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Laboratory Flashcards

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1
Q

Polystyrene plastic wares can be autoclaved because it is rigid and can withstand the high temperature and pressure.
True or False

A

False

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2
Q

True or False: Polystyrenes are not resistant to C2H5OH.

A

True

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3
Q

True or False: Polystyrenes are resistant to CH4.

A

False

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4
Q

True or False: Plastic wares are preferred when testing Pb.

A

True

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5
Q

True or False: All glasswares are preferred for procedures that require heating.

A

False

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6
Q

Which of the following statements are correct?

i. Class A glasswares have twice the tolerance limits of Class B.
ii. Class B glasswares are often found in student laboratories.
iii. Class B glasswares are preferred for clinical laboratory applications.
iv. Class A glasswares are often found in student laboratories.
v. Both Class A or Class B glasswares appear identical

A

Only statements ii & v are correct.

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7
Q

True or False: Polyethylene is not suitable when processing picric acid because it tends to release more acid and may affect the chemical reaction.

A

False

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8
Q

True or False: Polycarbonate is not chemically-resistant but can be autoclaved.

A

True

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9
Q

True or False: Almost chemically-inert, Teflon is chemical resistant and is suitable for work temperature of -270oC to 255oC.

A

True

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10
Q

Aluminosilicate

A

Corex

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11
Q

Low Actinic

A

Amber-colored

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12
Q

Borosilicate

A

Kimax

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13
Q

Flint Glass

A

Soda Lime

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14
Q

Acid & Alkali Resistant

A

Vycor

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15
Q

Used for titration

A

Buret

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16
Q

Semi-accurate

A

Graduated Cylinder

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17
Q

Used to transfer measured volumes of liquid

A

Pipet

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18
Q

Used for preparation of standard solution

A

Volumetric Flask

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19
Q

Transfer/Volumetric Pipets

A

Ostwald-Folin

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20
Q

Transfer/Volumetric Pipets

A

Pasteur

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21
Q

Transfer/Volumetric Pipets

A

Volumetric

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22
Q

Measuring/Graduated Pipets

A

Micropipet

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23
Q

Measuring/Graduated Pipets

A

Mohr

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24
Q

Measuring/Graduated Pipets

A

Serologic

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25
Q

Statement 1: Anode is positively charged.

Statement 2: Anions is also positively charged

A

The first statements is TRUE but the second statement is FALSE

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26
Q

This component of Electrophoresis carries applied current in an electrophoretic process.

A

Buffer

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27
Q

Which of the following statements about Agarose Gel is FALSE?

1-It does not bind protein

2-It is extracted from seaweed

3-It requires small amounts of sample

4-It separates serum proteins into 20 or more fractions

A

4 only

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28
Q

In Electrophoresis, what will happen to a particle without a net charge?

A

Does not migrate

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29
Q

Statement 1: Electrophoresis is mainly used for the separation of macromolecule carbohydrates and their isoenzymes

Statement 2: The separation process is based on the migration of charged particles through a medium under the influence of an electric field.

A

The first statement is FALSE but the second statement is TRUE

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30
Q

Statement 1: Tris- borate EDTA and Tris-acetate EDTA are used for Nucleic acid separation

Statement 2: These buffers offer high resolution and high buffering capacity.

A

The first statements is TRUE but the second statement is FALSE

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31
Q

In Agarose Gel Electrophoresis, Bromphenol Blue is a stain used to visualize______.

A

Protein

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32
Q

Where does the sample well located in an Electrophoresis setup?

A

Gel slab

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33
Q

Statement 1: Densitometer measures the absorbance of stain- concentration of the dye.

Statement 2: Stained zones can be quantified in a densitometer

A

Both statements are TRUE

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34
Q

Statement 1: In Electrochemistry, oxidation-reduction reaction happens

Statement 2: The Reduction reaction takes place in cathode.

