements include _____

A

box A-C elements that reside downstream of the transcription start site (+1) that recruit transcription factors which then recruit TFIIIB and TBP to the promoter elements upstream of +1.
These then recruit RNAP III to the promoter

30
Q

Bacterial vs Eukaryotic RNAP II

A

Eukaryotic RNAP II must make mRNA
and miRNAs from a much larger genome than found in bacteria.

Eukaryotic genome is highly packaged in the form of chromatin, so is harder to access.

RNAP II is more complex than the bacterial RNAP.

Nonetheless, RNAP II, overall, is very similar in overall structure and function to the bacterial counterpart.

RBP1 & 2 are structurally similar to b’ and b, while RBP11 & RBP3 are similar to a1 and a2

31
Q

5 steps of transcription at Pol II promoters

A

1) The pre-initiation complexis formed and recruits RNAP II to the promoter.

2) A transcription bubble is formed

3) the C-terminal domain (CTD) of RNAP II is phosphorylated and some pre-initiation complex factors are released

4) elongation proceeds as in bacteria

5) transcription is terminated, the RNAP II CTD is dephosphorylated and the cycle is ready to restart

32
Q

Pol II transcription resembles bacterial transcription

A

True

33
Q

What does Pol II transcription require

A

Requires a large set of transcription factors

Mediator complex

34
Q

How does the mediator complex function

A

The mediator complex functions as an intermediary between the general transcription factors bound at the core promoter and more specific transcription factors
Mediator has ~20 subunits in yeast arranged into head, middle and tail domains -/+ a kinase complex that represses expression from a subset of genes. Mediator can facilitate the rate or efficiency of pre-initiation complex formation at the core promoter

35
Q

How is TBP recruited to genes

A

Binds TATA-box
only 25% of genes of TATA-box sequences
Other genes must be recruited to TATA-less promoters by TBP-associated factors (TAFs)