Ischemic Heart Disease Flashcards

Exam 2 content

1
Q

Treatment for Prinzmetal angina?

A

CCB -> Verapamil

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2
Q

2 most important risk factors for IHD (ischemic heart disease)?

A

Male and age

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3
Q

what percentage of surgical patients have IHD?

A

30%

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4
Q

How much of an occlusion does stable angina indicate?

A

70%

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5
Q

What condition is the most common cause of impaired coronary flow resulting in angina pectoris?

A

Atherosclerosis

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6
Q

Angina can radiate through what dermatomes?

A

C8-T4

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7
Q

Stable vs unstable angina?

A

S - CP that does not change over 2 months
U - angina at rest lasting longer than 10 minutes

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8
Q

Describe the acute and long term trends of a troponin level

A

Acute: remains elevated for 3-4 hours
Long term: elevated ~2 weeks

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9
Q

What is the relationship between ST depression and angina?

A

ST depression is usually indicative of subendocardial ischemia. The larger the ST depression the greater the likelihood of significant CAD.

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10
Q

Is a stress test or nuclear stress imaging more sensitive for detection of IHD?

A

Nuclear stress imaging

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11
Q

What tracers and chemicals are used in nuclear stress imaging?

A

Tracers: Thallium and technetium
Chemical stressors: atropine, dobutamine, pacing, adenosine and dipyridamole

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12
Q

What does coronary angiography NOT tell us about IHD? What could provide a hint?

A

The stability of the plaque (old vs new). Presence of collateral circulation

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13
Q

What are Thienopyridines (P2Y inhibitors)

A

Examples: clopidogrel (Plavix) and prasugrel (Effient)

These inhibit ADP receptor P2Y inhibiting platelet aggregation

Effient is more potent than Plavix and has a higher risk of bleeding

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14
Q

What anti-platelet is a prodrug?

A

Plavix (clopidogrel)

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15
Q

What affects do platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonists do? Name a few…

A

these inhibit platelet activation, adhesion and aggregation. Abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban.

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16
Q

What drugs are nitrates synergistic?

A

BBs and CCBs

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17
Q

What is a core measure for anesthesia providers r/t to beta blockers? Why?

A

All patients previously on BB should receive a BB during the case.

BBs are the only drugs that prolong the lifespan of patients with CAD.

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18
Q

What conditions are nitrates contraindicated?

A

Aortic stenosis and hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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19
Q

Only drug that prolongs life in CAD?

A

BBs

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20
Q

Which BBs have bronchospasm concerns?

A

Propranolol and Nadolol

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21
Q

Advantage of being on an ACE? Cons?

A

A = prevent remodeling and stabilize electrical activity, reduce myocardial workload/oxygen demand
C = loss of RAAS means they don’t handle hypotension as well

22
Q

When is revascularization indicated in L main, all other coronaries and EF changes?

A

L main = 50% occlusion
Other coronaries = 70% occlusion
EF: less than 40%

23
Q

What are the two interventions we have for coronary revascularization?

A

PCI and CABG.

24
Q

What coronary occlusions is a CABG generally preferred over PCI?

A

L main disease, triple vessel disease or a patient with DM with 2 or more vessel disease

25
Q

How would you differentiate unstable angina vs a NSTEMI?

A

12-lead and troponins. 12-lead is +/- with + troponin = NSTEMI
negative 12-lead with negative troponin = unstable angina

26
Q

What is the criteria to diagnose an MI?

A

+ troponin, s/sx of ischemia, ECG changes, pathologic Q waves, imaging evidence (wall motion abnormality) or direct identification via angiography

27
Q

What is the relationship of depth of ST changes to likelihood of ACS?

A

The greater the degree of depression = the higher chance of significant coronary disease

28
Q

If an EKG suggests an MI, is an echo required?

A

No. It can be helpful if they have a BBB or if AMI is uncertain such as suspected aortic dissection.

29
Q

Contraindications to starting a BB?

A

Heart failure, low CO state and not at risk of cardiogenic shock

30
Q

When should thrombolytics be given? Cutoff time?

A

Within 30 - 60 minutes, and no later than 12 hours

31
Q

Timeframe to start angioplasty?

A

Within 90 minutes and within 12 hours of symptom onset

32
Q

When is PCI preferred over thrombolytics?

A

Heart failure, pulmonary edema, symptoms present for at least 2-3 hours or when the clot becomes more mature. Also if patient cannot receive systemic thrombolytics.

33
Q

Treatment for unstable angina?

A

Bed rest, oxygen, analgesia and BBs. Nitro and CCBs can help if ischemia persists.
Other helpful agents: ASA, plavix, heparin
Thrombolytics = contraindicated

34
Q

How long is a patient at risk for thrombosis after balloon angioplasty, bare metal/drug eluding stent placement?

A

Balloon = 2-3 weeks
Bare stent = 12 weeks minimum (longer preferred)
Drug eluding stent = a full year

35
Q

What are our 2 major concerns with a stent placement?

A

Thrombosis and increased risk of bleeding

36
Q

Downside of ASA/Plavix relative to heparin?

A

No reversal agent, all you can do is give platelets

37
Q

How long should a patient wait for surgery after angioplasty, bare metal stent, CABG and drug eluding stent placement?

A

Angio = 2 -4 weeks
Bare = 4 - 12 weeks
CABG = 6 - 12 weeks
Drug = 6 - 12 months

38
Q

When do you stop an ACE?

39
Q

What is the preferred agent to treat bradycardia in the OR?

A

Glycopyrrolate > atropine

40
Q

What other drug do we give with glycopyrrolate?

A

Neostigmine–> the effects balance each other out

41
Q

What tool do we use to quantify risk stratification of surgery? What’s considered low risk? Elevated risk?

A

revised cardiac risk index (RCRI).
Low risk: RCRI</= 1
Elevated: RCRI > 2

42
Q

Goal for METs?

A

Greater than 4, which is climbing a flight of stairs or better

43
Q

Ideal time to wait for surgery after an MI?

A

Generally greater than 60 days

44
Q

Hard cardiac stops to the administration of anesthesia?

A

Unstable angina, decompensated HF, severe valve disease, significant dysrhythmias

45
Q

Most important goal to achieve if a patient has heart disease when going to the OR? Other factors to try and control?

A

Must avoid tachycardia. Other goals = prevent HTN, SNS stimulation, arterial hypoxemia and hypotension. Go slow.

46
Q

What anesthetics are good to use to prevent tachycardia?

A

Sux, Vec, Roc, cisatracurium, lidocaine, esmolol, fentanyl, remifentanil and Dex

47
Q

With severely impaired LV function, what would be a good choice of anesthesia for induction?

A

High dose opioid only

48
Q

Assuming appropriate anesthetic depth, good drug of choice to treat tachycardia? Brady?

A

T = esmolol
B = Glyco > atropine

49
Q

II, III and AVF changes indicate what kind of occlusion?

A

RCA occlusion

50
Q

I, AVL indicate changes indicate what kind of occlusion?

A

Circumflex occlusion

51
Q

V3-5 indicate changes indicate what kind of occlusion?

A

LAD occlusion