A

Both statements are TRUE

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35
Q

Which of the following statement about Galvanic cell is FALSE?

1-It involves a chemical reaction to produce electrical energy

2-It converts chemical energy into electrical energy

3-It is a spontaneous electrochemical reaction

4-It utilizes electrical energy to facilitate a chemical reaction

A

4 only

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36
Q

Which of the following statement about Potentiometry is FALSE?

1-It measures an analyte concentration

2-It requires two electrodes

3- It uses a Reference electrode as the measuring electrode

4-It uses an Indicator electrode that has a stable and well-known electrode potential.

A

3 and 4

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37
Q

A pH meter is an example of?

A

An ion-selective electrode

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38
Q

Which of the following Electrochemical techniques measures the current flow produced by an oxidation-reduction reaction at a single applied potential?

A

Amperometry

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39
Q

Electrical impedance measure the change in_________.

A

Resistance

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40
Q

This analyzer can perform in batches but can only perform one test.

A

batch analyzer

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41
Q

During your duty in a tertiary laboratory, samples have been sent in the laboratory. Upon checking the samples, you discovered that the samples have been hemolyzed. What automated delivery has mostly caused damage to the specimen due to acceleration and deceleration force?

A

pneumatic tube

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42
Q

Determine if the following statements are TRUE or FALSE.

Statement 1: Pneumatic tubes are associated with acceleration and deceleration force that causes hemolysis of samples.

Statement 2: Mobile robots can carry multiple samples and are cost-effective.

A

Both statements are TRUE

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43
Q

As a junior medical technologist working in a government hospital, your chief med tech is planning for total laboratory automation. He has tasked you and your co-workers to discuss the things that should the laboratory consider. Choose three things you should be considering for total laboratory automation.

a. increase productivity and quality of tests
b. turnaround time is very high
c. there are no staff shortages
d. disregarding the laboratory workspace
e. skills of the medical technologist deteriorate

A

a. increase productivity and quality of tests
b. turnaround time is very high
e. skills of the medical technologist deteriorate

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44
Q

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding continuous flow analyer?

Statement A: An oil heating bath is used to promote color development.

Statement B: It has the capability of running multiple tests one sample at a time or multiple samples one test at a time.

A

Statement 1 is true while statement 2 is false.

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45
Q

Which part in preanalytic and postanalytic processing greatly reduces human errors?

a. mixing and incubation
b. automated specimen processing
c. automated specimen delivery
d. postanalytic processing

A

automated specimen processing

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46
Q

Which part in preanalytic and postanalytic processing includes refrigerating samples for storage and automatic disposal of samples?

a. preanalytic processing
b. automated specimen delivery
c. real-time monitoring
d. postanalytic processing

A

d. postanalytic processing

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47
Q

Which of the following statement is not true regarding total laboratory automation?

a. multiple analyzers are coupled to a specimen management and transportation system
b. can perform a limited variety of modules
c. an also can perform preanalytic and postanalytic units
d. a process control software coordinates the activities of the various automation modules

A

b. can perform a limited variety of modules

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48
Q

Which of the following statements describes Open Reagent System?

a. none of the choices
b. cannot use multiple reagents
c. can accommodate reagents from a third party
d. reagents cost more

A

c. can accommodate reagents from a third party

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49
Q

In the core components of chemistry analyzer, which core includes processing of data and data control?

a. sampling
b. mixing and incubation
c. data processing
d. real-time monitoring

A

c. data processing

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50
Q

In the core components of chemistry analyzer, which clearly describes real-time monitoring?

a. controls electromechanical processes
b. can use absorption or reflectance spectroscopy
c. continuously analyze instrument subsystems
d. allows the operator to modify the test parameters

A

c. continuously analyze instrument subsystems

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51
Q

In the core components of chemistry analyzer, which core can use absorption or reflectance spectroscopy?

a. detection
b. data processing
c. sampling
d. mixing and incubation

A

a. detection

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52
Q

Which of the following statements describes Closed Reagent System?

a. none of the choices
b. allows the operator to modify the test parameters
c. use only the manufacturer’s reagent
d. greater flexibility

A

c. use only the manufacturer’s reagent

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53
Q

True or False

10x rule indicates a systematic error.

