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Lecture Flashcards

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1
Q

Mark Liwana has been using the computer for five hours already without breaks. The computer is connected to an extension wire with a lot of plugs also connected. Which of the following hazards is potentially present in this situation?

a. Fire
b. Electrical
c. Ergonomic
d. All of the choices

A

d. All of the choices

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2
Q

Serum albumin is expected to be ____ in bedridden patients because ____.

A

Decreased; increased fluid retention

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3
Q

As a 2nd year medical technology student, you already learned the hierarchy of controls from the most to least effective. Which of the following controls would be the most effective in hazard mitigation?

a. Laboratory safety training for all laboratory personnel
b. Wearing of Level A PPE
c. Immunizing all lab personnel for hepatitis B and COVID-19
d. Properly colored biohazard bags

A

Properly colored biohazard bags

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4
Q

The speed of a centrifuge should be checked every ___ months.

A

3

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5
Q

Onanay is a medical technologist at GMA Legends hospital. The lab she worked on caught a fire that was caused by the electricity source of the refrigerator. Which of the following extinguishers should not be used by her to put off the fire?

a. water
b. dry chemical
c. foam
d. all can be used

A

Water

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6
Q

Statement A: Biosafety cabinets are used to prevent contamination from the air to the sample.

Statement B: Fume hoods are used to prevent the sample from being inhaled to the respiratory tract of the personnel.

A

Both Statements are TRUE

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7
Q

After a very difficult blood extraction, Kristina Maskarino noticed that after centrifugation, the color of the serum was dark red. Which of the following should she expect to increase?

A

Fe (iron)

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8
Q

Which of the following can cause an increased lactate levels in the serum?

1: Tourniquet use of less than 1 minute
2: Excessive fist clenching
3: Exercise 15 minutes before testing

A

2, 3

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9
Q

Bananas, tomatoes, pineapples can cause increased 5-HIAA levels in the blood because they are rich in ____. (No abbreviations)

A

Serotonin

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10
Q

Which of the following would most likely be increased in the serum of Hidilyn Diaz, a heavy lifter?

A

Creatine kinase

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11
Q

Which of the following is a potential injury caused by needle pricks?

a. All of these are possible
b. Cuts
c. Hepatitis B infection
d. Hepatitis C infection

A

a. All of these are possible

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12
Q

Excessive clenching of the fist would greatly increase what electrolyte in the serum?

A

Potassium

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13
Q

What does OSHA mean?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration

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14
Q

Nanon is a medical technologist at SPH. He wanted to throw away wound swab samples that they collected for the day. In what colored bag should he dispose the said samples?

A

Yellow

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT expected in patients who underwent exercise shortly before blood draw?

a. increase in lactate
b. 2+ protein in urinalysis
c. increase in fatty acids
d. All are expected

A

d. All are expected

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16
Q

What type of hazard does the blue diamond in the NFPA identification system identify?

A

Health

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17
Q

The air from a fume hood is ___.

A

Totally exhausted from the building

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18
Q

Aside from COVID-19, the major job-related disease hazard in clinical laboratories is?

A

Hepatitis

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19
Q

Work is being done with SARS CoV-2 (COVID-19) in the laboratory. Which of the following PPE is the most important that a medical technologist should don before entering the workplace?

A

N95 mask

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20
Q

Liquid nitrogen is under what type of hazard?

A

Cryogenic

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21
Q

Which of the following formulas computes for the equivalent weight?

A

molecular weight divided by valence

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22
Q

How many mEq are in 27.0 L of 87.1 N sulfuric acid? Type the answer in numerical form, DO NOT include the unit, ROUND OFF to two decimal places and NO SPACE within the answer. (eg. 66.57)

Atomic mass - H (1g); S (32g); O (16g)

A

2,351,700 mEq

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23
Q

Convert 10 mol/L of sodium hydroxide to Eq/L.

