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MEDS 580 - Team - Final > Lecture 15 - Conflict Management > Flashcards

Lecture 15 - Conflict Management Flashcards

1
Q

Conflict Resolution

A

the process of ending a conflict

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2
Q

Conflict management

A

broader than conflict resolution; refers to optimal use of conflict to advance the team towards its goal

  • does not imply resolution
  • can refer to stimulation of productive conflict
  • involves thinking about the potential constructive functions of conflict as well as dysfunctions
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3
Q

3 main competencies of conflict management

A
  1. understand the causes of conflict
  2. distinguish types and stages of conflict
  3. know and apply methods of managing conflict appropriate to different types of stages
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4
Q

Causes of Team Conflict

A
  1. role ambiguity among team members
  2. disagreements over goals (b/c of lack of clarity of goals)
  3. scarcity of critical resources (i.e. staff, equipment)
  4. Differences in perceived status or rank
  5. Interdependency (have to rely on each other and sometimes things do not go as planned)
  6. Personal issues (i.e. individual attributes and personal characteristics)
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5
Q

Types of Team Conflict

A
  1. Relationship
  2. Process
  3. Task
    * process and task are types of productivity conflict whereas relationship conflict is les sproductive*
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6
Q

What is a Relationship Conflict?

A
  • conflict over personal or social issues not related to the team task
  • “emotional” or “affective” conflict
  • decreases effectiveness of the team (less productive because conflict is more personality-based)
  • best handled outside of the team, privately
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7
Q

What is Task Conflict?

A
  • conflict over the content of the work that the team is doing (disagreement over appropriate therapy, tasks, and goals)
  • inevitable and is necessary to create a climate where members feel free to disagree with each other
  • ability to disagree allows for trust to develop since they will not face social detriments by disagreeing
  • considered depersonalized “cognitive conflict”
  • focused on merits of ideas, plans, and therapies
  • allows everyone to be on the same page about content of the team’s work
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8
Q

What is Process Conflict?

A
  • conflict over the way the work of the team is being done
  • role ambiguity is central to this conflict
  • can be a source of positive conflict if working through conflict better establishes roles and responsibilities
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9
Q

What two types of conflict fall under Substantive Conflict and why?

A
  • task conflict & process conflict

- because they are both conflicts based on the substance of the team’s work

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10
Q

What is the most and least productive types of conflict?

A
  • most productive: task conflict

- least productive: relationship conflict

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11
Q

Why is Task Conflict especially important?

A
  • it is necessary to create a climate where members feel free to disagree with each other –> builds trust among members because there are not social detriments to disagreeing
  • allows everyone to be on the same page about ideas and work
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12
Q

What is the relationship between conflict and team effectiveness?

A

Medium level of conflict ensures high team effectiveness –> too high or too low = low team effectiveness

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13
Q

T/F: Relationship Conflict can be a source of positive conflict

A

False; relationship conflict is not related to the team task and reduces team effectiveness

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14
Q

T/F: Scarcity of critical resources is central to Process Conflict

A

False; role ambiguity is central to Process Conflict

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15
Q

What are the Stages of Conflict?

A
  1. Anticipation: thinking about a potential conflict
  2. Awareness: sensing that a situation is moving towards conflict, acknowledging that it exists
  3. Discussion: confirms that conflict exists amongst multiple team members
  4. Dispute: attempting to find a solution to resolve conflict
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16
Q

What are the 5 Conflict Management Methods?

A
  1. Avoidance
  2. Accommodation
  3. Collaboration
  4. Compromise
  5. Competition
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17
Q

What is Avoidance and why is it bad for healthcare teams?

A
  • Avoidance: not addressing the source of conflict, letting the situation continue because most people find conflict threatening and prefer to ignore it to preserve harmony on the team
  • can cause issues to be revisited multiple times and cause buildup of negative feelings
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18
Q

What is Accommodation and who does it involve?

A
  • Accommodation: one party in the conflict gines in to another party
  • resolution is made between two individuals, does NOT involve entire team
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19
Q

What are the three steps of Collaboration?