A

True

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54
Q

Which of the following statements is/are TRUE regarding Westgard multirule system? Multiple answers can be selected. Choose three from the following.

a. use when at least 2 levels of control are run with the examination run
b. a combination of decision criteria or rules to assess if a system is in-control
c. multirule QC rules to help analyze whether or not an analytical run is in-control or out-of-control
d. you can apply Westgard multirule system eventhough you only have one control

A

a. use when at least 2 levels of control are run with the examination run
b. a combination of decision criteria or rules to assess if a system is in-control
c. multirule QC rules to help analyze whether or not an analytical run is in-control or out-of-control

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55
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about a TREND in a quality control?

a. caused by deterioration of the instrument light source
b. indicates a gradual loss of reliability in the test system
c. caused by gradual deterioration of control materials
d. is defined as abrupt changes in the control values

A

d. is defined as abrupt changes in the control values

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56
Q

If QC is out of control, which of the following should you do as a medical technologist? Choose two from the following.

a. repeat testing on patient samples and controls after correction
b. report patient results
c. run the samples of patients
d. identify and correct problem

A

a. repeat testing on patient samples and controls after correction
d. identify and correct problem

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57
Q

Which of the factors does not cause a SHIFT in quality control?

a. Gradual accumulation of debris on electrode surfaces
b. Change of reagent lot
c. Inaccurate calibration/recalibration
d. Sudden failure or change in the light source

A

a. Gradual accumulation of debris on electrode surfaces

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58
Q

Which of the following statements is/are the causes of systematic error? Choose two statements.

a. Change in test operator
b. Incorrect handling of control product
c. Inadequately mixed reagents
d. Inappropriate Storage of control

A

a. Change in test operator

b. Incorrect handling of control product

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59
Q

Which of the following statements are the causes of random error? Choose two statements.

a. Inadequate storage of reagent or calibrators
b. Incorrect reconstitution of the control product
c. Incorrect handling of control product
d. Individual operator variation in pipetting

A

b. Incorrect reconstitution of the control product

d. Individual operator variation in pipetting

60
Q

Select the enzyme that is most specific for β-D-glucose.

a. Phosphohexisomerase
b. Glucose oxidase
c. Hexokinase
d. G6PD

A

b. Glucose oxidase

61
Q

This method is considered more accurate than the glucose oxidase methods because the coupling reaction using glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase is highly specific.

a. Hexokinase
b. Glucose dehydrogenase
c. Trinder glucose oxidase
d. Polarography

A

a. Hexokinase

62
Q

Which of the following results falls within the diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus?

a. Fasting plasma glucose of 160 mg/dl
b. Two-hour plasma glucose reading of 190 mg/dl following 75g oral glucose challenge
c. Fasting blood sugar value of 5.0 mmol/L
d. Random plasma glucose of 250 mg/dl and presence of symptoms

A

d. Random plasma glucose of 250 mg/dl and presence of symptoms

63
Q

Select the appropriate reference range for fasting blood glucose based on the book of Bishop.

a. 65-99 mg/dL
b. 60-140 mg/dL
c. 75-150 mg/dL

A

a. 65-99 mg/dL

64
Q

Which of the following is the reference method for measuring serum glucose?

A

Hexokinase

65
Q

Select the coupling enzyme used in the hexokinase method for glucose.

a. Glucose dehydrogenase
b. Peroxidase
c. Glucose-6-phosphatase
d. G6PD

A

d. G6PD

66
Q

Which glucose method is subject to falsely low results caused by ascorbate?

a. Glucose dehydrogenase
b. Trinder glucose oxidase
c. Hexokinase

A

b. Trinder glucose oxidase

67
Q

Which of the following is a potential source of error in the hexokinase method?

a. Hemolysis
b. Galactose
c. Sample collected in fluoride

A

a. Hemolysis

68
Q

In addition to polarography, what other electrochemical method can be used to measure glucose in plasma?