DO NOT include the unit, ROUND OFF to two decimal places and NO SPACE within the answer. (eg. 66.57)
Atomic Masses:

H - 1 g

O - 16 g

Na - 23 g

A

10

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24
Q

You tested for the glucose level of your patient. You already know that a FBS of 126 mg/dL or greater is considered as diabetes and 100-125 mg/dL is considered as prediabetes. However, the result of the laboratory showed the glucose levels as mmol/L (Patient’s value: 4 mmol/L). Interpret the result.
Conversion Factor for glucose:

1 mg/dL = 0.0555 mmol/L

a. Prediabetes (100-125 mg/dL)
b. Normal (= 99 mg/dL)
c. Diabetes (>/= 126 mg/dL)

A

Normal (= 99 mg/dL)

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25
Q

What is the dilution factor when you dilute 1 mL of serum in 15 mL of NSS?

A

1:16

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26
Q

Your serology professor asked you to add 0.25 mL of serum to 2 mL of NSS. What is the resulting dilution of serum to NSS?

(You may express your answer in 1:x or 1/x - just choose one)

NO spaces between your answers.

(E.g. you may answer 1:3 or 1/3)

A

1/9

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27
Q

You were instructed by Jinkee, your chief medical technologist, to make 1:2, 1:4, 1:8, 1:16, and 1:32 dilutions of a pure/stock solution of a chemical. What is the best course of action if only a very small amount of the chemical is present?

A

Do serial dilution

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28
Q

Partition chromatography is also known as ________ chromatography

A

Liquid:liquid

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29
Q

Which of the following types of chromatography is considered to be the most specific?

A

affinity

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30
Q

How many monochromators are utilized in fluorometry?

A

2

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31
Q

If the atoms in the ground state will spin in the same direction, the method is then called:

A

phosphorescence

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32
Q

before a chemical can be subjected to gas chromatography, it must:

A

be volatile

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33
Q

What is the most commonly used carrier or mobile phase in gas chromatography

A

helium

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34
Q

quenching is the most common problem with what method?

A

fluorescence

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35
Q

Compared to the excitation light, the emitted light in fluorescence has longer wavelength? True or False

A

True

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36
Q

Hydrogen bonds and van der Waals interaction are involved in size exclusion chromatography?
True or False

A

False

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37
Q

Tungsten iodide lamp is the light source of choice for fluorescence method?
True or False

A

False

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38
Q

compared to excitation light, the emitted light in fluorescence has a lower frequency.
True or False

A

True

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39
Q

The secondary monochromator and photodetector in fluorometry are placed on the same plane as the light source.
True or False

A

False

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40
Q

Since the emitted light as a lower energy than that of the excitation light in fluorescence, the preferred photodetector in fluorescence is photomultiplier.
True or False

A

True

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41
Q

The component of the chromatography machine that provides support to the stationary phase by holding it in place. (one word answer, singular form)

A

column

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42
Q

Which among these colors have the highest energy?

A

violet

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43
Q

Which among these colors have the highest number of frequencies?

A

violet

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44
Q

The term that refers to the lowermost part of a wave

A

trough

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45
Q

Rotating chopper is used in which of the following methods?

A

Double beam spectrophotometry

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46
Q

What is the wavelength of light emitted by lithium in FES?

A

700nm

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47
Q

What is the purpose of flame in AAS?

a. both
b. break bonds
c. neither
d. provide activation energy

A

break bonds

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48
Q

Soft glass cuvette is intended to be used in handling samples that ________.

A

are acidic

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49
Q

What is incorporated in tungsten in the light source to prolongs its stability?

A

iodide

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50
Q

what is the light source used in AAS?

A

hollow cathode

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51
Q

Which of the following analytes is tested using FES?

a. K
b. Mg
c. all of the choices
d. Mn
e. Ca

A

K

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52
Q

in this method, you can compare the absorbance of the reference cuvette to sample cuvette while reading their light absorbance simultaneously.