A
  • Step 1: airing of multiple sides of issue
  • Step 2: agreement on criteria for resolving conflict
  • Step 3: negotiation of a solution acceptable to all parties to the conflict
  • *creates a win-win resolution- new value for all parties**
20
Q

What are the three steps of Compromise?

A
  • Step 1: airing of multiple sides of issue
  • Step 2: agreement on criteria for resolving conflict
  • Step 3: negotiation of a solution acceptable to all parties to the conflict
  • *solution is less desirable to each party**
21
Q

What is the difference between Collaboration and Compromise?

A
  • In collaboration all parties are happy with the solution

- In compromise each party gives up something from its original position and no new/better solution is substituted

22
Q

What is Competition and what tactics are used to accomplish it?

A
  • competition is when one member wins and the others lose

- political tactics like lobbying, requires power which is often derived from position

23
Q

Why is competition bad?

A

it can demoralize and marginalize other team members

24
Q

What are three methods for implementing the competencies for conflict management?

A
  1. inquiry: soliciting and listening to the position of others
  2. advocacy: speaking out in favor of one’s own position, speaking to merit of specific choice
  3. dialogue: clarifying reasoning, providing additional information or logic, encourage members to identify barriers
25
Q

What is a situation where use of avoidance is appropriate?

A
  • when an issue is trivial or there are more important issues
  • when there is no chance of satisfying someone’s concerns
  • when others can resolve the conflict more effectively
26
Q

What is a situation where accommodation is appropriate?

A
  • when one finds out they are wrong
  • to build social credits for later issues
  • when harmony and stability are important
27
Q

What is a situation where collaborating is appropriate?

A
  • to find an integrative solution when both sets of concerns are too important to be compromised
  • to gain commitment by incorporating concerns into a consensus
  • to work through feelings that have interfered with a relationship
  • needed when gaining commitment and is important to merge insights from people with different perspectives
28
Q

What is a situation where compromise is appropriate?

A

-when differing goals are strongly held by equally powerful parties and when the parties are not willing to collaborate or collaboration efforts have failed

29
Q

What is a situation where competing is appropriate?

A
  • when quick, decisive action is vital (emergency situations)
  • on important issues where unpopular actions need implementing
  • useful for distasteful decisions where options are unpalatable
30
Q

What are three practices to keep conflict depersonalized?

A
  1. reframe situation when you find yourself getting upset with other team members —> consider that you may be missing important information held by the other party, rather than that the party is wrong
  2. acknowledge emotional reactions and relationship conflicts
  3. build long-term trust into relationships so that they can survive temporary upsets
31
Q

What are two reasons why conflict management is a high level intervention to increase team effectiveness?

A
  1. team members frequently avoid conflict

2. teams do not have well-developed inquiry or advocacy skills

32
Q

CDC Definition of Surveillance

A
  • Public Health Surveillance is the ongoing systematic collection, analysis and interpretation of outcome-specific data essential to planning, implementation and evaluation of public health practice
  • timely dissemination of data for those who need to know
  • final link of surveillance change is application of data to prevent and control human disease and injury

Collection - Analysis - Interpretation - Implementation- Dissemination - Application

33
Q

Steps in a food borne outbreak investigation:

A
  1. detecting a possible outbreak
  2. defining and finding cases
  3. generating hypotheses- conducting interviews to develop hypothesis
  4. testing hypothesis: analytic studies, lab testing of samples
  5. finding point of contamination and source of food if they find associations (if they don’t find associations, then case continues and go back to generating hypothesis)
  6. controlling an outbreak: recall products, remove source of contamination, revise production process
  7. if cases stop deciding that an outbreak is over
34
Q

Who tested for Listeria in Blue Bell Ice Cream products?

A
  • South Carolina Department of Health Identifies Listeria in random sampling
  • Texas Department of Health test Blue Bell products thereafter at production site
35
Q

How did investigators find that patients with Listeria in Kansas had acquired it from the ice cream and not from their hospital stay?