A

Amperometry

69
Q

The physician determined that the patient needed an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to assist in diagnosis. The patient had blood drawn for the OGTT, and the following serum glucose results were obtained. These results are indicative of what state?

Fasting serum glucose: 124 mg/dL
Oral Glucose Tolerance Test: 227 mg/dL

a. Diabetes Mellitus
b. Hyperinsulinism
c. Pre-diabetes
d. Normal

A

Diabetes Mellitus

70
Q

For standardize 2-hour Postprandial Glucose determination, the collection of blood sample must be:

a. 2 hours after glucose solution intake
b. 2 hours before glucose solution intake

A

a. 2 hours after glucose solution intake

71
Q

A ketone testing that reacts with acetoacetic acid in an alkaline pH to form a purple color

a. Sodium Nitroprusside Test
b. Gerhardt’s Method
c. Benedict’s test

A

a. Sodium Nitroprusside Test

72
Q

Describe the patient using the following values:
FBS = 97 mg/dL
2-hour OGTT = 135 mg/dL
Random Blood Glucose = 130 mg/dL

a. The patient has DM and needs immediate attention and maintenance
b. The patient is normal and has no problems with his glucose levels

A

b. The patient is normal and has no problems with his glucose levels

73
Q

The sealed reagents for glucose are stable up to the expiry date stated on the label, when stored at what temperature?

A

2-8 degree Celsius

74
Q

Glucose load for routine OGTT:

A

75 grams

75
Q

What is the preferred anticoagulant that retards certain kinds of oxidative and enzymatic alterations occurring in the lipoprotein during storage?

A

EDTA

76
Q

(1) In the presence of an anticoagulant, protein aggregation cannot occur in plasma that is stored in the refrigerator for a few days or frozen for longer periods.
(2) Protein aggregation occurs less frequently in serum.

A

Only the second statement is true.

77
Q

What are the different steps in enzymatic method utilized in Triglyceride determination?

(1) Glycerophosphate is oxidized to dihydroxyacetone and H2O2 in a glycerophosphate oxidase–catalyzed reaction.
(2) Glycerophosphate can be measured in a reduced form of nicotinamide-adenine dinucleotide (NADH)-producing reaction.
(3) Measures the ADP produced in reaction.

A

1, 2, 3

78
Q

(1) The ideal fasting time for lipid profile is 12 hours.

(2) Triglyceride determination can be measured in non-fasting individuals.

A

Only the first statement is true.

79
Q

Which is incorrect about the 3-step procedure in HDL-cholesterol assay?

a. Ultracentrifugation – to remove TAG
b. Analysis of supernatant cholesterol using Abell-Kendall Assay
c. Heparin Manganese Precipitation – to remove LDL
d. None of the choices

A

a. Ultracentrifugation – to remove TAG

80
Q

(1) When a standing patient reclines, it increases of as much as 10% in the concentrations of TC, LDL-C, and HDL-C.
(2) While prolonged venous occlusion it decreases Cholesterol by 10-15%.

A

Both statements are not true.

81
Q

formation of green color

A

Liebermann-Burchard’s test

82
Q

formation of red color

A

Salkowski reaction

83
Q

formation of bluish-green color

A

Abell-Kendall

84
Q

Using the Cholesterol liquicolor, CHOD-PAP-Method, calculate the Cholesterol concentration in Conventional unit using the following absorbances:

Absorbance sample = 0.5400 Absorbance std = 0.1555

Factors: 200 (mg/dl); 5.17 (mmol/L)

A

694.53

85
Q

What are the different specimens that can be used in the above methodology (Cholesterol liquicolor, CHOD-PAP-Method)?