A

double beam spectrophotometry

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53
Q

What is the light sensitive material in barrier layer cell?

A

selenium

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54
Q

This internal component of spectrophotometer functions to convert light energy into electrical energy

A

photodetector

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55
Q

What is the relationship between wavelength and frequency?

A

inversely proportional

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56
Q

What is the relationship between the concentration of the substance and amount of light transmitted?

A

inversely proportional

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57
Q

What is the color emitted by sodium atoms in Flame emission spectrophotometry?

A

yellow

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58
Q

This chemical used in the laboratory contains a specific type of analyte with known concentration

A

standard

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59
Q

Interference filter is the type of monochromator that has cut aluminized surfaces which can act as individual prisms.
true or false

A

false

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60
Q

what component of the FES breaks up the sample into finer droplets for the group 1 metals to be easily excited by the flame?

A

atomizer

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61
Q

Compared to barrier-layer cell, phototube ___________.

A

requires external source of power or electricity

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62
Q

What is the complementary color of red?

A

green

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63
Q

what component of the spectrophotometer functions to convert polychromatic light to a light of a specific wavelength?

A

monochromator

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64
Q

All of the following terms are associated with interference filter EXCEPT:

a. silver
b. constructive interference
c. dielectric field
d. magnesium fluoride
e. dynodes

A

dynodes

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65
Q

In a normal curve, what proportion of the data is within +/-2SD from the mean?

A

95.4%

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66
Q

Jennie Kim, the chief medical technologist of BP Hospital, wants to have a test that would detect all of those who possibly have Diabetes Mellitus Type 2. Which of the following is she most concerned with?

a. Analytic Specificity
b. Analytic Sensitivity
c. Diagnostic Specificity
d. Diagnostic Sensitivity

A

d. Diagnostic Sensitivity

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67
Q

Which of the following steps is included in the post-analytical phase of testing?

1 - Calling the physician to report results

2 - Interpretation of results as normal, low, high

3 - Storage after processing

4 - Measurement of the analyte in the sample analyzer

A

1, 2 and 3 only

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68
Q

Taylor Marie Batumbakal Swift asked you: “What measure of shape do you know?”

You immediately answered, trying to impress her: “I know about the normal curve”, as you have learned from our lesson.

What is the name of the normal curve?

A

Gaussian Curve

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69
Q

Statement 1: CV is computed with this formula: CV = (Mean/SD) x 100%.

Statement 2: The higher the CV, the more precise the data is.

A

Both statements are FALSE

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70
Q

This refers to the closeness of two or more data to one another.

A

Precision

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71
Q

This refers to the measure done by the DOH (Department of Health) to send samples to the individual laboratories for analysis. This aims to maintain quality assurance and test for the reliability of clinical laboratories licensed in the PH. (Be specific and no abbreviations)

A

National External Quality Assessment Scheme

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72
Q

Choi Hyunsuk wants to test a certain sample. Every day for 5 days, he runs the same sample through the analyzer using the same set of reagents/lot. What is he trying to test?

A

Repeatability

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73
Q

Which of the following correctly describes Quality Control?
1 - The substance used in QC mimics patient samples

2 - Standards are used

3 - Tested together with the samples

4 - Done before the samples are tested

A

1 and 3

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74
Q

How many standard deviations from the mean is usually the threshold for “acceptable” values? (Answer the number ONLY, no need to put SD)

A

2

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75
Q

Which of the following is a random error?

a. Progressive performance decline of the analyzer
b. None of the choices
c. Deterioration of reagents due to wrong storage conditions
d. One-time observation error by the medical technologist
e. All of the choices

A

One-time observation error by the medical technologist

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76
Q

In the Lean Six Sigma DMAIC approach, what does I stand for?

A

Improve

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77
Q

Why are COVID-19 antigen tests not used as confirmatory tests for COVID-19?

