Lec4 Adrenal causes of hypertension Flashcards

1
Q

What is the location of the adrenal glands?

A

Superior pole of the kidneys, retroperitoneal - around T12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How big are the adrenal glands?

A

1.5 inches in height x 3 inches in length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What do the adrenals looks like on a CT scan (cross section through it)?

A

Inverted Y shape

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name the layers of the adrenal glands

A

Zona glomerulosa
Zona Fasciculata
Zona Reticularis
Medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What do each of the layers produce?

A

G - produces Aldosterone - swaps sodium for potassium
F - produces Cortisol - elevates blood glucose
R- produces adrenal androgens - sex hormones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the three adrenal causes of hypertension?

A
  1. Primary Hyperaldosteronism
  2. Phaeochromocytoma
  3. Some forms of Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which layer in the adrenal gland contributes to primary hyperaldosteronism?

A

Zona Glomerulosa - because it produces aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What can cause the zone glomerulosa to produce excess aldosterone?

A

Adenoma of the ZG - a single, enlarged node producing excess aldosterone
Hyperplasia - enlarged tissue
Rare genetic causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How does excess aldosterone produced in the zone glomerulosa cause hypertension?

A

Excess aldosterone causes excess sodium to be reabsorbed in the kidney tubule and so water also follows and is reabsorbed, which leads to HYPERTENSION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In which layer of the adrenal gland does a phaeochromocytoma develop?

A

Adrenal medulla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a phaeochromocytoma (phaeo)?

A

A tumour of the adrenal medulla which results in high levels of noradrenaline and adrenaline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia?

A

It is an uncommon enzyme defect

leads to a build up of aldosterone, causing hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What kind of molecule is aldosterone?

A

Mineralocorticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the pathway for aldosterone secretion

A

When the kidneys are under perfused this is sensed by baroreceptors in the renal artery
The kidney responds by producing RENIN
Renin catalyses the reaction which turns ANGIOTENSINOGEN into ANGIOTENSIN I
ANGIOTENSIN CONVERTING ENZYME - ACE - catalyses conversion of ANGIOTENSIN I into ANGIOTENSIN II
Angiotensin II causes production of ALDOSTERONE which acts on the kidney and causes water to be reabsorbed
This INCREASES BLOOD PRESSURE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is Conn’s Syndrome?

A

A condition in which there is excess aldosterone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Why is it important to distinguish between primary hyperaldosteronism (PA) /Conn’s syndrome and essential hypertension?

A

Because Conn’s syndrome is a potentially curable cause of high blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What type of patients would you screen for PA?

A
  1. Hypokalaemic patients - this might be due to high aldosterone
  2. Resistant hypertension patients - on 3 hypotensive drugs
  3. Young people - there is much more likely to be an underlying cause for their hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why are patients with PA worse off than patients who just have straight forward hypertension?

A

Because PA patients have more vascular and renal pathology than a patient with essential hypertension with the same blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the initial screening test for PA?

A

Suppressed renin with normal/high aldosterone indicates PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the confirmatory test for PA?

A

Oral or IV Na+ suppression test
If there is a high sodium, you expect the aldosterone to be low because there is no need for more production of aldosterone when sodium is high
If there is normal to high aldosterone at high levels of sodium then there is inappropriate aldosterone production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the tests for specific aetiology of PA? i.e. secreting adenoma or bilateral hyperplasia

A
  1. Adrenal CT scan
  2. Adrenal venous sampling - to see if the aldo secretion is uni/bilateral
  3. Metomidate PET CT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Older adults often have nodules in their adrenal glands which are harmless. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What forms of treatment are there for Unilateral adenoma in Primary Hyperaldosteronism?

A
Laparascopic adrenalectomy 
Medical treatment (sometimes)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the treatment for Bilateral Hyperplasia in PA?

