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Biotechnology MCQs > Lecture 15 > Flashcards

Lecture 15 Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement correctly defines monoclonal antibodies (mAbs)?

A

They are laboratory-made antibodies derived from a single clone of B-cells.

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2
Q

Monoclonal antibodies primarily recognize:

A

A specific epitope on an antigen.

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3
Q

Why are these antibodies termed “monoclonal”?

A

They originate from a single B-cell producing identical antibody molecules.

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4
Q

Monoclonal antibodies are typically derived from which immunoglobulin isotype?

A

IgG

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5
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of an antibody?

A

It identifies and neutralizes foreign objects like bacteria or viruses.

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6
Q

Monoclonal antibodies can be designed to:

A

Mimic the immune system’s ability to combat pathogens.

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7
Q

Monoclonal antibodies bind to antigens using their:

A

Paratope region.

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8
Q

Each antibody recognizes a unique target region on an antigen known as the:

A

Epitope

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9
Q

An IgG molecule typically contains how many peptide chains?

A

Four (2 heavy and 2 light)

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10
Q

Which part of an IgG molecule is responsible for antigen binding?

A

Fab region

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11
Q

The first ~110 amino acids of the heavy and light chains form the:

A

Variable regions (VH and VL)

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12
Q

Within each variable domain, the specific hypervariable sequences that bind antigen are

A

Complementarity-determining regions (CDRs)

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13
Q

Which statement accurately describes the constant region of an immunoglobulin?

A

It is responsible for effector recognition and binding (Fc function).

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14
Q

The light chain constant region is designated as:

A

CL

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15
Q

Which region of the heavy chain contributes to interactions with immune cells and complement?

A

CH regions (Fc portion)

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16
Q

Disulfide (S–S) bonds at the hinge region in an IgG molecule connect:

A

The two heavy chains

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17
Q

Which step involves immunizing an animal (such as a mouse) with a target antigen?

A

Immunization

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18
Q

After immunization, the B‐cells that produce the desired antibodies are typically isolated from the animal’s:

A

Spleen

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19
Q

To form hybridoma cells, B‐cells are fused with:

A

Myeloma cells

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20
Q

Hybridoma cells are cultured in selective media (often HAT medium) to:

A

Ensure only fused (hybridoma) cells survive

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21
Q

Which step involves identifying hybridoma clones that produce the desired monoclonal antibody?

A

Selection

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22
Q

The process of cloning selected hybridoma cells aims to:

A

Obtain a population of cells producing identical monoclonal antibodies

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23
Q

Large-scale production of monoclonal antibodies typically occurs in:

A

Bioreactors

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24
Q

Which of the following best describes the outcome of the hybridoma method?

A

Continuous, large-scale antibody production

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25
Q

Which monoclonal antibody suffix usually indicates a fully murine antibody?

A

−omab

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26
Q

Which mAb suffix denotes a chimeric antibody (approximately 65% human)?

A

−ximab

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27
Q

A “humanized” monoclonal antibody that is over 90% human typically ends with which suffix?

A

−zumab

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28
Q

Fully human mAbs (close to 100% human sequence) generally end with which suffix?

A

−umab

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29
Q

Which of the following mAbs has the highest potential for immunogenicity?

A

Fully murine (−omab)

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30
Q

Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is fully murine and used against CD20+ B cell lymphomas?

A

Tositumomab

31
Q

Rituximab (−ximab) is classified as which type of monoclonal antibody?

A

Chimeric

32
Q

Trastuzumab (Herceptin) is best described as:

A

Humanized mAb targeting HER2 in some breast cancers

33
Q

Dupilumab (−umab) blocks interleukins 4 and 13 in allergic conditions. Its structure is:

A

Fully human mAb

34
Q

Among murine (−omab), chimeric (−ximab), humanized (−zumab), and fully human (−umab) antibodies, which are least likely to trigger an immune response?

A

Fully human (−umab)

35
Q

Which of the following best describes the scope of vaccines today?

A

They are used not only for infectious diseases but also in development for allergies, cancer, and Alzheimer’s disease.

36
Q

Modern biotechnology’s contribution to vaccine development includes:

A

Identification of protective antigens and simpler production processes.

37
Q

One major effect of modern biotech on vaccines is:

A

Increased effectiveness and safety

38
Q

Which statement accurately reflects current vaccine target groups?

A

Vaccines are aimed at practically everyone on the planet, especially young children.