A

It is not that specific, other conditions might give a positive result

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78
Q

Patricia Escaño wants to evaluate the method they employed in their laboratory. Which of the following should she take into account during evaluation?

a. None of these
b. All of these
c. Reportable range
d. Accuracy
e. Precision

A

b. All of these

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79
Q

In our lecture, what does PT mean?

A

Proficiency Testing

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80
Q

Maltose

A

Disaccharides

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81
Q

Raffinose

A

Oligosaccharides

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82
Q

Fructose

A

Disaccharides

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83
Q

Fructose

A

Monosaccharides

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84
Q

Chitin

A

Heteropolysaccharides

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85
Q

It is due to metabolic and hormonal changes

A

Gestational diabetes

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86
Q

There is a very low level or undetectable C peptide

A

Type 1 Diabetes

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87
Q

It is characterized by impaired insulin secretion

A

Type 2 Diabetes

88
Q

PCOS and Acanthosis nigricans are one of its risk factors

A

Type 2 Diabetes

89
Q

Autoimmune and autoantibodies are present or more common

A

Type 1 Diabetes

90
Q

It usually affects children and young adults

A

Type 1 Diabetes

91
Q

Insulin is absolutely necessary for medication

A

Type 1 Diabetes

92
Q

It involves increased risk of pre-eclampsia

A

Gestational Diabetes

93
Q

It is a process that happens when your body doesn’t have enough carbohydrates to burn for energy. Instead, it burns fat and makes things called ketones, which it can use for fuel.

A

Ketosis

94
Q

This sign and symptom of diabetes is triggered due to the patient having hypovolemia. Type only the medical term.

A

Polydipsia

95
Q

it can reduce appetite and promote weight loss

A

Incretins

96
Q

it is produced in the follicular cells

A

Thyroxine

97
Q

it is stimulated when there is decreased cortisol level

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone

98
Q

it can inhibit the release of both insulin and glucagon

A

Somatostatin

99
Q

it is secreted in the adrenal medulla

A

Epinephrine

100
Q

Fatty acids undergo which of the following processes in order to participate in the citric acid cycle?

a. Transamination
b. Lipolysis
c. Beta-oxidation

A

Beta-oxidation

101
Q

Which of the following is the basis In order to designate if a certain sugar is dextrorotatory or levorotatory?

A

Penultimate carbon

102
Q

What functional group is usually seen at the terminal end of a fisher projection?

A

aldehyde

103
Q

Which of the following substances is involved in the exocrine function of pancreas?

a. Ghrelin
b. Insulin
c. Amylase

A

Amylase

104
Q

Which of the following types of glycogen storage disease presents muscle cramps and myoglobinuria, especially after exercise?

A

McArdle disease

105
Q

Which of the following pairs of lipoproteins have higher TAG content than the other?

  1. VLDL
  2. HDL
  3. Chylomicrons
  4. LDL
A

1 and 3

106
Q

Which of the following pairs of lipoproteins have density heavier than the others?

  1. VLDL
  2. HDL
  3. Chylomicrons
  4. LDL
A

2 and 4

107
Q

Which of the following pairs of lipoproteins are involved in the endogenous pathway of lipid metabolism?

  1. VLDL
  2. HDL
  3. Chylomicrons
  4. LDL
A

1 and 4

108
Q

The double cuvette blank technique in serum Triglyceride determination is done to remove the interference caused by:

A

free glycerol in the serum

109
Q

The double cuvette blank technique in serum Triglyceride determination is done to remove the interference caused by:

A

Free glycerol in the serum

110
Q

Women have higher HDL than men especially during menopausal stage

A

False

111
Q

Which apolipoprotein is associated with the “BAD” cholesterol?

A

apo-B100

112
Q

Which apolipoprotein is known as the activator of the enzyme that converts cholesterol into cholesteryl ester in HDL?

A

apo-A1

113
Q

Which of the following components of lipoproteins are found embedded in their core region?