A

Medical treatment with ALDOSTERONE ANTAGONISTS

e.g. Spironolactone and Eplerinone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is the function of both spironolactone and eplerinone?
To bring blood pressure down
26
What is a potential side effect of spironolactone?
It causes poor oestrogen regulation which can cause megalogynaecomastia in men
27
What is a phaeochromocytoma?
A tumour of the adrenal medulla
28
What type of cells make up the adrenal medulla?
Modified post-ganglionic nerve cells
29
What are the modified post-ganglionic nerve cells of the adrenal medulla innervated by?
Preganglionic nerves
30
Cholinergic nerves from the Spinal Cord stimulate the adrenal medulla which results in:
production of tyrosine, conversion to L-DOPA, which is converted to dopamine and dopamine is converted to noradrenaline.
31
What is the function of the adrenal medulla?
The adrenal medulla secretes dopamine, noradrenaline and adrenaline into the circulation
32
What triggers the conversion of noradrenaline to adrenaline in the adrenal medulla?
Cortisol release from the cortex
33
What is adrenomedullin?
A peptide associated with phaeochromocytoma. | It is thought to be one of the most potent endogenous vasodilatory peptides in the body
34
What type of tissue is the adrenal medulla?
Neuroendocrine tissue
35
Is the adrenal medulla essential for life?
No - but it would be very difficult without it
36
What response is the adrenal medulla responsible for?
Stress response and | Fight or flight response
37
What are the biological effects of noradrenaline?
Vasoconstriction - increased BP, pallor | Glycogenolysis - to provide more glucose/substrate for the muscles for "fight or flight"
38
What receptors does noradrenaline act on?
Alpha 1 and alpha 2 receptors (so NA is a alpha 1 and 2 agonist)
39
What receptors does adrenaline act on?
Alpha 1, beta 1 and beta 2 receptors (so adrenaline is a alpha 1, beta 1 and 2 agonist)
40
What are the biological effects of adrenaline?
Vasoconstriction Vasodilation in muscle Increased HR Sweating
41
What is the main pathology of the adrenal medulla?
Phaeochromocytoma
42
Where are 20% of phaeos diagnosed?
In the mortuary
43
Describe the presentation of Phaeos
Spells of headache, sweating, pallor, palpitation, anxiety Hypertension: Permanent Intermittent - but may not pick this up, depends on when BP taken
44
Name the autosomal dominant genetic conditions associated with phaeochromocytoma
Neurofibromatosis Type 1 (NF1) Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2 (MEN2) Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome
45
Describe the presentation of NF1
Tumours under the skin or deeper = neurofibromas | Axillary freckling also occurs in NF1
46
What are neurofibromas?
Neurofibromas - tumours along the nerves which are made up of cells that surround nerves and other cell types
47
How many neurofibromas can a person with NF1 have?
Any number from none to hundreds
48
At what age do neurofibromas present?
At any age but especially during adolescence
49
What is a type of cancer found in MEN2 family members?
Medullary carcinoma of the thyroid | Metastasis of this type of cancer can kill
50
What can be done if a child is known to have MEN2?
Take out the thyroid gland to prevent death from metastasis of Medullary Carcinoma of the Thyroid
51
Name a complication of Von Hippel Lindau Syndrome
Retinal haemoblastoma - tumour in the retina | Cerebellar haemangioligoblastoma
52
What tests do you do to diagnose a phaeo?
24 hour urine | Plasma/blood test
53
What do you measure in the 24 hour urine test?
Normetanephrines and metanephrines - metabolites of catecholamines which would be high in a phaeo pt 3 methyoxytromine
54
What do you measure in the blood test?
Plasma levels of catecholamines (adrenaline, noradrenaline) and metanephrines
55
What complicates measuring catecholamines?
There are other conditions that elevate catecholamines
56
What other conditions cause elevated catecholamines?
Obstructive Sleep Apnoea Amphetamine like drugs L-DOPA Labetalol
57
Where does the dopamine in urine come from?
The kidney and nervous system - NOT the adrenal medulla
58
What can you measure instead that will give an idea about the adrenal medullary activity?
3 methoxytyramine in the urine
59
What imaging can be done to find a phaeo?
CT scan | Meta-iodobenzylguanidine Scintiscan
60
What is a MIBG scan?
A type of scanning using a radioisotope (iodine) "tracer" to determine the presence of phaeochromocytomas and neuroblastomas
61
How do you manage a phaeo?
``` Alpha antagonists (phenoxybenzamine and doxazocin) Beta antagonists (propanolol) Laparoscopic adrenalectomy ```
62
What type of post adrenalectomy care would you consider?
Consider genetic testing - 30% are genetic and 13 mutations are identified so far Check metanephrines annually with 24 hour urine/ plasma Additional treatment if malignant - the case for 10%