39
Q

Due to modern biotech methods, vaccine production can be:

A

Simpler and cheaper for selected vaccine components

40
Q

Therapeutic vaccines are being studied for which potential targets?

A

Certain cancers and allergies

41
Q

Inactivated (or killed) vaccines are characterized by:

A

Pathogens that are treated to remove their ability to replicate.

42
Q

Which of the following is an example of an inactivated vaccine?

A

Polio vaccine

43
Q

A common drawback of inactivated vaccines is:

A

Loss of some antigenic epitopes due to inactivation processes

44
Q

Because inactivated vaccines cannot replicate in vivo:

A

Higher doses or booster shots are often required

45
Q

Which statement regarding cost implications of inactivated vaccines is accurate?

A

They can be more expensive due to the need for higher doses and additional boosters

46
Q

Inactivated vaccines for cholera and typhoid fever work by:

A

Exposing the immune system to “killed” pathogens to build antibody responses

47
Q

Live attenuated vaccines are produced by:

A

Weakening the pathogen via serial passage or deletion of virulence genes

48
Q

An advantage of live attenuated vaccines is that

A

They replicate in the host, providing a strong and long-lasting immune response

49
Q

Which is a potential drawback of live attenuated vaccines?

A

The possibility of reversion to a virulent form

50
Q

Examples of live attenuated vaccines include:

A

Measles-mumps-rubella (MMR), yellow fever, and BCG for tuberculosis

51
Q

Genetic engineering can create attenuated pathogens by:

A

Deleting multiple virulence-related sections of the genome

52
Q

A genetically attenuated oral cholera vaccine example is:

A

Vaxchora

53
Q

A key requirement when designing live attenuated vaccines is that:

A

Protective epitopes remain immunogenic after attenuation

54
Q

Subunit vaccines differ from whole-pathogen vaccines in that they:

A

Contain only pieces of the pathogen (e.g., proteins or polysaccharides) rather than the entire organism

55
Q

Polysaccharide vaccines alone are generally not recommended for young children because:

A

They do not induce a robust immune response in children under two years of age

56
Q

Conjugate vaccines attach a bacterial polysaccharide to a carrier protein so that:

A

The immune response becomes T-cell–dependent, improving memory in children

57
Q

Which statement about polysaccharide vaccines is correct?

A

They elicit a weaker memory response compared to conjugate vaccines

58
Q

Protein-based subunit vaccines primarily target:

A

Specific viral or bacterial proteins (e.g., surface antigens)

59
Q

Recombinant subunit vaccines are produced by:

A

Using another organism (like yeast) to express and purify the antigenic protein

60
Q

The primary immune response to a plain polysaccharide vaccine is typically:

A

T-cell–independent

61
Q

Conjugate vaccines (e.g., Haemophilus influenzae type b, pneumococcal conjugate) are particularly important in pediatrics because:

A

They elicit a strong protective response and immunologic memory in young children

62
Q

mRNA vaccines work by delivering:

A

A blueprint of mRNA that instructs our cells to produce a specific antigen

63
Q

One key benefit of mRNA vaccines is that they:

A

Avoid inserting viral DNA into our genome

64
Q

Which statement about the antigen in mRNA vaccines is accurate?

A

Cells temporarily produce the viral (or bacterial) protein encoded by the mRNA

65
Q

mRNA vaccines are typically delivered in:

A

Lipid nanoparticles that protect the mRNA and facilitate cell entry

66
Q

A potential limitation of current mRNA vaccine technology is:

A

The need for ultra-cold storage to preserve mRNA stability

67
Q

mRNA vaccines stimulate immunity by:

A

Allowing host cells to present the vaccine-produced protein to immune cells

68
Q

Therapeutic vaccines are primarily intended for individuals who:

A

Already have a disease or condition

69
Q

Therapeutic vaccines function by:

A

Stimulating the immune system to recognize and attack the disease-causing agent

70
Q

Which best describes the mechanism of therapeutic vaccines in Alzheimer’s disease (e.g., CAD106, ACC-001)?

A

They aim to induce an immune response against amyloid-beta plaques

71
Q

One goal of therapeutic vaccines is to:

A

Slow down or control a disease’s progression

72
Q

When a therapeutic vaccine is administered, it “teaches” the immune system to:

A

Recognize the disease-causing agent as foreign and mount an immune response

73
Q

An immune response triggered by a therapeutic vaccine may include:

A

Production of antibodies and activation of immune cells against the specific target

Biotechnology MCQs (2 decks)

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