  1. cholesterol
  2. cholesteryl ester
  3. phospholipid
  4. apolipoprotein
  5. triglycerides
A

2 and 5

114
Q

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes VLDL?

  1. Transports hepatic derived lipids
  2. Catabolism of VLDL will form IDL and LDL
  3. It binds to SRB1 receptors of the liver to eliminate cholesterol
  4. It has higher triglyceride content than chylomicrons
A

1 and 2

115
Q

Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes the good cholesterol?

  1. Transports cholesterol from tissues to liver
  2. Contains apo-B48 which activates LCAT
  3. Has discoid and spherical forms
  4. Has higher protein content than chylomicrons
A

3 and 4

116
Q

Which of the following statements INCORRECTLY describes the reverse cholesterol pathway?

a. HDL transports cholesterol from the tissues to the liver
b. Some cholesteryl esters of the HDL are transferred to LDL because of the CETP
c. all of the statements are true about reverse cholesterol pathway
d. ABCA1 allows cholesterol to leak out of the cells to be loaded into the HDL
e. the discoid form of HDL is its mature forms

A

the discoid form of HDL is its mature forms

117
Q

A lipid that is rich in cis fatty acids are solid at room temperature.

A

false

118
Q

This lipid has a long hydrocarbon chain that terminates with a carboxylic acid group.

A

fatty acid

119
Q

This lipid is amphipathic cause it has a hydrophilic -OH and hydrophobic fused rings.

A

cholesterol

120
Q

The plasma of a 47/F patient who has just eaten two pieces of WenZeus hamburger is turbid. Which of the following lipoproteins is responsible for the turbidity of the plasma of the patient?

A

chylomicrons

121
Q

How do ascorbic acid and bilirubin affect the enzymatic method of determination of cholesterol and triglycerides?

A

they are reducing agents thus they can cause falsely low results

122
Q

Binds to the SRB1 receptor in the hepatocytes

A

HDL

123
Q

Uses its apo-B100 to bind to the specific receptors in the cells

A

LDL

124
Q

calculated in the Friedewald equation by dividing the serum level of Triglycerides in mg/dL by 5

A

VLDL

125
Q

Can form creamy layer on the top of the plasma if the sample is left standing at room temperature

A

Chylomicrons

126
Q

Which of the following dyslipidemia is managed by apheresis?

a. homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia
b. hyperalphalipoproteinemia
c. familial hypertriglyceridemia

A

homozygous familial hypercholesterolemia

127
Q

Majority of the fatty acids in the plasma or blood are bound to _____________. (one word answer, small letters and singular form)

A

albumin

128
Q

In ultracentrifugation, which of the lipoproteins will settle at the lowermost portion of the container or tube?

A

HDL

129
Q

in cases wherein the high levels of VLDL in the plasma will form precipitates that are difficult to settle to the bottom of the tube despite the efforts to do centrifugation, what is the next best thing to do?

A

ultrafiltration

130
Q

Liebermann-Burchard is a traditional method employed in the determination of presence of _________ in a substance/sample.

A

cholesterol

131
Q

Tangier’s disease is characterized by low levels of circulating ________.

A

HDL

132
Q

Which of the following part of the nephron is located in the cortex of the kidneys?

A

Glomerulus

133
Q

breakdown product of guanine

A

uric acid

134
Q

concentration is affected by the protein content of the diet

A

urea

135
Q

produced by bacterial metabolism in the lumen of the intestine

A

ammonia

136
Q

Which of the following is the function of the juxtamedullary nephron?

A

It concentrates or dilutes urine.

137
Q

It is a single layer of epithelial cells surrounding the glomerulus.

A

Bowman’s capsule

138
Q

Which of the following is the correct order of the flow of renal blood?