(1) Serum
(2) Heparinized plasma
(3) Citrated plasma

A

1, 2

86
Q

Calculate the LDL concentration using Friedewald Equation.

TAG – 90 mg/dl

HDL – 30 mg/dl

TC – 180 mg/dl

A

formula:
“conventional unit”
LDL= TC-HDL-(TAG/5) [mg/dL]

“SI unit”
LDL= TC-HDL-(TAG/2.175) [mmol/L]

= 132 mg/dL

87
Q

What is the VLDL-estimate in conventional unit based on the values above?

A

18 mg/dL

88
Q

Which of the following reagents will aid in the digestion of proteins in the Kjeldahl method by speeding the reaction to improve the efficiency of the digestion?

a. H3BO3
b. H2SO4
c. K2SO4
d. CuSO4

A

d. CuSO4

89
Q
  1. Determine if the statements are TRUE or FALSE.

Statement 1: Abnormal increase of total CSF Proteins is due to meningitis.

Statement 2: Decreased CSF albumin-serum albumin ratio is an indication of hyperthyroidism

A

Both statements are TRUE.

90
Q

Determine if the statements are TRUE or FALSE.

Statement 1: Amino acids are molecules containing at least one amino group and one carboxyl group bonded to the alpha-carbon.

Statement 2: They are the basic unit of proteins.

A

Both statements are TRUE

91
Q

Which component of the biuret reagent provides an alkaline medium so that the reaction can take place?

A

Potassium hydroxide

92
Q

In Thin layer chromatography. What is the basis of identifying amino acids?

1-the ratio of the distance traveled by the amino acid to time

2-the ratio of the distance traveled by the solvent to time

3-the ratio of the distance traveled by the amino acid to the distance traveled by the eluent

4-the value of the retention factor

A

3 and 4

93
Q

Which of the following statements is/are FALSE about the Kjeldahl method in protein quantification?

1 – It is based on the concentration of the nitrogen component of proteins.

2 – Serum proteins are precipitated with tungstic acid

3 – Cupric sulfate increases the boiling point to speed the reaction in the digestion process.

4 – Ammonium borate is formed during the titration of ammonium bisulfate with HCl.

A

3 and 4

94
Q

Which of the following can cause interferences in the dye-binding methods of albumin quantitation using 2,4’-hydroxyazobenzene-benzoic acid (HABA)?

1 – hemoglobin

2 – salicylates

3 – bilirubin

4 – lipoproteins

A

2 and 3

95
Q

Determine if the statements are TRUE or FALSE.

Statement 1: In the determination of albumin Bromocresol green binds with albumin in citrate buffer forming a colored complex.

Statement 2: The absorbance of the product is proportional to the globulin concentration.

A

The first statement is TRUE but the second statement is FALSE.

96
Q

Which of the following assay is a diagnostic tool to test infants for phenylketonuria a few days after birth?

A

Guthrie test

97
Q

Determine if the statements are TRUE or FALSE.

Statement 1: A serum sample is a specimen most often used in the determination of total protein.

Statement 2: Fasting is required in the collection of the specimen.

A

The first statement is TRUE but the second statement is FALSE.

98
Q

Determine if the statements are TRUE or FALSE.

Statement 1: Total globulin is equivalent to the subtraction of the albumin from the total protein.

Statement 2: Total protein is equivalent to the sum of albumin and globulin.

A

Both statements are TRUE.

99
Q

Determine if the statements are TRUE or FALSE.

Statement 1: A hemolyzed serum sample can falsely elevate the total protein value.

Statement 2: A Lipemic sample interferes with total protein assay.

A

Both statements are TRUE.

100
Q

Which of the following are forms of immunochemical methods that are utilized in protein measurement?

1-Immunonephelometry

2-Electrophoresis

3-RID

4-Immunoturbidimetry

A

1, 2, 3 and 4

101
Q

Express 30 mg/dL of urea nitrogen as urea.

