Lecture 1 - CVS and Heart Pathologies Flashcards

1
Q

what are the 5 main CVD’s?

A
congenital HD
ischemic vascular disease
HTN - related disease
inflammatory disease (infection/autoimmune)
metabolic disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

which week of pregnancy is the heart completely formed and functional?

A

10th week of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are 4 causes of congenital heart disease?

A

viral infections (rubella)
toxins (FAS)
chromosomal abnormalities (Down’s syndrome)
x-ray exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the best known cause for congenital heart defects?

A

rubella virus - during organogenesis (first trimester)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

heart defects are often associated with that chromosomal abnormality?

A

Down’s - trisomy 21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what are two examples of congenital heart defects?

A

isolated, simple septal defect (atrial and ventricular septal defects)
complex heart defect - tetralogy of fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is the most common form a congenital heart disease?

A

interatrial and interventricular septal defects (30-40%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

septal defects may occur as isolated defects (most common) or may be part of_____

A

complex malformation syndromes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

interatrial septal defects may occur due to what 2 events?

A

incomplete formation of septum

incomplete closure of foramen ovale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

atrial septal defects are recognized clinically by a murmur caused by….

A

passage of blood from the left to right atrium during systole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is more common interatrial or interventricular septal defects?

A

interventricular (occurs most often in uppermost part of the septum - most present with no sx)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what causes symptoms from a interventricular septal defect?

A

mix of oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

with interventricular septal defects, what causes right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary hypertension?

A

left to right shunt (=dyspnea)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the result of a right to left shunt?

A

de-oxygenated blood enters systemic circulation causing cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does overriding the aorta mean in relation to tetralogy of Fallot?

A

aorta is positioned more to the right, directly over a ventricular septal defect instead of LV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the 4 components of tetralogy of fallot?

A

overriding aorta
pulmonary stenosis
RV hypertrophy
ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

define ‘atheromas’

A

fatty deposit in inner lining (intima) of an artery - central part is soft, covered by fibrous tissue

18
Q

T or F: atheromas are highly thrombogenic?

A

True

19
Q

what are 2 components of a sclerotic aorta that can lead to hypertension and in turn the formation of an aneurysm?

A

cannot adapt to changes in BP (decreased elasticity)

cannot expand during systole

20
Q

what are 3 complications of aortic aneurysms, which are often clinically silent?

A

may rupture=sudden death
emboli
pressure on neighboring organs/tissues

21
Q

what is a common cause of PVD?

A

atherosclerosis involving extremities and major abdominal organs - kidneys and intestines

22
Q

what happens to the kidneys if aortic atherosclerosis spreads into renal arteries?

A

reduces kidneys functional capacity - increases release of renin and reduces excretion of sodium which increases BP - HTN will permanently damage kidneys

23
Q

PVD of the intestines most common form is chronic ischemia of intestinal vessels which may cause what?

A

constipation, poor digestion, malabsorption and food intolerance

24
Q

define ‘coronary heart disease’

A

pathologic condition of myocardium caused by lack of oxygen (atherosclerosis of coronary arteries is the most important factor)

25
Q

define ‘myocardial infarction’

A

sudden (acute) occlusion of a coronary artery

26
Q

what coronary artery’s sudden occlusion is the most common in terms of an MI?

A

descending branch of left coronary artery (50%)
(R coronary 30-40%)
(left circumflex 15-20%)

27
Q

progressive ischemia of the heart leads to what?

A

congestive heart failure

28
Q

what are the 3 most important clinical presentations of coronary heart disease?

A

congestive heart failure
angina pectoris
MI

29
Q

what are 2 physiologic characteristics of congestive heart failure?

A

heart is unable to pump enough blood

back pressure from stagnant blood impedes venous return to heart

30
Q

right ventricular failure causes what?

A

congestion of peripheral organs and extremities (leads to hepatomegaly and pain in right hypochondriac region and ascites)

31
Q

left ventricular failure leads to what?

A

pulmonary congestion and edema (failure of LV to maintain normal output of blood)

32
Q

what is post infarction angina due to?

A

residual ischemia that lasts longer then 15 minutes

33
Q

what is prinzmetal’s-vasospastic angina?

A

unrelated to exertion, more common in women

34
Q

what is decubitus angina?

A

unrelated to exertion, not relieved by rest, reduced when sitting or standing, more common in women

35
Q

what may angina in women feel like?

A

inhaling cold air, weakness, lethargy

36
Q

what is sudden death mostly due to in terms of a MI?

A

a major arrhythmia (ventricular fibrilation) and subsequent heart failure or cardiac arrest

37
Q

define ‘prodromal’

A

period between the appearance of initial symptoms and the full development of condition

38
Q

what are 3 prodromal symptoms 2/3 of patients experience with an MI?

A

sudden, severe and progressive angina, partially relieved or not relieved by rest or nitroglycerine
SOB
fatigue and profuse sweating

39
Q

what is a highly specific serum enzyme level elevation related to MI?

A

troponin I or T in blood, 3-6 hours after occulsion

40
Q

what are 4 early complications of an MI?

A

arrhythmia (90%)
CHF (60%)
cardiogenic shock (12%)
heart-wall rupture (1%)

41
Q

what are 3 late complications of an MI?

A

CHF (70%)
arrhythmia (20%)
thromboembolism (10%)