A

Afferent Arteriole - Glomerulus - Efferent Arteriole - Peritubular Capillaries

139
Q

Which of the following can pass through the glomerulus?

a. White blood cells
b. Microglobulin
c. Chylomicrons
d. Bicarbonate

A

Bicarbonate

140
Q

Which of the following enzymes is deficient that would lead to having a severe combined immunodeficiency?

a. Adenosine Decarboxylase
b. Xanthine Oxidase
c. HGPRT
d. Adenosine Deaminase

A

Adenosine Deaminase

141
Q

Beta-2 Microglobulin

A

Glomerular filtration test

142
Q

Para-aminohippurate test

A

Tubular secretion test

143
Q

Inulin clearance

A

Glomerular filtration test

144
Q

Mosenthal test

A

Tubular reabsorption test

145
Q

Cystatin C

A

Glomerular filtration test

146
Q

Stimulate red blood cell production

A

Erythropoietin

147
Q

Helps control blood pressure

A

Renin

148
Q

involve in calcium absorption

A

Vitamin D

149
Q

regulation of renal blood flow

A

Prostaglandins

150
Q

Which of the following parts of the nephron is impermeable to water?

A

Ascending loop of henle

151
Q

Which of the following is formed in the mitochondria of the hepatocytes and will start the urea cycle in the cytoplasm?

A

Citrulline

152
Q

This is referred to as the amount of blood filtered per minute in the glomerulus.

A

Glomerular filtration rate

153
Q

Which of the following amino acids is required in the synthesis of creatine?

A

Methionine, Glycine, and Arginine

154
Q

Where can one isolate the antigen of the Hepatitis A virus?

A

whole blood

155
Q

All of the following will present with elevated values in cases of malaria and autoimmune hemolytic anemia EXCEPT for:

a. serum indirect bilirubin
b. serum total bilirubin
c. urine bilirubin
d. urine urobilinogen

A

urine bilirubin

156
Q

If a physician wants to know if his patient had a relapse in drinking alcohol after months of rehabilitation program, he should have the patient’s blood tested for which of the following analytes?

a. 5 nucleotidase
b. AST
c. CK
d. GGT
e. ALT

A

GGT

157
Q

Which syndrome is caused by an absence or profoundly decreased level of the enzyme UDP-glucuronosyltransferase due to a genetic defect?

A

Crigler Najjar type 1

158
Q

What chemical is added to the structure of bilirubin during the process of conjugation?

A

glucoronic acid

159
Q

Which of the following structures is NOT part of the portal triad of the liver?

a. hepatic artery
b. portal vein
c. hepatic vein
d. bile duct

A

c. hepatic vein

160
Q

Urine bilirubin remains normal or unaffected in cases of:

a. cholangiocarcinoma
b. Rotor syndrome
c. hemolytic disease of the newborn
d. severe Clonorchis/Opisthorchis infection

A

hemolytic disease of the newborn

161
Q

Which of the following enzymes facilitates the transfer of amino group to alpha-ketoglutarate with corresponding production of oxaloacetic acid and glutarate

a. SGOT
b. ALP
c. GGT

A

SGOT

162
Q

Once engulfed by splenic macrophages, red cells are broken down. Hemoglobin is split into ____ and globin.

A

heme

163
Q

Hemochromatosis is the deposition of ____ into the liver causing tissue injury.

A

iron

164
Q

What is added into the Ehrlich test for urine urobilinogen testing to prevent the oxidation of urobilinogen into the urobilin?

A

ascorbic acid

165
Q

What chemical is added into the feces to reconvert urobilin to urobilinogen?

A

alkaline ferrous hydroxide

166
Q

Identify one amino acid with the metabolite that cause the dark pigmentation of the liver in Dubin Johnson.

A

tyrosine

167
Q

What serological marker is the first to appear in the serum of the patient?

A

surface antigen

168
Q

Skeletal muscle that separates the peritoneal cavity from the thoracic cavity?

A

diaphragm

169
Q

Which of the following lipoproteins are produced by the liver during fasting and starvation state to provide the body alternative source of energy?

A

VLDL

170
Q

Storage form of excess glucose in the liver cells or hepatocytes.