A

64 mg/dl

102
Q

In the urea method, the enzymatic action of urease is inhibited when blood for analysis is drawn in a tube containing what anticoagulant?

A

Sodium fluoride

103
Q

In the diacetyl method, what does diacetyl react with to form a yellow product?

A

Urea

104
Q

Which of the following methods utilizes urease and glutamate dehydrogenase for the quantification of serum urea?

a. Coupled enzymatic
b. Conductimetric
c. Berthelot

A

Coupled enzymatic

105
Q

In the Berthelot reaction, what contaminant will cause the urea level to be falsely elevated?

A

Ammonia

106
Q

Which of the following enzymes allows creatinine to be measured by coupling the creatininase reaction to the peroxidase reaction?

a. Pyruvate kinase
b. Sarcosine oxidase
c. Creatinine kinase

A

Sarcosine oxidase

107
Q

Select the primary agent used in Jaffe method for creatinine.

a. Saturated picric acid and NaOH
b. Alkaline copper II sulfate
c. Phosphotungstic acid

A

Saturated picric acid and NaOH

108
Q

The solution for creatinine test is measured at the wavelength of 560nm.

True or False

A

False

109
Q

The reference standard method for creatinine determination is the coupling enzymatic method.

True or False

A

False

110
Q

A fasting sample is required for a creatinine test.

True or False

A

False

111
Q

In the reaction involving the enzyme uricase as shown below:

Uric acid + H2O +O2 → _________ + CO2 + H2O2. Identify what is missing in the reaction provided by the underlined space.

A

Allantoin

112
Q

This analytic method is based on the oxidation of uric acid in PFF, with subsequent reduction of phosphotungstic acid to tungsten blue. (do not repeat the word method)

A

Caraway

113
Q

Salicylates can cause a false increase result for the uric acid.
True or False

A

True

114
Q

In the enzymatic colorimetric method of uric acid test, the generated hydrogen peroxide reacts with 4-aminophenazone/ESPT to ________ and water. What do you call this colored product? (one word only)

A

quinoneimine

115
Q

Uric acid is derived from the:

a. Catabolism of purines
b. Oxidation of purines
c. Oxidation of pyrimidines

A

Catabolism of purines

116
Q

What chemical is the color of the serum compared to when measuring the icteric index? Give only the chemical and DO NOT include the concentration.

A

POTASSIUM DICHROMATE

117
Q

In total and direct bilirubin testing using the package insert, incubation is done at room temperature for 10-30 minutes.

True or False

A

False

118
Q

The accelerator used in the Jendrassik-Grof method is caffeine-_______-acetate. No chemical symbols and abbreviations.

A

BENZOATE or SODIUM BENZOATE

119
Q

Based on the package insert, diazotized sulfanilic acid is made by reacting sulfanilic acid with __________. Give only the name of the chemical. No chemical symbols.

A

SODIUM NITRITE

120
Q

After how many minutes will the second collection be done in MacDonald Method?

a. 45
b. 30
c. 5
d. None of the choices

A

d. None of the choices

121
Q

Based on the package insert, both TNR and DBR contains hydrochloric acid.
True or False

A

True

122
Q

What substance destroys the excess diazo reagent in the Jendrassik-Grof method?

A

ASCORBIC ACID

123
Q

Based on the package insert, the wavelength that will be used for total and direct bilirubin testing is _________ nanometers. Give only the number.

A

546

124
Q

When doing the Malloy-Evelyn method, the wavelength used in measuring the azobilirubin is ________ nanometers.

A

560

125
Q

In Berthelot’s reaction, a blue product is formed when ammonia, phenol, and hypochlorite undergoes a reaction with the presence of what chemical? No chemical symbols.

A

SODIUM NITROPRUSSIDE

126
Q

Based on the package insert, what is the only anticoagulant that can be used to acquire plasma for bilirubin determination?