A

4 out of the 5 patients with Listeriosis had Listeria isolates that were genetically similar and all of them had consumed milkshakes using “Schoops” type of Blue Bell ice Cream –> 3 died from Listeriosis

36
Q

What is PulseNet?

A

A type of surveillance network used by CDC to upload DNA fingerprints of Listeria using electrophoresis technique –> Kansas Department of Health matched cases of Listeriosis to fingerprints in Pulsenet

37
Q

What did the CDC identify Blue Bell manufacturers for?

A
  • failure to manufacture and package foods under conditions and controls necessary to minimize potential for growth of microorganisms and contamination
  • failure to perform microbial testing where necessary to identify sanitation failures and possible food contamination
  • no adequate cleaning and sanitizing of equipment
  • failure to provide running water at suitable temperature for cleaning of equipment
  • plant was not constructed to prevent drip and condensate from contaminating food, food-contact surfaces and food-packaging materials
  • employers did not wash and sanitize hands thoroughly in an adequate hand-washing facility
  • failure to store cleaned and sanitized portable equipment in a location and manner which protects food-contact surfaces from contamination
  • design of equipment does not allow proper cleaning and maintenance
  • failure to hold foods which can support rapid growth of undesirable microorganisms
38
Q

What was the Blue Bell Response after the outbreak?

A
  • undergoing a “phase-in” of products
  • undergoing cleaning/sanitizing as well as breakdown of all parts for cleaning at Texas and Oklahoma plants (where outbreak originated from)
39
Q

Why was there a recall on avocados done in California?

A

-routine government sampling found environmental contamination in California plant
-no illnesses, recall was done out of caution
recall on avocados from Henry Co in Arizona, California, Florida, New Hampshire, North Carolina and Wisconsin

40
Q

Characteristics of Listeria Monocytogenes

A

-only LIsteria that regularly infects humans
motile, non-sporeforming, gram + rod that exhibits characteristic “tumbling” motility
-grows well at refrigeration temperatures (4 to 10 degrees Celsius)
-important pathogen of immunosuppressed (elderly, pregnant women, newborns)
-lives in soil and decaying vegetable matter
most infections results from ingestion of bacteria and subsequent gut penetration
-has preference for placenta and CNS where it enters blood stream

41
Q

What is the main virulence factor for Listeria Monocytogenes?

A

-Listeriolysin O (a pore-forming cytolysin toxin)

42
Q

What is the relationship between Listeria and Food Epidemiology?

A
  • Less than 1 percent of foodborne disease cases are attributed to Listeria
  • usually a sporadic outbreak
  • present as a low level contaminant in food plants; hot food does NOT transmit listeria
  • outbreaks have shown high numbers of Listeria in sampled food
43
Q

What are the two types of Listeria infections?

A
  • non-invasive (Febrile Gastroenteritis): aka food poisoning; seen in healthy patients who ingest a large amount of Listeria
  • invasive: meningitis, infection of fetus, CNS infections; occurs once Listeria passes through gut and into blood stream, typically seen in immunocompromised
44
Q

Characteristics of Febrile Gastroenteritis?

A
  • occurs after ingesting a lot of Listeria
  • symptoms: fever, watery diarrhea, headache, nausea, vomiting, muscle pain
  • lasts 2 days and resolves on its own
  • recovery is generally complete; do not die from it
45
Q

Characteristics of Listeria Meningitis?

A
  • main predisposing factors are hematologic malignancy and renal transplant
  • presentation: mild illness with fever/mental status changes or fulminant course with coma
  • many have subacute illness, 42% do not present with signs of meningeal irritation
46
Q

What is the treatment for Listeria?

A
  • For Febrile Gastroenteritis: healthy patients do not receive treatment, usually self-resolve; immunocompromised patients receive ampicillin
  • pregnant women: ampicillin regardless
  • Meningitis: ampicillin
  • if allergic to ampicillin give Bactrum –> back-up option would be Meropenem

MEDS 580 - Team - Final (10 decks)

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