A

glycogen

171
Q

Chemical that is responsible for the normal brown color of the feces

A

urobilin

172
Q

Which of the diseases is associated with the mutation in the gene that encodes for the multidrug resistance associated protein 2?

A

Dubin-Johnson

173
Q

What blood vessel provides the liver with the higher amount of blood compared to its other blood supply?

A

portal vein

174
Q

A hepatic/classical lobule has what shape?

A

hexagon

175
Q

What drug is implicated in the cases of Reye’s syndrome?

A

aspirin

176
Q

This benign mass of the liver usually affects women who are taking estrogen-containing medications.

A

hepatic adenoma

177
Q

___________ is the term that refers to the yellowish discoloration of the skin, eyes and mucous membranes.

A

jaundice

178
Q

What do you call the macrophages of the liver?

A

Kupffer

179
Q

the portion in the liver that provides protection and is composed of dense irregular connective tissue.

A

capsule

180
Q

Enzyme responsible for the conversion of biliverdin to bilirubin

A

biliverdin reductase

181
Q

There are how many iron atom in one heme?

A

one

182
Q

Which of the following is classify under pre-hepatic jaundice?

a. bile duct obstruction
b. viral hepatitis
c. hemolytic anemia

A

hemolytic anemia

183
Q

Ammonia is detoxified in the liver to form what chemical?

A

urea

184
Q

____________ is a late-stage liver disease in which healthy liver tissue is replaced with scar tissue and the liver is permanently damage

A

cirrhosis

185
Q

Which of the following is NOT tissue source of ALP?

a. prostate gland
b. bone
c. liver
d. intestine
e. placenta

A

prostate gland

186
Q

Bicarbonate-Carbonic Acid Buffer System is the most important intracellular buffer system in the body.
True or False

A

False

187
Q

Patient Z is continuously vomiting resulting in excessive loss of acid in the body. This can be described as:

A

alkalosis

188
Q

Hydrogen ions combine with monohydrogen phosphate or ____________ for it to be excreted in the urine. Do not use chemical symbols or abbreviations.

A

ammonia

189
Q

The hydrogen concentration of the blood of patient XX is 70 nmol/L. This is described as:

a. alkalemia
b. acidemia
c. alkalosis
e. acidosis

A

acidemia

190
Q

Substance A = Has a pK of 3.5

Substance B = Complete dissociation of the substance; yields hydroxyl ions

Substance C = Has a pK of 8.5

Substance D = Complete dissociation of the substance; yields hydronium ions

Which of the substances above is a weak acid?

A

A

191
Q

Obstruction in the airways will increase:

A

pCO2

192
Q

The ratio 20:1 refers to the ratio of bicarbonate is to ___________ in the blood.

A

Carbonic Acid

193
Q

Sodium hydroxide is a proton acceptor.

A

True

194
Q

What body part is said to be the main site of reabsorption of bicarbonate? Give the specific part, not the organ. Do not abbreviate.

A

proximal convoluted tubule

195
Q

A teenage girl went to a BTS concert even if it is held under the sun. Afterward, she began hyperventilating. What is the most probable acid-base disorder that she is experiencing?

a. respiratory alkalosis
b. respiratory acidosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

A

respiratory alkalosis

196
Q

Mark, 40-year-old male, has been tested as having the BRCA1 mutation. Which of the following is true?

a. He has an increased risk for breast cancer.
b. He has increased risk for colon cancer
c. He has no increased risk for breast cancer because he is male.
d. All of the statements are false

A

He has an increased risk for breast cancer.

197
Q

Which of the following can result to increased CA 19-9?