A

HEPARIN

127
Q

What method is considered to be a candidate for being a standard reference method for bilirubin testing?

A

Modified Jendrassik-Grof method

128
Q

What is also known as the Vitamin K response test? Give the complete name of the test.

A

PROTHROMBIN TIME

129
Q

A medical technologist is running a sample for bilirubin determination using the package insert discussed. The patient has a hepatocellular injury. The results are shown below. Is there any problem with the results?

Total Bilirubin = 51.3 umol/L
Indirect Bilirubin = 17.1 umol/L
Conjugated Bilirubin = 34.2 umol/L

a. Yes, subtracting the unconjugated bilirubin from the total bilirubin doesn’t result to the value of direct bilirubin.
b. Yes, adding the indirect and direct bilirubin doesn’t sum up to the total bilirubin.
c. Yes, subtracting the conjugated bilirubin from the total bilirubin doesn’t result to the value of indirect bilirubin.
d. No, the results are valid.

A

d. No, the results are valid.

130
Q

Determine if the statements are TRUE or FALSE.

Statement 1: Copper deficiency causes Menkes kinky hair syndrome .

Statement 2: Molybdenum deficiency causes Acrodermatitis enteropathica.

A

Only the first statement is TRUE.

131
Q

All of the following are non-essential trace elements, EXCEPT:

a. mercury
b. aluminum
c. silver
d. molybdenum

A

d. molybdenum

132
Q

Which of the following is the recommended evacuated tube for Trace elements?

a. light green top or green top
b. navy blue top or royal blue top
c. gray top

A

b. navy blue top or royal blue top

133
Q

The ICP-MS measures:

A

mass-to-charge ratio

134
Q

What Trace element is present in Vitamin B12?

A

COBALT

135
Q

30-year old jeepney driver has stratified squamous epithelium lining his bronchi. Laboratory results show increased serum copper and normal urine copper. Which of the following is most likely the condition of the patient?

a. Wilson’s disease
b. Heavy smoking
c. Acute copper toxicity

A

Heavy smoking

136
Q

Flat enamel and yellow discoloration of the teeth is caused by:

A

Fluorine excess

137
Q

What is the most abundant trace element in the human body

A

IRON

138
Q

Determine if the statements are TRUE or FALSE.

Statement 1: Total Iron content refers to the amount of iron that could be bound if transferrin and other minor iron-binding proteins are saturated.

Statement 2: Transferrin saturation is the ratio of serum iron to TIBC.

A

Only the second statement is TRUE.

139
Q

A 40-year old patient presents with Jaundice, upper right abdominal pain, and vomiting. When the iron status shows increased serum iron, transferrin, ferritin, percent saturation, and TIBC. Which of the following is most likely the patient’s disease?

a. Hemochromatosis
b. Acute liver disease
c. Iron overdose
d. Chronic infection

A

Acute liver disease

140
Q

Determine if the statements are TRUE or FALSE.

Statement 1: Manganese is retained at a higher level in infants.

Statement 2: Deficiency of this trace element may result to increased blood clotting function.

A

Only the first statement is TRUE.

141
Q

Determine if the statements are TRUE or FALSE.

Statement 1: Molybdenum excess induces copper toxicity.

Statement 2: Excess of this trace element may result to polycythemia.

A

Both statements are FALSE.

142
Q

Selenium protects the body against free radical because it is a cofactor/constituent of:

A

Glutathione peroxidase

143
Q

Kashin-beck disease occurs when ____ is deficient.

A

SELENIUM

144
Q

Which of the following techniques is the method of choice for clinical testing of zinc in body fluids?

a. Flame Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy
b. Inductively-coupled plasma mass spectrometry
c. Electrophoresis

A

Flame Atomic Absorption Spectroscopy

145
Q

Menkes’ syndrome is associated with the deficiency of Zinc. True or False.

A

False

Clinical Chemistry (2 decks)

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