Lecture 1 Flashcards

Unit 1

1
Q

what are the three goals of pre-operative evaluation

A
  1. ensure patient will tolerate anesthesia
  2. mitigate perioperative risk
  3. clinical examination
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2
Q

What percentage of a diagnosis can be correctly determined from a patient history alone?

A

56%

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3
Q

What constitutes a medical history exam?

A

Underlying condition requiring surgery, medical history/problems, previous surgeries/anesthetic history, anesthetic complications, ROS, current meds, allergies, tobacco/ETOH/illicit drug use, functional capacity

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4
Q

What 4 things are BMI used to calculate (per powerpoint slide)?

A

1 - estimate/calculate drug dosages
2 - determine fluid volume requirement
3 - calculate acceptable blood loss
4 - adequacy of urine output

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5
Q

What is important to establish from a focused physical exam?

A

The patients baseline (neuro, CV, respiratory etc) in all systems

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6
Q

What acronym is used for an emergent physical exam? In an emergency if you can only pick 2, which do you pick?

A

A - allergies
M - medication
P - PMH
L - last meal
E - events leading up to surgery

Emergency pick 2 = allergies and PMH

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7
Q

What accounts for almost half of perioperative mortalities?

A

Cardiovascular complications

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8
Q

What is a G6PD deficiency?

A

The body lacks that enzyme, which causes hemolytic anemia. RBCs break down faster than they are made in response to stress

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9
Q

What court case established informed consent? Outcome of the surgery?

A

Salgo v Leland Stanford Jr. University Board of Trustees. An aortogram left the pt paralyzed

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10
Q

What surgeries carry a high mortality risk (>5%)? Intermediate (1 - 5 %) or low (<1%)?

A

High = aortic and major vascular surgery
Intermediate = Intra-abdominal or intrathoracic surgery, carotid endarterectomy, head/neck surgery
Low = ambulatory, breast, endoscopic, cataract, skin, urologic, orthopedic

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11
Q

What MET (metabolic equivalent of task) score is equivalent to good functional capacity?

A

greater than 4

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12
Q

Define emergency, urgent and time-sensitive surgeries

A

Emergent = life or limb would be threatened if surgery did not proceed within 6 hours

Urgent = life or limb would be threatened if surgery did not proceed within 6 - 24 hours

Time-sensitive = delays exceeding 1 - 6 weeks would adversely affect patient outcomes

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13
Q

What are Meyer Saklad’s components to risk stratification for his ASA PS grading of operative risk?

A

1 - Pt’s physical state
2 - the surgical procedure
3 - the ability/skill of the surgeon
4 - attention to post-op care
5 - past experience of the anesthetist in similar circumstances

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14
Q

What are the six degrees of ASA physical status according to Meyer Saklad chart?

A

I: normal healthy patient
II: patient with mild systemic disease
III: patient with severe systemic disease
IV: severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life
V: patient not expected to survive without operation
VI: donor patient that is declared brain dead

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15
Q

Define: GA, IV/monitored sedation, Regional and Local anesthesia

A

GA = total LOC, ET or LMA, used in major surgeries

IV/Monitored = LOC ranges, drowsy to deep sleep. NC or face mask, requires vigilant observation

Regional = numbs a large part of the body using a local anesthetic (epidural or spinal), good for child birth or a hip replacement

Local = one-time injection that numbs a small area. Such as a biopsy

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16
Q

What agents most commonly have side effects in anesthesia?

A

Neuromuscular blockers, latex, antibiotics, chlorhexidine and opioids

17
Q

What is the number one drug anesthesia gives that patients have a true allergic reaction to?

A

Rocuronium

18
Q

What is the incidence of anaphylaxis involving anesthesia?

A

1 in 20,000

19
Q

What medications do you continue prior to surgery?

A

HTN meds, BBs, anti-depressants, anxiolytics, TCAs (get an EKG), thyroid meds, oral contraceptives (unless they are at high risk of thrombosis, then dc 4 weeks prior), eye drops, Gerd, opioids, anti-convulsants, asthma, corticosteroids, statins, ASA (if high grade ischemic disease or prior PCI) COX2 inhibitors and MAOIs (avoid demerol and ephedrine)

20
Q

What medications do you DC prior to surgery?

A

ASA, P2Y12 (plavix, prasugrel, ticlopidine), topical meds (dc day of) diuretics (except HCTZ), sildenafil, NSAIDs, Warfarin, post-menopausal HRT, non-insulin anti-diabetics (day of), short acting insulin (if insulin pump, keep it going), long acting insulin (type 1 = take 1/3 usual dose, type 2 = take none or up to half usual dose)

21
Q

Echinacea effects?

A

Activates immune system, may decrease effectiveness of immunosuppressants and allergy concerns. No data about need to DC prior to surgery

22
Q

Ephedra effects?

A

Increase HR/BP. Increase risk of stroke/tachycardia. Long term use can cause hemodynamic instability d/t decreased catecholamines. Stop 24 hours before

23
Q

Garlic/Ginseng/Ginger/Ginkgo/Green tea effects?

A

Antiplatelet effects. Increased risk for bleeding. No data for ginger. Stop garlic/ginseng/green tea 7 days before, stop ginkgo 36 hours

24
Q

Kava effects?

A

sedative, anxiolytic. Stop 24 hours before

25
Q

Saw Palmetto

A

May increase bleeding risk, no data on when to stop

26
Q

St Johns wort

A

Helps with depression. Linked with delayed emergence, stop 5 days before

27
Q

Valeria

A

Sedation, may increase anesthetic requirements. No data on when to stop

28
Q

What are the criteria in Mendelson syndrome that increase risk of aspiration?

A

greater than 25 ml in the stomach and a pH less than 2.5

29
Q

What are the risk factors for PONV via the Apfel score? Koivuranta score?

A

Apfel = Female, hx of PONV, non-smoking status, post-op opioids,

Koi = Female, hx of PONV, non-smoking status, Age less than 50, and duration of surgery

30
Q

Meds that can help prevent PONV?

A

Scopolamine (watch for dry mouth and takes a long time to work), Pregabalin (MOA unclear), Ondansetron (prevention, not treatment), Phenergan, Dexamethasone (works great with zofran), metoclopramide, PPI’s and H2 blockers

31
Q

Most common antibiotics and dosages?

A

Ancef/ cefazolin (2 - 3 g, 30 mg/kg in peds, give q4h over 30 min)

Clindamycin (900 mg, 10 mg/kg in peds, give q6h over 30 - 60 min)

Vancomycin (15 mg/kg in adults/peds, infuse 15 mg/min

32
Q

What should be conducted prior to administration of any mind-altering substance?

A

An anesthesia timeout, pt name, age, sex, hospital name, MRN, source of history and time of admission

33
Q

Which patient populations are most at risk for latex allergies?

A
  1. healthcare workers
  2. patients with spina bifida
  3. food handlers
34
Q

Which antibiotics are associated with the most allergies?

A

penicillin and cephalosporins

35
Q

If we give a patient Vancomycin and the turn red is this an allergic reaction?

A

No. Red man syndrome can happen if the medication is given too quickly. Slow the rate down and it’ll be fine.

36
Q

Allergies to local anesthetics is often the result of what?

A

reactions to esters are usually due to the preservative (PABA).

37
Q

Which cross-reactivities are possible with NMBAs?

A

neostigmine and morphine (d/t ammonium ions)

38
Q

What is the standard dose of hydrocortisone for patients on chronic steroids? Why do we give this?

A

100 mg q6. We give this to combat adrenal insufficiency (lack of cortisol produced over time d/t HPA suppression by the steroids)