1 - Pancreatic adenocarcinoma

2 - Gastric cancer due to H. pylori infection

3 - Colorectal carcinoma

A

1, 2, and 3

198
Q

Give a hormone released by the neurohypophysis

A

Oxytocin, Vasopressin

199
Q

CEA can be elevated in the following conditions EXCEPT?

a. All can cause increased CEA
b. Chronic liver disease
c. Colorectal carcinoma
d. Sigmoid cancer
e. Smokers

A

a. All can cause increased CEA

200
Q

Which of the following statements is NOT true about PSA?

a. It is absent in young males without enlargement of the prostate
b. It is specifically produced by the prostate gland
c. It regulates the viscosity of the semen and facilitates fertilization of the ovum
d. All statements are true

A

It is absent in young males without enlargement of the prostate

201
Q

Which of the following confers a poorer prognosis for breast cancers?

1 - ER positive

2 - PR positive

3 - Her2/neu positive

4 - Responsive to hormonal therapy

A

3 only

202
Q

A breast cancer is small, well-encapsulated, and noninvasive. You decided to do a resection of the tumor. Two weeks after surgery, there was no decrease in the CA 15-3 of the patient. Which of the following is true?

A

The breast cancer is most likely malignant.

203
Q

Which statement is FALSE about BJP?

a. It consists of free serum heavy chain epitopes
b. It is increased in multiple myelomas
c. It is produced by plasma cells which are activated B cells
d. All of the statements are true

A

It consists of free serum heavy chain epitopes

204
Q

Germ cell tumors of the testes can possibly present with high levels of the following tumor markers, EXCEPT?

a. All are possible
b. ALP
c. HCG
d. AFP

A

a. All are possible

205
Q

PSA can be used in the following situations:

1 - testing asymptomatic individuals for prostate cancer

2 - monitoring the effectiveness of prostate resection surgery

3 - testing for recurrence of prostate cancer

A

1, 2 and 3

206
Q

EGFR is an oncogene. RB is a tumor-suppressor gene.

Which of the following changes result in the progression of cancer?

1 - Deletion of RB

2 - Gain-of-function of RB

3 - Activation of EGFR

4 - Suppression of EGFR

A

1 and 3

207
Q

IHC revealed that a breast tumor is ER/PR positive and Her2/neu negative. Which of the following is true?

A

Lowering estrogen with treatment can be effective

208
Q

Bea, 20-year-old female, went to the physician because she hasn’t had her period for about 7 months (knowing she has a regular menstrual cycle) and reported also milk coming out of her nipples. Which of the following is increased?

A

Prolactin

209
Q 
HCG is increased in the following conditions EXCEPT?
A. Pregnancy
B. Molar pregnancy
C. All can cause increased HCG
D. Seminoma mixed with a choricarcinoma
A

All can cause increased HCG

210
Q

Which of the following tumor markers is tissue and cancer specific?

a. None of the choices
b. PSA
c. AFP
d. HCG

A

None of the choices.. because there is no tumor markers and cancer specific

211
Q

C-peptide is an adjunct to the diagnosis of tumors arising in what organ?

A

Pancreas

212
Q

A 35-year-old female patient presents with thickening of the lips, enlargement of the parotid gland, and enlargement of the base of the nose. She is noted to have a tumor. Which of the following is true about her condition?

a. Neither
b. Both
c. The tumor marker is produced by the posterior pituitary
d. The patient has gigantism

A

Neither

213
Q

Which of the following gives the poorest prognosis for a breast tumor?

a. Presence of tumor cells in the femur
b. Invasion into the blood vessels
c. Presence of tumor cells in the axillary lymph nodes
d. Invasion of cells into subcutaneous tissues
e. All of these cannot confer a better/poorer prognosis

A

Presence of tumor cells in the femur

214
Q

Stephanie, a 65-year-old female, has an increased ALP level. Which of the following is NOT a possible source of her increased ALP?

a. Placenta
b. Liver
c. Bone
d. All are possible causes

A

a. Placenta

215
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about SIADH?

a. All statements are true
b. It causes increased water reabsorption in the kidney
c. It is caused by an increase in ADH
d. It comes from a posterior pituitary tumor
e. All statements are false

A

All statements are true

Clinical Chemistry (2 decks)

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